Pharmacy Physiology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Pharmacy Physiology is a foundational course that explores the normal functions of the human body, emphasizing physiological processes relevant to pharmacy practice. The course covers key topics such as cellular physiology, neurophysiology, cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, gastrointestinal, and endocrine systems, with an integrated approach to understanding how these systems interact to maintain homeostasis. Special attention is given to the physiological basis of disease and the impact of pharmaceuticals on organ system function. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory exercises, students gain a comprehensive understanding of physiological mechanisms, preparing them for advanced pharmacological studies and informed clinical decision-making in their future pharmacy careers.
Recommended Textbook
human physiology an integrated approach 6th edition by dee unglaub silverthorn
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) tissue
A)a collection of similar cells that carry out similar functions
B)the smallest living unit
C)a collection of different tissues that carry out related functions
D)groups of organs functioning in a coordinated manner
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is one of Cannon's "internal secretions"?
A) hormones
B) nutrients
C) water
D) inorganic ions
E) None of the answers are correct.
Answer: A
Q3) How can you determine the control value using Figure 1.1?
Answer: Extrapolation.The control value is the heart rate that corresponds to an epinephrine dose equal to zero.
Q4) Why is it necessary to space grid marks on a graph proportionally to the quantity measured (example: each square represents one centimeter)?
Answer: If this is not done,a trend would be obscured or even misrepresented.
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Chapter 2: Molecular Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a polypeptide contains 10 peptide bonds,how many amino acids does it contain?
A) 0
B) 5
C) 10
D) 11
E) 12
Answer: D
Q2) The molecule DNA contains the five-carbon sugar ________.
Answer: deoxyribose
Q3) These are weak attractive forces between the nucleus of one atom and the electrons of another atom close by.
A)van der Waals
B)ionic
C)hydrogen
D)covalent
Answer: A
Q4) The purines found in DNA are ________ and ________.
Answer: adenine,guanine
Q5) Ions with a negative charge are called ________. Answer: anions
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Chapter 3: Compartmentation: Cells and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Functions of connective tissue include
A) establishing a structural framework for the body.
B) transporting fluids and dissolved materials.
C) providing protection for delicate organs.
D) storing energy reserves.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Q2) The beta cells of the pancreas produce insulin,a protein-based hormone.Which of the following organelles would be found in higher levels in the beta cells?
A) mitochondria
B) ribosomes
C) microvilli
D) lysosomes
Answer: B
Q3) The number of mitochondria in skeletal muscle cells is ________ adipose (fat)cells.
A) greater than
B) less than
C) equal to
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Energy and Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The active sites of enzymes are
A) products of an enzymatic reaction.
B) regions of an enzyme that are involved in bringing substrates together.
C) bonds between the substrate and certain amino acids.
D) not necessarily involved in a reaction.
Q2) Regulatory-protein transcription factors bind to ________ and activate ________,which tells the RNA polymerase ________.
Q3) In order to slow generation of product from a particular biochemical pathway within a cell,the intermediates formed by that pathway
A) are removed from the cell more quickly.
B) accumulate inside the cell.
C) are rapidly converted into.
D) become toxic to the cell.
Q4) The template strand of DNA
A) is not involved in mRNA synthesis.
B) serves as a guide for mRNA synthesis.
C) includes the base uracil.
D) is alternatively spliced to generate the exon.
Q5) Define substrate and product.Are these definitions relative or absolute,and why?
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Chapter 5: Membrane Dynamics
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Q1) Permeability is a property of
A) membranes.
B) ions.
C) solutes.
D) solvents.
E) proteins.
Q2) Passive transport refers to a process that requires
A) no energy at all.
B) no cellular energy.
C) no pressure gradient.
D) no concentration gradient.
E) no electrical gradient.
Q3) A cell that is permeable to Solute X is placed into solution containing a higher concentration of X.Diffusion occurs until equilibrium is attained.At this time,
A) there is no further movement of Solute X across the membrane.
B) there is no further change in concentration of Solute X.
C) Both of the statements are correct.
D) Neither of the statements is correct.
Q4) Distinguish between the following terms: cotransport; antiport; symport.
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Chapter 6: Communication, Integration, and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an orphan receptor?
