Pharmacy Practice Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pharmacy Practice is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the evolving roles and responsibilities of pharmacists within healthcare systems. The course covers foundational concepts in pharmacy operations, dispensing processes, clinical pharmacy services, patient counseling, and ethical considerations. Emphasis is placed on the development of communication and collaboration skills needed for effective patient care and interprofessional teamwork. Students also learn about medication safety, drug information resources, and current trends in pharmacy practice, preparing them to apply best practices in various settings such as community, hospital, and ambulatory care pharmacies.
Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of Pharmacology 8th Edition by Shane
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Page 2
Bullock
Chapter 1: Sociocultural Aspects
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the potential problem with bioequivalence between different brand names of medications?
A) The colours of the preparations may be different.
B) The labels on the containers may be different.
C) Consumers may get confused about the availability of more than one preparation.
D) The medications may not be absorbed or act in the same way after administration.
Answer: D
Q2) Why is once-daily dosing preferred for Australian Indigenous peoples?
A) Because Indigenous people generally have a poor memory.
B) Indigenous people have a culturally different concept of time, therefore minimising the number of doses is aimed at promoting compliance.
C) Because once-daily dosing is less likely to cause side effects such as renal disease.
D) All of the above.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Health Professionals and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the drug order is unclear,the health professional should:
A) ask a colleague to interpret the writing.
B) check what other medications the patient is taking and have an educated guess.
C) question the prescriber about what was intended.
D) withhold the medication.
Answer: C
Q2) In Victoria,midwives employed in hospitals are permitted to initiate administration of up to two pethidine injections to a woman in labour without a health professional's order.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) After giving a verbal order,the health professional must:
A) confirm the verbal order in writing within 48 hours.
B) confirm the verbal order in writing within 24 hours.
C) ensure that the medication is administered by the health professional.
D) ensure that a health professional has co-signed the verbal order.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client diagnosed with severe coronary artery disease intends to continue with sporting activities (including intense training for competition) without the knowledge or approval of family. Which ethical principles may conflict for health professionals?
Answer: The health professionals encounter conflict between the issues of autonomy and confidentiality.
Q2) Voluntary euthanasia involves the:
A) client's next-of-kin agreeing to an intervention that leads to the client's death.
B) client voluntarily and freely choosing to receive an intervention that leads to their death.
C) client being incapable of giving consent.
D) health professionals involved with the client's care choosing to administer an intervention that leads to the client's death.
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
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Q1) A client is recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.Her mother has also been diagnosed some years ago.Which of the following teaching principles will be most helpful in client teaching?
A) Passive participation
B) Prior knowledge and experience
C) Repetition will not be required.
D) The patient is genetically predisposed to be prepared for accompanying pain.
Q2) Which of the following factors has an effect on medication adherence? Select all that apply.
A) Age extremes
B) Communication barriers
C) Polypharmacy
D) Single illness with uncomplicated treatment regimen
Q3) In their role as client advocate,health professionals inform people about their rights in relation to drug therapy,other health care-related matters,or when confronted by adversaries,to empower them to make informed decisions.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
Professionals in Medicine Management
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Q1) The evolution of nurses into practitioners with prescribing abilities is an example of how roles have changed in relation to drug therapy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following health professionals treat clients having temporary or permanent physical disability by physical treatment modalities (such as exercise,massage,splinting and electrical stimulation)that often require supplementary drug therapy?
A) Prescriber
B) Nurse
C) Physiotherapist
D) Paramedic
Q3) The educational preparation for a nurse practitioner is:
A) a Master's degree.
B) a Bachelor's degree.
C) extensive training in the clinical setting.
D) a professional doctorate.
Q4) Dietitians are legally allowed to administer medications to clients.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Medicine Formulations, Storage and Routes of Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sustained or controlled-release medication should not be crushed or chewed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Drugs of biological origin such as vaccine preparations need to be stored
A) between 25°C and 37°C.
B) at room temperature.
C) between 10°C and 20°C.
D) between 0°C and 4°C.
Q3) In children over the age of 3 years and adults,for aural administration the auricle is pulled:
A) down and back.
B) up and back.
C) down and outwards.
D) up and outwards.
Q4) The shelf life of glyceryl trinitrate tablets after opening the container is:
A) 80 days.
B) 85 days.
C) 90 days.
D) 100 days.
8
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Chapter 7: the Clinical Decision-making Process
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Australia's National Medicines Policy?
A) Timely access to the medicines that Australians need, at a cost individuals and the community can afford
B) Medicines meeting appropriate standards of quality, safety and efficacy
C) Quality use of medicines
D) Consumers and health professionals communicating effectively about medicines management
Q2) The nursing clinical decision-making process involves the following steps:
A) assessment, planning and implementation.
B) assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.
C) assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation.
D) assessment and evaluation.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT representative of the 'quality use of' facet of the National Medicines Policy?
A) Only focusing on drug therapy
B) Choosing suitable medicines
C) Safe use of medicines
D) Effective use of medicines
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Chapter 8: Medicine Administration Strategies and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A health professional is required to practice within the policies and procedures of the health care agency and to follow the legal framework of government legislation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many registered nurses are needed to check information for administration of drugs such as narcotic analgesics,digoxin and warfarin?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) More than five
Q3) Sympathomimetic agents such as adrenaline,noradrenaline and dopamine,which are commonly used in critical care areas,cannot be given through a peripheral vein because:
A) it would be difficult for the nurse to control the flow rate of a peripheral infusion.
B) a volumetric pump cannot be connected to a peripheral intravenous line.
C) there is greater risk of infection around the cannula site.
D) the agents can cause permanent necrosis of extremities.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Medication Errors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are potential sources of medical errors? Select all that apply.
A) The wrong dose of a medication is given.
B) The person's identity is not checked.
C) The manufacturer changes inert ingredients.
D) The person takes all of their medicines at the same time every day.
Q2) In order to avoid medication errors,it is a good strategy to have two patients with the same name positioned:
A) next to each other.
B) opposite each other.
C) next to the central office area.
D) at opposite ends of the hospital ward.
Q3) Following the five rights"will help reduce medication errors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Management of Common Adverse Drug Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug is the most common cause of an anaphylactic reaction?
A) Aspirin
B) Contrast media
C) Penicillin
D) Transfused blood
Q2) Postural hypotension is an adverse effect often associated with drugs that:
A) block \(\alpha\)-adrenoceptors.
B) stimulate \(\alpha\)-adrenoreceptors.
