Pharmacy Practice
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pharmacy Practice is an essential course that introduces students to the fundamental principles and roles of pharmacists within the healthcare system. The course covers topics such as drug dispensing, patient counseling, pharmaceutical care, medication safety, and ethical considerations in pharmacy. It emphasizes the development of communication skills, professional behavior, and practical knowledge required for effective patient interactions and collaboration with other healthcare professionals. Through a combination of lectures, case studies, and practical sessions, students gain the competencies needed to provide high-quality pharmaceutical services and promote optimal health outcomes for patients.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Pharmacology 7th Australian Edition by Shane Bullock
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15 Chapters
666 Verified Questions
666 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Pharmacology Within the Social Context
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of a contraindicated medicine may have the following effect(s) except A) safely curing the disorder.
B) exacerbating the disorder.
C) causing allergic reaction.
D) causing toxic reaction.
Answer: A
Q2) The Macusi Indians of Guyana have a place in the history of pharmacology as the first users of which type of drug?
A) A hallucinogenic agent related to LSD.
B) A narcotic analgesic.
C) A skeletal muscle relaxant.
D) A central nervous system stimulant.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following acne preparations cannot be purchased as an over-the-counter preparation?
A) An isotretinoin preparation.
B) A sulphur preparation.
C) A resorcinol preparation.
D) A benzoyl peroxide preparation.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Pharmacology Within the Profesional Context
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the meaning of the term 'not-for-resuscitation (NFR) order'?
A) The client will not be resuscitated by health care professionals if he/she suffers a cardiac or respiratory arrest.
B) The client will not receive admission to the intensive care unit.
C) The client will not receive full nursing care.
D) The client will not receive ventilatory and inotropic support.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following health professionals maintain a person's airway, breathing and circulation in medical emergency situations, and are permitted to administer medicines for chronic and life-threatening conditions?
A) Pharmacist
B) Paramedic
C) Physiotherapist
D) Podiatrist
Answer: B
Q3) Dietitians are legally allowed to administer medications to clients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Medicine Administration and Professional
Responsibilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) After administering ear drops, to allow the medication to disperse and absorb, the client should:
A) not talk for 5 minutes.
B) lie down with the affected ear facing up for about 10 minutes.
C) lie down flat for 10 minutes.
D) sit for 5 minutes.
Answer: B
Q2) Aplastic anaemia caused by chloramphenicol is an example of type B adverse drug reaction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) There is a risk of damage to the large sciatic nerve when administering a drug by intramuscular injection into the gluteus muscle.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: General Aspects of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The extent of binding of a drug to a receptor is termed:
A) potency.
B) specificity.
C) affinity.
D) efficacy.
Q2) Phase 1 metabolism of a drug can involve:
A) glucuronisation.
B) sulphation.
C) conjugation.
D) oxidation.
Q3) To elicit a rapid systemic effect, the route that will enable the maximum bioavailability is:
A) intramuscular.
B) oral
C) intravenous.
D) intradermal.
Q4) Paediatric drug dosage can be calculated by using the body surface area, age, and body weight.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: To Xicology
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Sample Questions
Q1) For treatment of acute narcotic overdose, naloxone works because it is:
A) a partial antagonist, which acts on opioid receptors.
B) a full antagonist, which acts on opioid receptors.
C) a full agonist, which acts on opioid receptors.
D) a partial agonist, which acts on opioid receptors.
Q2) The principle of management of clinical drug overdose that takes precedence over all others is:
A) life support.
B) client assessment.
C) drug detoxification.
D) drug elimination.
Q3) In association with the management of poisoning, treating fluid and electrolyte imbalances are considered part of which stage?
A) Client assessment.
B) Decontamination and detoxification.
C) Elimination and neutralisation.
D) Life support.
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Chapter 6: Autonomic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which subtype of cholinergic receptors affects gastric acid secretion?
A) M<sub>1</sub> receptors.
B) Nicotinic receptors.
C) M<sub>2</sub> receptors.
D) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.
Q2) Parasympathetic stimulation would result in which one of the following sets of responses?
A) Increased gastric juice secretion, slowed heart rate, goose pimples and pupil dilation.
B) Sweating, urination, salivation and pupil dilation.
C) Increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, defecation and erection of genitalia.
D) Slowed heart rate, increased blood pressure, pupil constriction and pallor.
Q3) Dopamine should be administered:
A) in a strongly alkaline solution and through a peripheral vein.
B) in a strongly alkaline solution and through a large central vein.
C) in a non-alkaline solution and through a peripheral vein.
D) in a non-alkaline solution and through a large central vein.
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Chapter 7: Chemical Mediators
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Sample Questions
Q1) To maximise the therapeutic effects of antihistamines for motion sickness, they should be taken:
A) when symptoms of nausea and vomiting occur.
B) before the symptoms of nausea and vomiting occur.
C) with milk.
D) in a double dose as soon as symptoms begin.
Q2) Which of the following peptide mediators is normally involved in enhancing pain transmission?
A) Endorphin.
B) Substance P.
C) Endothelin.
D) Neuropeptide Y.
Q3) A cytokine (such as interferon, interleukin and lymphokine) is an example of:
A) a neurotransmitter.
B) a classic hormone.
C) an autacoid.
D) a local hormone.
Q4) The endothelins have been implicated in embryonic tissue development.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Modulat Ion of Behaviour, Cognition and Motor Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of the human brain is not considered part of the brainstem?