Q2) A physiological parameter which is regulated in an up-down fashion by signals that are always present but change in intensity is said to be under ________.
Q3) When adenylyl cyclase is activated,
A) calcium ions are released from intracellular stores.
B) cAMP is formed.
C) cAMP is broken down.
D) protein kinases are metabolized.
E) steroids are produced.
Q4) Compare and contrast hormones,neurotransmitters,and neurohormones.
Q5) An ion widely important in intracellular signaling is A) sodium.
B) potassium.
C) calcium.
D) chloride.
E) cobalt.
Q6) Compare and contrast the four basic methods of cell-to-cell communication.
Q7) What are NSAIDs,what is their function,and what are some drawbacks to their use?
Q8) What is the half-life of a signal?
Q9) Define tonic control and give a physiological example. Page 8
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Chapter 7: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Q1) The term for two hormones that have additive effects is ________.
Q2) pineal
A)prolactin
B)insulin
C)aldosterone
D)melatonin
E)calcitonin
F)epinephrine
Q3) The inner portion of the adrenal gland is called the ________.
Q4) Assume the following: The total area of cell membrane in a single fat cell is 10<sup>4</sup> mm<sup>2</sup>,there is one insulin receptor per 1 mm<sup>2</sup> of membrane,and 1 mm<sup>2</sup> of cell membrane contains 10<sup>6</sup> phospholipid molecules.
(1)How many insulin receptors are in a fat cell?
(2)How many phospholipids molecules are in a fat cell?
(3)How many phospholipid molecules are there for each insulin receptor?
(4)What general principle of hormone action does your answer support?
Q5) Carl is suffering from hypothyroidism.What is hypothyroidism? How could his physician determine whether the malfunction is in the hypothalamus and pituitary or at the level of the gland itself?
Page 10
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Chapter 8: Neurons: Cellular and Network Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a(n)________ synapse,there is a direct physical connection between cells.
Q2) The rearrangement of connections at synapses,which occurs throughout life,is termed
A) elasticity.
B) intelligence.
C) plasticity.
D) senility.
E) synchronicity.
Q3) When voltage-gated K<sup>+</sup> channels of a resting neuron open,
A) K<sup>+</sup> enters the neuron.
B) K<sup>+</sup> leaves the neuron.
C) the neuron depolarizes.
D) K<sup>+</sup> enters the neuron and the neuron depolarizes.
E) K<sup>+</sup> leaves the neuron and the neuron depolarizes.
Q4) In order to signal a stronger stimulus,action potentials become
A) higher in amplitude only.
B) more frequent only.
C) longer-lasting only.
D) higher in amplitude and more frequent.
E) higher in amplitude and longer-lasting.
Page 11
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Chapter 9: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) projections of white matter that remain in the spinal cord
A)gray matter
B)white matter
C)ascending tracts
D)descending tracts
E)propriospinal tracts
Q2) What function(s)is/are associated with the basal ganglia? Huntington's disease affects the cerebral basal ganglia,causing neural degeneration,and resulting in abnormal muscle movements and cognitive decline.What may cause the cognitive decline? Effective treatment for Huntington's has been elusive,but recently it was shown that a cause of neuron degeneration may be calcium overload.What potential type of treatment does this suggest?
Q3) The brain's interpretation of sensory stimuli is called
A) proprioception.
B) perception.
C) cognition.
D) lateralization.
E) emotion.
Q4) Explain neural plasticity in the brain,in the context of recovery from injury.
Q5) Describe the physical protection afforded by the cerebrospinal fluid.
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Sensory Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sensory receptors that respond when body temperature is below normal are called A) warm receptors.
B) photoreceptors.
C) cold receptors.
D) All receptors respond to temperatures above and below body temperature (no unique name).
Q2) Accomodation describes the focusing of light on the retina by changing A) the shape of the lens.
B) pupillary diameter.
C) the shape of the cornea.
D) distance of the retina from the lens.
Q3) The bending of light as it passes through media of different densities is called ________.
Q4) These receptors slowly adapt,and would be activated when the skin is between 20-40° C.
A)chemoreceptors
B)touch receptors
C)thermoreceptors
D)nociceptors
Q5) Describe how lateral inhibition allows for localization of a stimulus.