C) block \(\beta\)-adrenoreceptors
D) stimulate \(\beta\)-adrenoreceptors
Q3) A type A adverse drug reaction is:
A) a long-term effect that involves an interaction between circulating antibodies and a medication.
B) a delayed effect that occurs when a medication binds onto the surface of blood cells and induces an antibody reaction.
C) a predictable result based on the pharmacological profile of the medication.
D) an aberrant or idiosyncratic effect that is not predicted by the known pharmacology of a medication.
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Chapter 11: Risk Communication: Balancing the Benefits and Risks of Drug Treatment
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Q1) When comparing absolute risk reduction to relative risk reduction,one must consider:
A) the incidence of an outcome event.
B) the incidence of a sentinel event.
C) That only the relative risk statistics are accurate.
D) that more weight is given to absolute risk data.
Q2) Which of the following strategies would NOT be beneficial in communicating risks and benefits to individuals?
A) Offer balanced information.
B) Use specific, descriptive terms for risk.
C) Use a consistent denominator.
D) Use visual aids.
Q3) Although few,there are risk-free medications in use.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Another name for absolute risk is risk difference.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Drug Nomenclature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a generic drug name used in Australia and New Zealand?
A) Frusemide
B) Furomide
C) Furosemide
D) Lasix
Q2) Individual drugs can be classified according to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) therapeutic use.
B) mode of action.
C) molecular structure.
D) adverse drug reaction.
Q3) Drugs with generic names that end in the suffix -pril are members of the drug group called:
A) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) serotonin receptor antagonists.
D) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
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Chapter 13: Pharmacokinetics: Absorption and Distribution
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Q1) If a drug accumulates in one tissue (that is,the drug is extensively bound to a tissue),its volume of distribution is low.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Drugs that are liver enzyme inducers may:
A) increase a drug's half-life.
B) increase a drug's metabolism.
C) inhibit a drug's therapeutic effect.
D) increase tissue distribution of another drug.
Q3) Drugs are best absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract if they are:
A) hydrophilic.
B) amphipathic.
C) lipophobic.
D) lipophilic.
Q4) By which route are drugs not subject to the physiological process of absorption through a blood vessel wall?
A) Intramuscularly
B) Intradermally
C) Intravenously
D) Subcutaneously
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Chapter 14: Pharmacokinetics Metabolism and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glyceryl trinitrate is almost 96 per cent destroyed by the liver on its first journey through.It is therefore referred to as having a:
A) low hepatic first-pass effect.
B) medium hepatic first-pass effect
C) high hepatic first-pass effect.
D) high metabolic first-pass effect.
Q2) Phase 1 metabolism of a drug can involve:
A) glucuronidation.
B) sulphation.
C) conjugation.
D) oxidation.
Q3) Clearance of an acidic drug by the kidneys may be increased by:
A) alkalising the urine.
B) administering amphetamines.
C) administering ascorbic acid.
D) administering sodium hydrogen carbonate.
Q4) Explain what is meant by drug clearance.
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Chapter 15: Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which way can hepatic enzymes be altered by drug metabolism?
A) Can cause enhancement or inhibition of metabolism
B) Can interact with the external environment
C) Are only altered in conjunction with food
D) Are only considered with regard to synergistic effects between drugs
Q2) When suxamethonium and thiopentone are mixed in the same syringe,the drug-drug interaction that results is:
A) summation.
B) chemical drug incompatibility.
C) potentiation.
D) augmentation.
Q3) The drug interactions that occur with cimetidine are usually due to:
A) enzyme inhibition.
B) enzyme induction.
C) protein binding.
D) summation.
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Chapter 16: Pharmacodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pharmacodynamics describes the physiological processes that act on a drug once it enters the body,or how the body handles the drug.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some terms that describe interactions between drugs and receptors include: (Select all that apply)
A) antagonism.
B) agonism.
C) first mechanism
D) first messenger
Q3) Pharmacological effect is achieved by:
A) the portion of free or unbound drug.
B) the portion of protein-bound drug.
C) ionisation.
D) penetrating the blood-brain barrier.
Q4) A drug mechanism that works to neutralise stomach acid is considered to be:
A) an action targeting ion channels.
B) a chemical action.
C) an agonist action.
D) a physical action.
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Chapter 17: Drug Development, Evaluation and Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) A type of hypersensitivity reaction to a drug,described as anaphylaxis,which is mediated by IgE antibodies,is a:
A) type I hypersensitivity reaction.
B) type II hypersensitivity reaction.
C) type III hypersensitivity reaction.
D) type IV hypersensitivity reaction.
Q2) The terms side effect and adverse effects are interchangeable.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A protein-bound drug may get displaced by another drug through competition for binding sites on plasma proteins.The displaced drug may then exert toxicity if it has a lower margin of safety.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The transfer of drugs from the maternal circulation into fetal circulation depends on the dose and physicochemical properties of the drug,and transplacental transport systems.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Genetic Considerations in Pharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following are ethical issues associated with pharmacogenetics? Select all that apply.
A) Keeping data secure
B) Insurance risk
C) Cost of therapy
D) Lack of data on effectiveness of treatment
Q2) A client that you are caring for has advanced kidney disease and is about to commence drug therapy.In order to maintain safe plasma drug levels,the prescriber might have to consider:
A) increasing the dosage.
B) decreasing the dosage.
C) increasing the frequency of dosing.
D) increasing the dose and frequency of administration.
Q3) Cost-effectiveness is a potential barrier to genetic-based therapies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Two techniques used in gene therapy include in vitro and vector methods.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Pharmacokinetic Factors That Modify Drug Action
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Q1) During pregnancy,drug absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is variable and unpredictable due to slowed peristalsis and gastric emptying.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which one of the following factors would not be expected to increase the rate of drug absorption from the small intestines?
A) A small-sized drug molecule
B) Delayed gastric emptying
C) An increase in gut blood flow
D) The majority of drug molecules in an un-ionised state
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Chapter 20: Paediatric and Geriatric Pharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following would assist in medication adherence for the older person?
A) Simple medicine regimens
B) Use of medication aids
C) Improved communication
D) All of the above
Q2) Compared to neonates,do the elderly have greater or diminished drug effects due to variation in the volume of body fluid?
Q3) In paediatric settings,it is desirable to:
A) leave medications on the bedside locker for later administration.
B) use the vastus lateralis muscle for intramuscular injection.
C) prepare medicines for injection in front of the child.
D) advise the child that injections are painless.
Q4) Compared to a young adult,which of the following tends to increase in the elderly?