A) Medulla oblongata.
B) Midbrain.
C) Pons.
D) Cerebrum.
Q2) Cholestatic jaundice can occur with which phenothiazine antipsychotic agent, therefore requiring cessation of the agent?
A) Fluphenazine.
B) Pericyazine.
C) Chlorpromazine.
D) Pipothiazine.
Q3) 'Drug holidays' from dexamphetamine may be important to avoid:
A) addiction.
B) growth retardation.
C) insomnia.
D) cognitive impairment.
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Chapter 9: Medicines Used to Relieve Pain and Produce
Anaesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pain medicines produce a constipating effect?
A) Pethidine.
B) Aspirin.
C) Morphine.
D) Paracetamol.
Q2) In treating an acute migraine attack, sumatriptan should not be given with ergotamine because:
A) the combination may lead to excessive bronchoconstriction.
B) the combination may lead to excessive vasoconstriction.
C) the combination may lead to gastrointestinal bleeding.
D) the combination may lead to excessive diuresis.
Q3) NSAIDs may not be suitable for use in individuals with renal impairment because:
A) they increase sodium excretion.
B) they increase body temperature.
C) they reduce glomerular filtration rate.
D) they reduce pepsin levels in the stomach.
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11
Chapter 10: The Modulat Ion of Oxygenat Ion and Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) In considering therapy with HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, it is important for the client to have regular:
A) liver function tests.
B) renal function tests.
C) blood clotting tests.
D) respiratory function tests.
Q2) The mechanism of action of the antihyperlipidaemic agents called the statins involves:
A) inhibition of the rate-limiting enzyme in hepatic cholesterol synthesis.
B) binding to bile salts removing them from the body.
C) an interaction with peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor alpha.
D) inhibiting the absorption of dietary cholesterol from the gastrointestinal tract.
Q3) Which diuretics promote the greatest diuresis?
A) Thiazides.
B) Loop diurectics.
C) Aldosterone inhibitors.
D) Potassium-sparing diuretics.
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12
Chapter 11: The Modulation of Gastrointestinal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of cisapride in the treatment of upper gastrointestinal tract conditions is restricted due to its ability to produce:
A) renal failure.
B) liver failure.
C) potentially life-threatening dysrhythmias.
D) respiratory failure.
Q2) It is important to advise a person who is pregnant about the possible teratogenetic effects of antiemetics during the:
A) first trimester of pregnancy.
B) second trimester of pregnancy.
C) third trimester of pregnancy.
D) labour period.
Q3) Some antiemetics can cause extrapyramidal side effects such as oculogyric crisis. Which of the following medications would best treat those side effects?
A) An antimuscarinic, benztropine.
B) A benzodiazapine, diazepam.
C) An antipsychotic, olanzapine.
D) A hypnotic, midazolam.
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13
Chapter 12: The Modulation of Body Growth, Development and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following corticosteroids is classified as an intermediate-acting agent?
A) Hydrocortisone.
B) Dexamethasone.
C) Prednisolone.
D) Betamethasone.
Q2) Which of the following is not true about vitamin D?
A) Deficiency in the vitamin leads to an increase in bone mineralisation.
B) It is absorbed via the gastrointestinal system from vegetable products and some fish.
C) It is essential in the regulation of calcium and phosphorous in the body.
D) It can be 'made' as long as the client has enough exposure to UV rays.
Q3) Which one of the following actions is not associated with high doses of vasopressin?
A) It stimulates sodium excretion.
B) It stimulates coagulation.
C) It may lower blood pressure.
D) It reduces blood loss associated with haemorrhage.
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Chapter 13: Nutritional and Natural Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Total parenteral nutrition is a(n) ________ solution that needs to be administered centrally.
A) nutrition
B) hypotonic
C) hypertonic
D) isotonic
E) iso-osmotic
Q2) Apart from haemoglobin, iron is needed for the synthesis of:
A) xanthine oxidase.
B) myoglobin.
C) cytochrome oxidase.
D) pancreatin.
Q3) Which of the following vitamins is useful in the treatment of some hyperlipidaemias?
A) Niacin.
B) Niacinamide.
C) Nicotinamide.
D) Pyridoxine.
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15
Chapter 14: The Modulation of Celullar Growth and Proliferation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A clinical use of colony stimulating factors is to treat:
A) neutropenia.
B) some forms of leukaemia.
C) renal cell carcinoma.
D) chronic hepatitis.
Q2) An advantage of the retroviruses as vectors in gene therapy is that:
A) a wide variety of cells can be infected with the therapeutic gene.
B) genes can be inserted into chromosomes.
C) both dividing and non-dividing cells can be infected.
D) the gene expression is long-lasting.
Q3) Which one of the following antibacterial drug groups acts by inhibiting microbial cell wall synthesis?
A) Quinolones.
B) Macrolides.
C) Nitroimidazoles.
D) Glycopeptide antibacterials.
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Chapter 15: Medicines Used Topically
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acne rosacea is best treated with topical:
A) erythromycin.
B) clindamycin.
C) metronidazole.
D) clotrimazole.
Q2) Cycloplegia is a side effect of some ophthalmic drug treatments. It is defined as:
A) poor near vision.
B) pupil dilation.
C) pupil constriction.
D) an incomplete closure of the eyelids.
Q3) Which of the following drug groups can be used as mydriatic agents?
A) -blockers.
B) Prostaglandin analogues.
C) Muscarinic agonists.
D) -adrenergic agonists.
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