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Efferent Division: Autonomic and Somatic Motor Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) blocks urination
A)sympathetic antagonist
B)parasympathetic antagonist
Q2) Epinephrine and norepinephrine that are released from the adrenal glands affect target tissue for a longer period of time than the same substances released from neurons at their peripheral receptors.Why?
A) The adrenal gland releases larger amounts of the neurotransmitters than the neurons.
B) The hormones released from the adrenal glands bind to different receptors than those released from neurons.
C) There are no enzymes to break down epinephrine and norepinephrine in the blood and very little in peripheral tissues.
D) The effectors are less sensitive to epinephrine and norepinephrine released by the adrenal glands.
E) The epinephrine and norepinephrine from the adrenal glands are released by sympathetic neurons, whereas parasympathetic neurons release these substances at the effector organs.
Q3) ________ are swellings that contain vesicles filled with neurotransmitter.
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Chapter 12: Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) In fast-twitch oxidative-glycolytic fibers,their rapid increases in force rely on the ________ activity where rapid relaxation requires ________ activity.
Q2) In comparison to skeletal muscle,smooth muscle cells function over a ________ range of muscle lengths and exhibit a speed of contraction that is ________ than skeletal muscle.
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of slow-twitch oxidative skeletal muscle fibers?
A) long contraction duration only
B) few mitochondria only
C) high capillary density only
D) long contraction duration and high capillary density
E) long contraction duration, few mitochondria, and high capillary density
Q4) Before the entire muscle can change length,the force generated by the muscle must stretch the
A) eccentric contractile elements.
B) parallel elastic elements.
C) series elastic elements.
D) contractile elements.
Q5) Describe the process of relaxation of a skeletal muscle fiber.
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Chapter 13: Integrative Physiology I: Control of Body Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ allows the body to anticipate a stimulus and begin the response,whereas negative feedback results in the ________ of a response.
Q2) our experiences tell us how to behave; bracing yourself in anticipation would be an example
A)somatic
B)autonomic
C)spinal
D)cranial
E)innate
F)acquired
G)polysynaptic
Q3) After stretching an intrafusal fiber,the next event is
A) an increase in action potentials along the associated sensory neuron.
B) a decrease in muscle tension.
C) a decrease in muscle tone.
D) decreased sensitivity to stretching.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q4) The motor neurons associated with intrafusal muscle fibers are referred to as ________ motor neurons.
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Chapter 14: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are ryanodine receptors? What type of tissue are they present in? Are all ryanodine receptors regulated in the same way? Explain your answer.
Q2) The ________ is the amount of blood in a ventricle after it has contracted and before it begins to refill.
Q3) In which situation would the stroke volume be the greatest?
A) when venous return is increased
B) when venous return is decreased
C) when the force of contraction is decreased
D) when the difference between the end-diastolic volume and the end-systolic volume is small
E) when calcium channel blockers are present
Q4) If total cross-sectional area of vessels in an organ remains the same but blood flow to that organ increases,what happens to velocity of blood?
A)increased
B)decreased
C)unchanged
D)stopped
Q5) The primary function of the cardiovascular system is ________.
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Chapter 15: Blood Flow and the Control of Blood Pressure
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Q1) The only blood vessels whose walls permit exchange between the blood and the surrounding interstitial fluids are the
A) arterioles.
B) venules.
C) capillaries.
D) arterioles and capillaries.
E) venules and capillaries.
Q2) Blood pressure is highest in the ________ and decreases continuously as blood flows through the circulatory system,due to ________.
Q3) What effect does a calcium channel blocker have on the heart,the blood pressure,and cardiac output? Why?
Q4) Which of these does NOT increase the risk for cardiovascular disease?
A) being a male over 30 but under 55
B) being a female over 30 but under 55
C) having a sister with coronary artery disease
D) menopause without estrogen replacement therapy
E) having diabetes mellitus
Q5) ________ is an increase in blood flow that accompanies an increase in metabolic activity.
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Chapter 16: Blood
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Q1) Plasma consists of blood minus ________ and ________.