A) The rate of gastric emptying
B) Plasma protein concentration
C) Metabolic processes
D) Adipose tissue levels
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22
Chapter 21: Poisoning and Envenomation
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Q1) AZ is a 62-year-old farmer who is brought in to the emergency department for the management of organophosphate poisoning.How should this be managed?
A) Administration of vitamin K
B) Administration of atropine
C) Administration of diphenhydramine
D) Administration of dicobalt edetate
Q2) Which of the following is an iron chelating agent?
A) Disodium edetate
B) Deferasirox
C) d-penicillamine
D) Calcium gluconate
Q3) Which of the following best characterizes the mode of action of cyanide poisoning?
A) Central nervous system depressant
B) Displaces essential trace elements and accumulates in tissues
C) Permanently disables the enzyme cholinesterase
D) Diminishes cellular energy
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Chapter 22: the Management of Acute Clinical Overdose
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Q1) Which one of the following is NOT a component of patient assessment in the management of clinical drug overdose?
A) Determining the time that poisoning occurred
B) Determining if the client had any previous episodes of drug overdose
C) Recognising the clinical manifestations of the overdose
D) Ordering laboratory tests of the patient's blood
Q2) The passing of a patient's blood across a medium containing adsorbent beads is called:
A) haemoperfusion.
B) haemosiderosis.
C) haemodialysis.
D) haemolysis.
Q3) The principle of management of clinical drug overdose that takes precedence over all others is:
A) life support.
B) patient assessment.
C) drug detoxification.
D) drug elimination.
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Chapter 23: Contemporary Drugs of Abuse
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Q1) Which of the following is a symptom of caffeine withdrawal?
A) Hallucinations
B) Palpitations
C) Headaches
D) Muscle tremors
Q2) Nicotine can have the following effect EXCEPT:
A) weight gain.
B) stimulation.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) appetite suppression.
Q3) Which of the following medications can be used to treat alcohol addiction?
A) Metronidazole
B) Disulfiram
C) Acamprosate
D) Both B and C
Q4) Therapeutic uses of marijuana include:
A) glaucoma.
B) emesis control.
C) hypertension.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 24: Drug Abuse in Sport
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Q1) Which one of the following could be perceived as a benefit associated with anabolic-androgenic steroid use?
A) Mood swings
B) Premature completion of long bone growth
C) Increased skeletal muscle mass
D) An altered blood lipid profile
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT true in relation to detection of drug use in sport?
A) Individual differences in pharmacokinetics affect the results of drug tests.
B) Sportswomen can use some drugs on the WADA banned list that sportsmen cannot.
C) Peptide hormone misuse can be difficult to detect.
D) Low-dose anabolic-androgenic steroid use causes feminisation in men.
Q3) Which of the following statements is NOT usually given by sportspeople as a reason for drug doping?
A) To increase popularity amongst peers
B) To gain a competitive edge
C) To cope with stress
D) Dissatisfaction with current performance
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Chapter 25: General Aspects of Neuropharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following best characterizes the anatomic and physiological difference between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system?
A) The sympathetic nervous system has short postganglionic fibres, while the parasympathetic nervous system has long postganglionic fibres.
B) The sympathetic nervous system has ganglia located within a few cm of the CNS, while the parasympathetic nervous system ganglia is located close to the visceral organs served.
C) The sympathetic nervous system originates from cranial nerves, while the parasympathetic nervous system originates from the lateral horn of grey matter of the spinal cord segments.
D) The sympathetic nervous system has minimal degrees of branching of preganglionic fibres, while the parasympathetic nervous system has extensive degrees of branching of preganglionic fibres.
Q2) The parasympathetic division is activated in an emergency or stressful situation. A)True B)False
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Chapter 26: Adrenergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Receptors that respond to norepinephrine are called:
A) adrenergic.
B) cholinergic.
C) dopaminergic.
D) noradrenergic.
Q2) Which of the following adrenergic agonists stimulate both \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) receptors?
A) Noradrenaline
B) Adrenaline
C) Dopamine
D) Both A and B
Q3) Which of the following receptors are located presynaptically and are found on all adrenergic nerve terminals?
A) <sub>1</sub>
B) <sub>2</sub>
C) <sub>1</sub>
D <sub>2</sub>
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28
Chapter 27: Cholinergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Following the administration of muscarinic agonist eyedrops,the client should be instructed to:
A) lie down.
B) rinse the eye with saline solution.
C) perform eye muscle exercises.
D) avoid driving and working with dangerous tools.
Q2) Which of the following agents can be used to reverse the effects of acetylcholine?
A) Cholinergic receptor stimulation
B) Suxamethonium
C) Tubocurarine
D) Atropine
Q3) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are useful in the treatment of:
A) Alzheimer's disease.
B) multiple sclerosis.
C) anxiety.
D) depression.
Q4) Acetylcholinesterase breaks acetylcholine into choline and acetate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: An Introduction to Chemical Mediators
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following mediators acts on a distant target?
A) Neurotransmitter
B) Classic hormone
C) Local hormone
D) Autacoid
Q2) Which of the following mediators is released directly into the bloodstream?
A) Hormones
B) Neurotransmitters
C) Autacoids
D) None of the above
Q3) Mediators that induce their effect without entering the circulation are referred to as:
A) hormones.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) autacoids.
D) second messengers.
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Chapter 29: Histamine and Antihistamines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following mediators plays a role in modulating allergic reactions?
A) Serotonin
B) Histamine
C) Pepsin
D) None of the above
Q2) Where are H<sub>1</sub> receptors found?
A) Stomach
B) Smooth muscles
C) Immune cells
D) All of the above
Q3) Which secondary messenger is associated with H<sub>1</sub> receptor activation?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D
Q4) Antihistamines are used for the treatment of:
A) allergies.
B) anaphylactic reactions.
C) depression.
D) both A and B.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Prostaglandins and Serotonin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prostaglandin analogues have been used for:
A) termination of pregnancy.
B) glaucoma.
C) treatment of impotence.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Common eicosanoids include:
A) thromboxanes.
B) leukotrienes.
C) hydroperoxyeicosatrienoic acids.
D) all of the above.
Q3) 5-HT<sub>3</sub> receptor antagonists have been used for: A) nausea.
B) somnolence.
C) REMS sleep disorder.
D) GERD.
Q4) Drugs that inhibit the synaptic serotonin reuptake are used for: A) autism.
B) depression.
C) glaucoma.
D) termination of pregnancy.
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Chapter 31: Nitric Oxide and the Endothelins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nitric oxide is a highly stable gas used for the management of cyanide poisoning.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which secondary messenger is associated with endothelin receptors?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D
Q3) Endothelin receptor antagonists can be used safely in pregnant patients.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How many endothelin receptor subtypes have been identified?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
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Page 33
Chapter 32: General concepts of Psychopharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) With which neurotransmitter system are NMDA receptors primarily associated?
A) Acetylcholine
B) Glutamate
C) Dopamine
D) Serotonin
Q2) Which part of the human brain is not considered part of the brainstem?
A) Medulla oblongata
B) Midbrain
C) Pons
D) Cerebrum
Q3) One of the pharmacological issues associated with the widespread distribution of receptors for a particular transmitter throughout the brain is that:
A) the number of unwanted drug effects is low.
B) there is a need to develop more specific agents.
C) the drugs will not work on peripheral body receptors.
D) the receptors are all of the same subtype.
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Chapter 33: Antipsychotics
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Q1) Which dopamine receptor is most frequently associated with psychotic illness?
A) D1
B) D2
C) D3
D) D4
Q2) Cholestatic jaundice can occur with which phenothiazine antipsychotic agent,therefore requiring cessation of the agent?
A) Fluphenazine
B) Pericyazine
C) Chlorpromazine
D) Pipothiazine
Q3) An example of a psychosis is:
A) schizophrenia.
B) depression.
C) anxiety.
D) panic disorder.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Anxiolytics and Hypnotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Benzodiazepines can induce:
A) amnesia.
B) rage.
C) depression.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Which benzodiazepine is sometimes useful in the treatment of endogenous depression?
A) Alprazolam
B) Triazolam
C) Diazepam
D) Flunitrazepam
Q3) Which of the following benzodiazepine agents would be suitable for a plane journey where the traveller is having trouble getting to sleep?
A) Clobazam
B) Diazepam
C) Triazolam
D) Nitrazepam
Q4) Explain why hypnotic agents should not be used for long-term therapy.
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36
Chapter 35: Antidepressants and Mood Stabilisers
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Sample Questions
Q1) The potential role of antiseizure drugs in the management of bipolar disorder is to:
A) elevate the synaptic levels of noradrenaline and serotonin.
B) antagonise the effects of GABA.
C) substitute for sodium ion in neuronal processes.
D) stabilise the erratic firing in pathways associated with mood.
Q2) An adverse effect profile of antimuscarinic and antiadrenergic activity and potentially lethal cardiac dysrhythmias is characteristic of which antidepressant drug group?
A) Non-selective MAO inhibitors
B) Tricyclic antidepressants
C) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
D) Tetracyclic antidepressants
Q3) Which of the following measures does NOT help to avoid the serotonin syndrome associated with the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
A) Co-administration of two SSRI preparations
B) Having a 'washout' period when switching drugs
C) Administering a therapeutic dose of a single SSRI agent
D) Tapering high doses of the SSRI agent
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Chapter 36: Medicines Used in Neurodegenerative Disorders
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Q1) What is the rationale for giving levodopa and carbidopa as combination therapy for Parkinson's disease?
A) Levodopa increases the therapeutic effect of carbidopa.
B) Carbidopa inhibits the breakdown of levodopa, increasing distribution to the central nervous system.
C) Both preparations are required to increase the availability of dopamine in the peripheries.
D) Levodopa increases the half-life of carbidopa.
Q2) Alzheimer's disease is characterised by the lack of which neurotransmitter in the higher centres of the brain?
A) Noradrenaline
B) Acetylcholine
C) Dopamine
D) Serotonin
Q3) Neuroleptic drug-induced Parkinsonian symptoms are often treated with:
A) an antimuscarinic agent.
B) a serotonin receptor agonist.
C) an antiemetic agent.
D) an increase in neuroleptic dose.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Antiseizure Agents and Muscle Relaxants
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Q1) The therapeutic action of spasmolytic agents for epilepsy management is:
A) to increase muscle tone.
B) to inhibit muscular spasms.
C) to initiate the efflux of sodium from within cells.
D) none of the above.
Q2) As well as an antiseizure agent,phenytoin is also used for treating:
A) dysrhythmia.
B) ADHD.
C) migraine.
D) Parkinson's disease.
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding status epilepticus is true?
A) This is the medical term given to a person with epilepsy.
B) In this form of epilepsy, the person is affected by a number of different seizure types.
C) In status epilepticus, there is no spontaneous recovery from a seizure.
D) This condition is commonly associated with client compliance with medication.
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Chapter 38: Central Nervous System Stimulants
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Q1) 'Drug holidays' from dexamphetamine may be important to avoid:
A) addiction.
B) growth retardation.
C) insomnia.
D) cognitive impairment.
Q2) Modafinil is useful in the treatment of:
A) ADD.
B) ADHD.
C) narcolepsy.
D) amphetamine addiction.
Q3) Behaviour associated with ADD in children includes: A) forgetfulness.
B) daydreaming.
C) lack of interest.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 39: Opioid Analgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the equivalent dose of pethidine when compared with 10 mg of morphine?
A) 25-50 mg of pethidine
B) 50-75 mg of pethidine
C) 75-100 mg of pethidine
D) 100-125 mg of pethidine
Q2) The reason that methadone is used to help wean people off heroin is that:
A) methadone has a long half-life, which contributes to weak withdrawal symptoms.
B) methadone is administered orally, reducing syringe use.
C) methadone binds to opioid receptors, leaving few receptors available for a heroin 'high'.
D) all of the above.
Q3) The opioid tramadol should be avoided in clients with:
A) epilepsy.
B) a heart condition.
C) asthma.
D) liver disease.
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Q1) Controlled-release preparations of ketoprofen should be taken ________ to improve the symptoms of arthritic pain.
A) immediately after meals
B) 15 minutes before physical activity
C) at bedtime
D) upon rising in the morning
Q2) Which individuals may be more susceptible to paracetamol overdose? Why?
Q3) NSAIDs may not be suitable for use in individuals with renal impairment because they:
A) increase sodium excretion.
B) increase body temperature.
C) reduce the glomerular filtration rate.
D) reduce pepsin levels in the stomach.
Q4) The propionic acid derivatives ibuprofen and naproxen are useful for children suffering from inflammatory disease because they:
A) are not metabolised in the liver.
B) do not cause gastrointestinal problems.
C) are available as oral liquids so that the exact dose can be administered.
D) do not affect platelet aggregation.