Q2) Mike has classical hemophilia,a clotting disorder,but his case is considered "mild." Contrary to popular belief,Mike doesn't usually have problematic bleeding episodes related to cutting himself; a more severe problem for him would be brought on by a sprained ankle or by having a full body impact,like falling off a horse and landing hard on the ground,injuries considered "closed." With what you have learned about blood coagulation,can you explain how this could be so? Assuming Mike is lacking factor VIII,which pathways does he depend on?
Q3) The condition where the skin and the whites of the eyes appear slightly yellow is due to high blood levels of the substance ________.
Q4) The process of fibrinolysis
A) activates fibrinogen.
B) draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together.
C) dissolves clots.
D) forms emboli.
E) forms thrombi.
Q5) Plasminogen is activated by an enzyme called ________.
Q6) Explain how anticoagulant drugs can be useful to heart attack or stroke patients.
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Chapter 17: Mechanics of Breathing
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Q1) Pressure and volume of gas in a container are related to temperature and number of gas molecules.This is known as ________ law.
A) the ideal gas
B) Boyle's
C) Dalton's
D) Henry's
E) Ohm's
Q2) Some have a congenital alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency.If the job of alpha-1 antitrypsin is to inhibit trypsin and elastase,what condition are people with this genetic deficiency likely to develop?
Q3) difficulty breathing
A)hyperpnea
B)hyperventilation
C)tachypnea
D)dyspnea
E)apnea
Q4) The ________ consist of light,spongy tissue whose volume is occupied mostly by air-filled spaces.
Q5) List the muscles of inspiration and expiration.
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Chapter 18: Gas Exchange and Transport
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Q1) The ________ group of neurons contains mostly inspiratory neurons.The ________ group of neurons controls muscles used for active expiration and some inspiratory muscles.
Q2) The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood is approximately ________ mm Hg.
A) 40
B) 45
C) 50
D) 70
E) 100
Q3) fluid accumulation in interstitial spaces
A)fibrotic lung disease
B)emphysema
C)asthma
D)pulmonary edema
Q4) Diffusion rate is directly proportional to ________ and ________.
Q5) Too little oxygen in cells is called ________.
Q6) What force(s)move(s)carbon dioxide from the blood into the alveoli?
Q7) ________ is characterized by a thickened alveolar membrane,slowing respiratory gas exchange.
21
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Chapter 19: The Kidneys
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Sample Questions
Q1) The portion of the nephron closest to the renal corpuscle is the A) loop of Henle.
B) proximal tubule.
C) distal tubule.
D) collecting duct.
E) minor calyx.
Q2) After it is formed,urine is temporarily stored in the ________.
Q3) The process of filtration in the kidney is most accurately described as A) highly specific.
B) completely nonspecific.
C) relatively nonspecific.
Q4) Reabsorption involves what two methods of transport? Describe each.What determines which route a solute will take?
Q5) glucose
A)transcytosis
B)active transport
C)symport with a cation
D)passive reabsorption/diffusion
Q6) List and summarize the forces that influence filtration across the walls of glomerular capillaries.
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Chapter 20: Integrative Physiology II: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Angiotensin II
A) stimulates thirst only.
B) causes widespread vasoconstriction throughout the body only.
C) causes the synthesis and release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex.
D) stimulates thirst and causes widespread vasoconstriction throughout the body.
E) stimulates thirst, causes widespread vasoconstriction throughout the body, and causes the synthesis and release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex.
Q2) The ________ cells of the distal nephron are interspersed among the principal cells and contribute to acid-base regulation.
Q3) What are oropharynx receptors,which hormone do they suppress,and how is it known that they exist? If a person stranded on a desert island drank seawater to try to quench his thirst,how would this affect the oropharynx receptors?
Q4) Excess potassium ions are eliminated from the body by the A) sweat glands.
B) kidneys.
C) liver.
D) digestive system.
E) spleen.
Page 23
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Chapter 21: The Digestive System
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Q1) During defecation,
A) stretch receptors in the rectal wall activate sympathetic centers in the spinal cord.
B) stretch receptors in the rectal wall activate parasympathetic centers in the spinal cord.
C) stretch receptors in the rectal wall activate both sympathetic and parasympathetic centers in the spinal cord.
D) the internal anal sphincter is consciously relaxed.
E) the external anal sphincter contracts.
Q2) The lamina propria and mucous epithelium are components of the A) serosa.