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Medicines Used to Treat Migraine
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Q1) In treating an acute migraine attack,sumatriptan should not be given with ergotamine because the combination may lead to:
A) excessive bronchoconstriction.
B) excessive vasoconstriction.
C) gastrointestinal bleeding.
D) excessive diuresis.
Q2) Preventive therapies for migraine should be used for a period of:
A) three to six days.
B) three to six weeks.
C) three to six months.
D) six to twelve months.
Q3) First-line therapy for an acute migraine attack includes:
A) triptans.
B) paracetamol.
C) ergotamine.
D) tricyclic antidepressants.
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Chapter 42: General Anaesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of nitrous oxide as an inhalational anaesthetic?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Surgical procedures involving the middle ear
C) Tachycardia
D) Intestinal obstruction
Q2) The rate of absorption of inhaled anaesthetic into the bloodstream is dependent on the ________ of the gas.
A) rate of osmosis
B) partial pressure
C) volume
D) surfactant levels
Q3) Intrathecal administration of anaesthetic produces:
A) profound anaesthesia with a small dose.
B) a mild analgesic effect with a small dose.
C) analgesia via the nerve roots that communicate with the epidural space.
D) no analgesic effect; this route of administration is inappropriate to achieve analgesia.
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Chapter 43: Local Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following routes of administration has the highest rate of systemic absorption of local anaesthetic agents?
A) Epidural administration
B) Intercostal administration
C) Subcutaneous administration
D) Brachial plexus administration
Q2) Which of the following local anaesthetics has a relatively long duration of action?
A) Procaine
B) Lignocaine
C) Bupivacaine
D) Mepivacaine
Q3) The mechanism of action of the local anaesthetics is to impede the movement of which ion through its membrane channels?
A) Calcium
B) Potassium
C) Sodium
D) GABA
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Chapter 44: Medicines Used to Lower Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) High levels of which of the following lipoproteins can be beneficial?
A) VLDL
B) HDL
C) LDL
D) IDL
Q2) Which type of hyperlipidaemia is characterized by high VLDL and hypertriglyceridaemia?
A) Type I
B) Type IIa
C) Type IIb
D) Type IV
Q3) The mechanism of action of the antihyperlipidaemic agents called the statins involves:
A) inhibition of the rate-limiting enzyme in hepatic cholesterol synthesis.
B) binding to bile salts removing them from the body.
C) an interaction with the peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor alpha.
D) inhibiting the absorption of dietary cholesterol from the gastrointestinal tract.
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Chapter 45: Antihypertensive Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antihypertensive agents should be avoided in a person with depression?
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Centrally acting agents
C) Angiotensin II antagonists
D) ACE inhibitors
Q2) Which of the following antihypertensive agents may be considered during pregnancy?
A) -blockers
B) Calcium channel blockers
C) ACE inhibitors
D) Angiotensin II receptor antagonists
Q3) There are several factors that determine the best approach for treating hypertension.Which of the following is least likely to be a factor in patient compliance?
A)Cost of medication
B)Patient gender
C)Adverse effects
D)Complicated medical history
Q4) Describe the method of action of ACE inhibitors.
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Chapter 46: Medicines Used to Promote Tissue Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the treatment of erectile dysfunction,phosphodiesterase inhibitors:
A) act to trigger the release of nitric oxide.
B) are used when the cause is psychological.
C) may interact negatively with organic nitrate therapy.
D) must be administered directly into the penis.
Q2) Which of the following nitrate formulations is not used to prevent angina symptoms?
A) Oral isosorbide dinitrate controlled-release tablets
B) Oral isosorbide mononitrate controlled-release tablets
C) Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate
D) Sublingual isosorbide dinitrate
Q3) The form of angina pectoris that is associated with coronary vasospasm is called ________ angina.
A) variant
B) exertional
C) classic
D) stable
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Chapter 47: Antithrombotic, Fibrinolytic and Haemostatic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using aspirin as an antiplatelet agent,how many days before any planned surgery or dental procedures should it be stopped?
A) 2 days
B) 7 days
C) 14 days
D) 21 days
Q2) What is the haemostatic agent used in colposcopy procedures?
A)Monsel's solution
B)Calcium alginate
C)Eltrombopag
D)Octocog alfa
Q3) The antiplatelet agent abciximab is structurally related to
A) calcium channel blockers.
B) a bacterial enzyme.
C) the ADP receptor.
D) a vaccine.
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Chapter 48: Diuretics and Other Renal Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diuretic agents is not recommended to be given with an ACE inhibitor?
A) Chlorothiazide
B) Frusemide
C) Ethacrynic acid
D) Spironolactone
Q2) A mannitol infusion bag appears to crystallise.What should the health professional know about this phenomenon?
A)The bag should be discarded immediately.
B)This is normal if the temperature of the bag is too high-the bag should be chilled.
C)This is normal if the temperature of the bag is too low-the bag should be warmed.
D)The infusion should proceed with no action taken.
Q3) Which diuretics promote the greatest diuresis?
A) Thiazides
B) Loop diurectics
C) Aldosterone inhibitors
D) Potassium-sparing diuretics
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50
Chapter 49: Topic: Medicines Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to guidelines developed by the National Heart Foundation and Cardiac Society of Australia and New Zealand,what is the first medication to consider for heart failure?
A) -blockers
B)Calcium channel blockers
C)ACE inhibitors
D)Aldosterone antagonist
Q2) Clients who have renal impairment are at risk of developing ________ during treatment with ACE inhibitors.
A) hypokalaemia
B) hyperkalaemia
C) hyponatraemia
D) hypernatraemia
Q3) Adverse effects such as an unproductive cough and taste disturbances may occur from which category of medicine frequently used for treatment of heart failure?
A) Diuretics
B) Aldosterone antagonists
C) Cardiac glycosides
D) ACE inhibitors
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Chapter 50: Medicines Used to Treat Cardiac Dysrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following mechanisms describes the general action of antidysrhythmic agents?
A) Impeding the movement of ions across cardiac cell membranes
B) Enhancing cardiac automaticity
C) Shortening the cardiac action potential
D) Enhancing impulse conduction in the heart
Q2) Which of the following are mechanisms of action of the class I antidysrhythmics?
A)They have local anaesthesia properties.
B)They have a high affinity for blocking active sodium channels.
C)They affect phase four of the action potential.
D)All of the above.
Q3) Which is an example of a prodysrhythmic agent?
A)Fexofenadine
B)Clarithromycin
C)Haloperidol
D)All of the above
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Chapter 51: Fluid and Potassium Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a potential treatment of severe hyperkalaemia?
A)Peritoneal dialysis
B)Intravenous frusemide
C)Oral ion exchange resin
D)Intravenous glucose with insulin given concurrently
Q2) Which of the following is an example of an isotonic solution?
A) 4% glucose with 0.18% sodium chloride
B) 0.45% sodium chloride
C) 10% glucose
D) 25% mannitol
Q3) Intravenous potassium should never be administered:
A) through a peripheral line.
B) through the subclavian vein.
C) as a bolus through the side arm of the intravenous line.
D) through the jugular vein.
Q4) Mild hypokalaemia should be treated in what manner?
A)Dietary supplementation
B)Oral potassium supplementation
C)Slow-release oral potassium
D)Parenteral potassium
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Chapter 52: Antianaemic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the follow is standard therapy in non-myeloid anaemia?
A) Ferrous sulfate
B) Folic acid
C) Erythropoietin
D) Parenteral B<sub>12</sub>
Q2) High doses of vitamin B<sub>12</sub> may cause
A) hypotension.
B) hypokalaemia.
C) constipation.
D) folate deficiency.
Q3) To reduce the gastric irritation associated with oral iron therapy,the person should be advised to take the preparation:
A) as a suppository.
B) with or immediately after meals.
C) at bedtime.
D) with an antacid.
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Chapter 53: Medicines Used to Maintain Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Premature babies receiving long-term oxygen therapy are at risk of:
A) otitis media.
B) ototoxicity.
C) retinal damage.
D) macular degeneration.
Q2) Inhaled corticosteroids should be considered as part of the medication regime for asthma if the person is using their \(\beta_{2}\) agonists more than:
A) one time each month.
B) three times each month.
C) three to four times each week.
D) two times each month.
Q3) What is the mechanism of action of the respiratory stimulant doxapram?
A)It acts on the medulla.
B)It acts on the cerebellum.
C)It acts in the midbrain.
D)It acts in the cerebral cortex.
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Chapter 54: Medicines for Upper Respiratory Tract
Conditions
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Q1) Nasal decongestants are contraindicated in patients taking: A) antihistamines.
B) certain types of antidepressants.
C) antitussive agents.
D) salicylate preparations.
Q2) Hyoscine is contraindicated in patients with: A) glaucoma.
B) depression.
C) heart failure.
D) diabetes.
Q3) To which drug group do many cough suppressants belong?
A) NSAIDs
B) Narcotics
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Dopamine antagonists
Q4) Cough suppressants should not be given to children under ________ years of age.
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2
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Chapter 55: Upper Gastrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Q1) Which of the following pairs of proton pump inhibitors inhibit the cytochrome P450 system and have a number of clinically important drug interactions?
A) Esomeprazole and omeprazole
B) Rabeprazole and lansoprazole
C) Lansoprazole and pantoprazole
D) Esomeprazole and rabeprazole
Q2) The use of cisapride in the treatment of upper gastrointestinal tract conditions is restricted due to its ability to produce:
A) renal failure.
B) liver failure.
C) potentially life-threatening dysrhythmias.
D) respiratory failure.
Q3) The use of sodium bicarbonate alone as an antacid should be discouraged because it can:
A) exacerbate pre-existing hypertension.
B) lead to rebound acidosis.
C) lead to the development of kidney stones.
D) inactivate antimicrobial agents.
Q4) Explain how a hiatus hernia can cause gastric reflux.
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Chapter 56: Lower Castrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Q1) Which condition might require a patient to need supplementation of pancreatic enzymes?
A) Peptic ulcer disease
B) Diabetes
C) Irritable bowel syndrome
D) Cystic fibrosis
Q2) Peppermint oil may be useful in the treatment of:
A) gallstones.
B) irritable bowel syndrome.
C) haemorrhoids.
D) GORD.
Q3) A first line therapy for chronic constipation would be:
A) stimulant laxatives such as senna.
B) faecal softeners such as docusate.
C) osmotic laxatives such as glycerol.
D) lubricants such as liquid paraffin.
Q4) Outline the potential benefits of peppermint oil in the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome.
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Chapter 57: Antiemetic Agents
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Q1) Which is true of the chemoreceptor trigger zone?
A) It is situated inside the blood-brain barrier.
B) It resides within the medulla.
C) It is a sensory relay area.
D) It controls vomiting but not nausea.
Q2) The advantage of domperidone over metoclopramide is that it:
A) crosses the blood-brain barrier readily so it has more central side effects.
B) doesn't readily cross the blood-brain barrier so it has fewer central side effects.
C) crosses the blood-brain barrier readily so a smaller dose is required for the same antiemetic effects.
D) is safe for pregnant women in the first trimester.
Q3) Some antiemetics can cause extrapyramidal side effects such as oculogyric crisis.Which of the following medications would best treat those side effects?
A) An antimuscarinic, benztropine
B) A benzodiazapine, diazepam
C) An antipsychotic, olanzapine
D) A hypnotic, midazolam
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Chapter 58: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a suitable strategy to manage a large return of gastric aspirate in a person receiving nasogastric feeding?
A) Lower the head of the person's bed.
B) Use a hyperosmolar feed.
C) Select a feed with a higher fat content.
D) Decrease the rate of infusion.
Q2) Which of the following is the most common complication of parenteral nutrition?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Subcutaneous emphysema
C) Cardiac perforation
D) Infection
Q3) Where would a PEG tube be placed?
A) The duodenum
B) The gastric area
C) The ileum
D) The jejunum
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Chapter 59: Medicines and the Pituitary Gland
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acromegaly is treated using:
A) lanreotide.
B) somatropin.
C) lisuride.
D) domperidone.
Q2) When using desmopressin for renal function testing,effectiveness of treatment is determined by:
A) measuring blood levels of antidiuretic hormone.
B) measuring blood levels of potassium.
C) monitoring fluid balance.
D) measuring urinary levels of sodium.
Q3) Which of the following drugs stimulates gonadotrophin release?
A) The follitropins
B) Goserelin
C) Clomiphene
D) Tetracosactrin
Q4) Bromocriptine is no longer recommended for inhibition of postpartum lactation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 60: Medicines and the Thyroid
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radioactive iodide may be used to treat hyperthyroidism because it:
A) inhibits conversion of L-thyroxine to L-triiodothyronine.
B) reduces synthesis of thyroid hormones.
C) destroys functional thyroid tissue.
D) depletes thyroid hormone stores.