B) adventitia.
C) muscularis mucosa.
D) mucosa.
E) submucosa.
Q3) In some severe cases,a person suffering from stomach ulcers may have surgery to cut the branches of the vagus nerve that innervates the stomach.How would this help the problem?
Q4) The enzyme that digests starch into disaccharides and trisaccharides is ________.
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Chapter 22: Metabolism and Energy Balance
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Q1) ________ is a condition of insulin deficiency from beta cell destruction.
Q2) Adipocytes secrete the hormone
A) ghrelin.
B) leptin.
C) neuropeptide Y.
D) orexin.
E) insulin.
Q3) The production of heat from rhythmic tremors of skeletal muscle is referred to as ________.
Q4) There is only one way to lose weight without actually removing a body part: consume fewer calories than you expend.Is this statement Explain,citing a fundamental law of physics.Why is it difficult for many people to lose weight? Many weight-loss gimmicks work.Explain why they work,and why they may not work forever.
Q5) Most obese humans are deficient in leptin. A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain how and why abnormal temperatures,either too high or too low,can be dangerous.
25
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Chapter 23: Endocrine Control of Growth and Metabolism
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Q1) associated with overactive osteoclasts
A)Addison's disease
B)Cushing's disease
C)Graves' disease
D)Paget's disease
Q2) Describe the hypothalamic-pituitary-endocrine organ pathways for the adrenal cortex and thyroid gland.Do releasing and/or trophic hormones exert effects outside this pathway? Explain.
Q3) hyperthyroidism
A)Addison's disease
B)Cushing's disease
C)Graves' disease
D)Paget's disease
Q4) A rise in cortisol would cause each of the following except one.Identify the exception.
A) enhanced rate of glucose synthesis by the liver
B) increased rate of glycogen usage by the liver
C) higher levels of fatty acids in the blood
D) suppression of the immune system
E) increased ACTH levels
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Chapter 24: The Immune System
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Q1) Immunoglobulins that are the first antibodies to be produced in response to infection are
A) IgA.
B) IgD.
C) IgE.
D) IgG.
E) IgM.
Q2) physiological role is unclear
A)IgA
B)IgM
C)IgG
D)IgD
E)IgE
Q3) Infected cells are killed by perforin and granzymes.
A)specific
B)nonspecific
Q4) ________ cells enable the immune system to respond more quickly if the same antigen is encountered a second time.
Q5) ________ are fixed macrophages located in the epithelia of the skin.
Q6) ________ exists when the immune system does NOT respond to a particular antigen.
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Chapter 25: Integrative Physiology III: Exercise
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Q1) In resistance exercise,such as strength training,muscles rely heavily on ________ energy production.
A) anaerobic
B) aerobic
Q2) The initial change in heart rate at the onset of exercise is due to
A) sympathetic stimulation.
B) the withdrawal of parasympathetic inhibition.
C) stretching of the cardiac muscle fibers in response to increased venous return.
D) overfilling of the ventricles.
Q3) With endurance training,muscle mitochondria increase in A) size only.
B) number only.
C) size and number.
D) neither size nor number.
Q4) James made a New Years resolution to get healthy so started an exercise plan.Early in the process he noticed that he fatigued quickly.As he continued to exercise regularly,he noticed that it took longer to fatigue.What change explains the increased endurance?
Q5) Susie has hyperthyroidism.How might this affect ATP production during exercise?
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) The inability to conceive a child despite having intercourse is ________.
Q2) List and briefly explain the function of each portion of the male reproductive tract,in order,from where the sperm cells are first produced to the point where they leave the male's body.
Q3) Polyspermy in humans results in
A) twins.
B) triplets.
C) individuals with haploid cells.
D) tetraploid adults.
E) a nonfunctional zygote.
Q4) spermatogonium or oogonium
A)haploid
B)diploid
Q5) Periodic pulsatile secretion of GnRH appears to be important in A) delaying sexual maturation and puberty.
B) preventing down-regulation of GnRH receptors.
C) development of muscle responses.
D) correct growth of coronary arteries.
Q6) Sperm cells are produced by the process of ________.
Q7) Besides sterilization,the only sure way to avoid pregnancy is ________.
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