Q2) Generally,L-thyroxine is preferable to liothyronine as therapy in hypothyroid states because:
A) it has a longer duration of action.
B) it is less cardiotoxic.
C) levels are easier to monitor.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is true about the action of iodide solutions for hyperthyroid states?
A) High doses of iodide cause an immediate reduction in the release of thyroid hormone.
B) Iodide reduces the blood supply to the thyroid gland and makes it firmer.
C) Iodide has a long half-life and greatly reduces the release of thyroid hormone for up to one month.
D) Both A and B.
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Chapter 61: Medicines and the Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of cases of diabetes mellitus are type 1.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An injection of glucagon would be appropriate for which of the following?
A) A person with type 1 diabetes mellitus who presents with a blood glucose reading above 18 mmol/L
B) A person with unstable diabetes insipidus
C) A person with drug-induced hypoglycaemia
D) A person with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has hypersensitivity reactions to metformin
Q3) A patient is newly diagnosed with borderline type 2 diabetes.Which steps would be appropriate?
A) A focus on diet and exercise
B) Starting insulin
C) Considering metformin
D) Both A and C
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63
Chapter 62: Medicines Affecting the Adrenal Cortex
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Q1) During spironolactone therapy,the blood levels of ________ should be monitored.
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) urea
D) calcium
Q2) The glucocorticoids have a role in the therapy associated with:
A) diabetes mellitus.
B) osteoporosis.
C) hypovolaemic shock.
D) hypertension.
Q3) When the oral dose exceeds mg daily of prednisolone or equivalent dose,the person will benefit from receiving gastric acid-suppressive therapy.
A) 4
B) 6
C) 10
D) 15
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Chapter 63: Medicines and the Gonads
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Sample Questions
Q1) The SERM tamoxifen is used in the treatment of:
A) menopausal symptoms.
B) osteoporosis.
C) enhanced healing after surgery.
D) breast cancer.
Q2) To ensure maximum efficacy for postcoital contraception,it needs to be administered within 12 hours of sexual intercourse.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which one of the gonadal hormones induces effects that include increased libido,enhanced red blood cell production and raised basal metabolic rate?
A) Oestrogen
B) Testosterone
C) Progesterone
D) Inhibin
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Chapter 64: Medicines and Bone Metabolism
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Q1) Which factors play a role in calcium absorption in women? Select all that apply.
A) Minimal dietary calcium
B) Menopause
C) Vitamin D deficiency
D) Chronic kidney disease
E) Diabetes
Q2) Which of the following foods inhibit absorption of calcium due to high phytic acid content?
A) Unrefined cereals
B) Green vegetables
C) Strawberries
D) Cow's milk
Q3) Which finding would you expect to see with Paget's disease?
A)Hypocalcaemia
B)Hypercalcaemia
C) Decrease in osteoclasts
D)Hypervitaminosis D
Q4) Describe the role of parathyroid hormone with regards to regulation of blood calcium levels.
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Chapter 65: Hyperuricaemia and Gout
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Q1) Which of the following tests is undertaken before using colchicine for gout prophylaxis?
A) A complete blood count
B) A liver function test
C) An electrocardiogram
D) An exercise tolerance test
Q2) A characteristic of gout is that:
A) it manifests as a form of arthritis.
B) it is more prevalent in women.
C) the risk of developing it can be reduced by eating foods such as sardines or offal.
D) it is not associated with any genetic predisposition.
Q3) Which of the following statements about uric acid is true?
A) It is a product of pyrimidine-based nucleic acid metabolism.
B) It tends to crystallise at relatively low physiological temperatures.
C) Hyperuricaemia always results in gout.
D) Uric acid is very water-soluble in kidney filtrate.
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Chapter 66: Obesity and Its Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) In humans,there are two feeding centres located in the:
A) brain stem.
B) thalamus.
C) hypothalamus.
D) pons.
Q2) Describe some nonpharmacological strategies for weight loss.
Q3) Which of the following adverse effects would NOT be expected during treatment with a stimulant anorectic?
A) Bradycardia
B) Elevated blood pressure
C) Euphoria
D) Psychological dependence
Q4) an overview of obesity
A) Statistics show 25 per cent of Australian children are obese.
B) The World Health Organization has declared obesity an epidemic.
C) Australia ranks third in obesity, behind New Zealand and the United States.
D) All of the above statements are true.
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Chapter 67: Introduction to Chemotherapy
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Q1) An antimicrobial agent with a narrow spectrum of activity reflects a drug that has:
A) only a weak antibiotic action.
B) effectiveness against a relatively small number of microbes.
C) a low potency.
D) a narrow margin of safety.
Q2) If a microbe has developed resistance to a certain antimicrobial preparation,the prescriber should:
A) increase the frequency of the dose of the antimicrobial.
B) increase the dose of the antimicrobial.
C) determine which antimicrobial the microbe may be sensitive to.
D) prescribe topical preparations only.
Q3) The actions of streptomycin and amikacin:
A) are considered first-line agents for tuberculosis.
B) are ineffective for the bactericidal phase.
C) interfere with protein synthesis.
D) are best mediated by the oral route.
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69
Chapter 68: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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Q1) What should a person be advised to do when taking sulfonamide therapy?
A) Ensure an adequate fluid intake.
B) Monitor folate status during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
C) Have a full blood examination during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
D) All of the above.
Q2) A premixed combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is called:
A) trimethoxazole.
B) co-trimoxazole.
C) sulphaprim.
D) blephamide.
Q3) The actions of the sulfonamides and trimethoprim:
A) are considered bactericidal.
B) are identical, as they interrupt the process at the same point.
C) interfere with nucleic acid synthesis.
D) are not influenced by folic acid stores.
Q4) Trimethoprim is best taken as a single daily dose:
A) in the morning.
B) at midday.
C) in the mid-afternoon.
D) at bedtime.
Page 70
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Chapter 69: Antibacterial Agents
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Q1) Administration of the antibacterial agent ________ may cause prolongation of the QT interval and development of serious ventricular dysrhythmias.
A) erythromycin or clarithromycin
B) benzylpenicillin or amoxycillin
C) tetracycline or doxycycline
D) gentamicin or tobramycin
Q2) Which one of the following is NOT a common adverse effect of treatment with penicillin?
A) Photosensitivity
B) Nausea or vomiting
C) Oedema
D) The appearance of a rash or urticaria
Q3) What medication regimen is ineffective in treating microorganisms that are part of the ESCAAPPM group?
A) A carbapenem agent
B) A penicillin agent
C) An aminoglycoside agent
D) A fluoroquinolone agent
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Chapter 70: Antituberculotic and Antileprotic Agents
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Q1) A pregnant patient with Hansen's disease can be safely treated with thalidomide.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In isoniazid treatment for tuberculosis,supplementation with ________ may be required:
A) niacin
B) riboflavin
C) thiamine
D) pyridoxine
Q3) The most active agent for leprosy is:
A) dapsone.
B) rifampicin.
C) thalidomide.
D) streptomycin.
Q4) In the context of antituberculotic drug action,a bactericidal drug:
A) kills all tuberculosis bacteria.
B) targets dividing bacteria.
C) kills persistent dormant bacteria.
D) targets bacteria in the lungs.
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Chapter 71: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the indication of topical silver preparations?
A) Burns
B) Acne
C) Eczema
D) Warts
Q2) An example of a disinfectant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
Q3) Cetrimide inhibits bacterial growth because of its ________ properties.
A) detergent
B) oxidising
C) alkylating
D) reducing
Q4) What is the main difference between antiseptics and disinfectants?
A) Antiseptics are for use on inanimate objects
B) Disinfectants are used on the human body
C) Antiseptics are used on the human body
D) Both can be used on either surface
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Chapter 72: Antiparasitic Agents
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Q1) It has been estimated that the carrier rate of Entamoeba hystolitica in poorly sanitised areas is:
A) 50 per cent.
B) 20 per cent.
C) 10 per cent.
D) 75 per cent.
Q2) When using the anthelmintic albendazole to treat intestinal parasites,the person should be advised to take it:
A) with meals.
B) after meals.
C) with milk.
D) before meals.
Q3) A drug used to treat amoebiasis is:
A) vancomycin.
B) tinidazole.
C) lincosamide.
D) pyrantel.
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Chapter 73: Antiviral Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The action of reverse transcriptase,the enzyme used by retroviruses,is:
A) transcription from DNA to RNA.
B) blockage of transcription.
C) increased transcription in the host cell.
D) lysis of the host cell.
Q2) Enteric-coated capsules of the reverse transcriptase inhibitor didanosine,which can inhibit the replication of the HIV virus,should be taken:
A) on an empty stomach about 30 minutes before food.
B) with the midday meal.
C) with a fatty meal.
D) with a glass of milk.
Q3) Which illnesses can be treated with acyclovir?
A) Herpes simplex I
B) Herpes zoster
C) Varicella
D) All of the above
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Chapter 74: Antifungal Agents
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Q1) Which are qualities of subcutaneous mycoses? Select all that apply.
A) It is most common in northern countries.
B) It can be grossly disfiguring.
C) It involves skin, fascia and bone.
D) It is caused by dermatophytes.
E) Is commonly referred to as candidiasis.
Q2) The antifungal amphotericin can be used:
A) topically, intravenously and in lozenge form.
B) intramuscularly, intrathecally and transdermally.
C) intramuscularly and intravenously.
D) topically and orally.
Q3) If the antifungal terbinafine is administered orally for more than six weeks for a fungal nail infection,the person should be advised to have:
A) blood cholesterol levels monitored.
B) liver enzyme levels and blood count monitored.
C) respiratory function monitored.
D) aural function monitored.
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Chapter 75: Immunomodulating Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) To generate immunity to some diseases,vaccines contain live microbes that have been attenuated and inactivated,so it is impossible for the recipient to develop the illness.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the difference between the terms vaccination and immunisation.
Q3) The current hepatitis A vaccine is:
A) an inactivated virus.
B) a recombinant virus.
C) a capsular antigen.
D) a surface antigen.
Q4) Which medication would NOT be used to prevent organ rejection?
A) Mycophenolate
B) Leflunomide
C) Cyclosporine
D) Tacrolimus
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Chapter 76: Cytotoxic Chemotherapeutic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is NOT an expected adverse effect of cytotoxic agents?
A) Alopecia
B) Weight gain
C) Nausea
D) Mucositis
Q2) Tretinoin is closely related to which vitamin?
A) Vitamin D
B) Vitamin K
C) Vitamin B
D) Vitamin A
Q3) Which of the following are NOT Classic cytotoxic chemotherapeutic agents?
A) Alkylating agents
B) Colony stimulating factors
C) Antibiotic-type cytotoxic agents
D) Cell cycle-specific agents
Q4) All vinca alkaloids are administered:
A) orally.
B) intravenously.
C) intrathecally.
D) intramuscularly.
Page 78
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Chapter 77: Medicines Used in Diseases of the Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) The epidermal layer that is also known as the grainy layer is called the stratum:
A) basale.
B) granulosum.
C) corneum.
D) spinosum.
Q2) Which drug is absolutely prohibited in pregnancy?
A) Tetracycline
B) Azelaic acid
C) Metronidazole
D) Isotretinoin
Q3) Women of childbearing age should take which precaution with isotretinoin treatment?
A) Avoid sunscreen use.
B) Monitor iron levels.
C) Supplement with folate.
D) Ensure adequate contraception.
Q4) Discuss the effects of UV rays on the skin.
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Chapter 78: Medicines and the Eye
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Q1) Which oral medication can cause a disturbance in colour vision?
A)Digoxin
B)Chloroquine
C)Thimerosal
D)Azelastine
Q2) Which one of the following is an accessory structure of the eye?
A) Iris
B) Ciliary bodies
C) Lacrimal apparatus
D) Sclera
Q3) Visual accommodation results from:
A) sympathetic stimulation of the iris.
B) parasympathetic stimulation of the ciliary processes.
C) sympathetic stimulation of the lacrimal apparatus.
D) parasympathetic stimulation of the ciliary muscle.
Q4) The middle layer of the eye is called the:
A) fibrous tunic.
B) sclera.
C) vascular tunic.
D) choroid.
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Chapter 79: Herbal Medicines
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Q1) Which patient should avoid consuming therapeutic amounts of garlic?
A) Pregnant patients
B) Patients with untreated hyperglycaemia
C) Patients taking paracetamol
D) Patient with hypertension
Q2) What symptom would signify that an individual has consumed excessive amounts of ginger?
A) Postural hypotension
B) Diarrhoea
C) Palpitations
D) Dizziness
Q3) Ginkgo may help in improving the:
A) immune system.
B) circulation or blood flow to certain organs.
C) reproductive system.
D) excretory system.
Q4) Powdered ginger is less effective than ginger ale.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List some Common herbal medicines that are unsafe for use in pregnancy.
Page 81
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