Pharmacy Pathophysiology
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pharmacy Pathophysiology explores the fundamental mechanisms by which diseases alter normal physiological processes in the human body. This course provides pharmacy students with a comprehensive understanding of the causes, development, and progression of major pathological conditions, emphasizing their impact on organ systems and pharmacological interventions. By integrating concepts from anatomy, physiology, and biochemistry, students learn to recognize clinical manifestations of diseases and develop a strong foundation for rational drug therapy management. The course is designed to equip future pharmacists with the knowledge necessary to interpret patient pathophysiology in the context of therapeutic decision-making and clinical care.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children 6th Edition by
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47 Chapters
2211 Verified Questions
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Kathryn L. McCance
Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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54 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a second message is necessary for extracellular communication to be activated, it is provided by:
A)guanosine triphosphate (GTP).
B)adenosine monophosphate (AMP).
C)adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
D)guanosine diphosphate (GDP).
Answer: B
Q2) Active transport occurs across membranes that:
A)have a higher concentration of the solute on the outside of the cell.
B)are semipermeable to water and small electrically uncharged molecules.
C)have receptors that are capable of binding with the substances to be transported.
D)have a cell membrane that is hydrophobic rather than hydrophilic.
Answer: C
Q3) Provides energy to digest proteins into amino acids
A)Endoplasmic reticulum
B)Ribosome
C)Secretory vesicle
D)Lysosomes
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Irreversible damage to the myocardium can be detected by elevation in the contractile protein called troponin, which is released from the myocardial muscle.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) What type of necrosis is associated with wet gangrene?
A)Coagulative necrosis
B)Liquefactive necrosis
C)Caseous necrosis
D)Gangrene necrosis
Answer: B
Q3) After ovulation, the uterine endometrial cells divide under the influence of estrogen; this is an example of hormonal:
A)hyperplasia.
B)dysplasia.
C)hypertrophy.
D)anaplasia.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment: Fluids and Electrolytes,
Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does SIADH cause excess water?
A)The increase in antidiuretic hormone causes retention of sodium that retains excessive water in the renal tubules.
B)The decrease in antidiuretic hormone increases serum glucose, which binds to water.
C)The decrease in antidiuretic hormone prevents the renal tubules from reabsorbing water.
D)The increase in antidiuretic hormone causes retention of water in the renal tubules.
Answer: D
Q2) Water movement between the intracellular fluid compartment and the extracellular compartment is primarily a function of:
A)osmotic forces.
B)plasma oncotic pressure.
C)antidiuretic hormone.
D)hydrostatic forces.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical manifestations would be expected for a child who has complete trisomy of the twenty-first chromosome?
A)Widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body hair
B)An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat, low-set ears
C)High-pitched voice, tall stature, gynecomastia, and an IQ of 60 to 90
D)Circumoral cyanosis, edema of the feet, short stature, and mental slowness
Q2) Which is an important criterion for discerning autosomal recessive inheritance?
A)Consanguinity is often present.
B)Females are affected more than males.
C)The disease is seen in the parents and in the siblings.
D)On average, one half of the offspring of the carrier will be affected.
Q3) The purpose of a staining technique of chromosomes such as Giemsa is to:
A)allow the mitotic process to be followed and monitored for variations.
B)allow the numbering of chromosomes and identification of variations.
C)identify new somatic cells formed through mitosis and cytokinesis.
D)distinguish the sex chromosome from the homologous chromosomes.
Q4) Frameshift mutation has no effect on amino acid sequence in protein synthesis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Genes, Environment, and Common Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a woman has one first-degree relative with breast cancer, her risk of developing breast cancer is _____ times what it would otherwise be.
A)2
B)3
C)6
D)10
Q2) The prevalence rate is the number of new cases of a disease reported during a specific time period.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle?
A)Sodium intake
B)Physical inactivity
C)Psychosocial stress
D)Obesity
Q4) Alzheimer disease is thought to have a genetic predisposition.
A)True
B)False
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Innate Immunity: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sebaceous glands
A)Secrete antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids and lactic acid
B)Attack cell walls of gram-positive bacteria
Q2) The _____ system is a plasma protein system that forms a fibrinous network at an inflamed site to prevent spread of infection to adjacent tissues and keep microorganisms and foreign bodies at the site of greatest inflammatory activity.
A)complement
B)coagulation
C)kinin
D)fibrinolysis
Q3) Surfactant proteins A and D provide innate resistance by:
A)initiating the complement cascade.
B)promoting phagocytosis.
C)secreting mucus.
D)synthesizing lysosomes.
Q4) The inflammatory response is the body's first line of defense.
A)True
B)False
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8
Chapter 7: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen?
A)Passive acquired
B)Active acquired
C)Passive innate
D)Active innate
Q2) When antigens are administered to individuals to produce immunity, why are different routes of administration used (e.g., some are given intravenously, whereas others are given subcutaneously or nasally)?
A)Different routes allow the speed of onset of the antigen to be varied, with the intravenous route being the fastest.
B)Some individuals appear to be unable to respond to an antigen by a specific route, thus requiring the availability of different routes for the same antigen.
C)Antigen-presenting cells are highly specialized and thus require stimulation by different routes.
D)Each route stimulates a different lymphocyte-containing tissue resulting in different types of cellular and humoral immunity.
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9
Chapter 8: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which component of the immune system is deficient in people with infections caused by viruses, fungi, or yeast?
A)NK cells
B)Macrophages
C)B cells
D)T cells
Q2) Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?
A)Iron
B)Zinc
C)Iodine
D)Magnesium
Q3) Type IV hypersensitivity
A)Agammaglobulinemia
B)Raynaud phenomenon
C)Poison ivy
D)Urticaria
E)Graves disease
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Chapter 9: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack, engulf, and destroy by phagocytosis?
A)Bacteria
B)Fungi
C)Viruses
D)Mycoplasma
Q2) Vaccines against viruses are made from:
A)killed organisms or extracts of antigens.
B)live organisms weakened to produce antigens, which limits controllable infection.
C)purified toxins that have been chemically detoxified without loss of immunogenicity.
D)recombinant pathogenic protein.
Q3) The ability of an agent to produce disease
A)Toxigenicity
B)Infectivity
C)Pathogenicity
D)Virulence
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11
Chapter 10: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stress-age syndrome results in decreased:
A)catecholamines.
B)ACTH.
C)cortisol.
D)immune system.
Q2) The action of which hormone helps explain increases in affective anxiety and eating disorders, mood cycles, and vulnerability to autoimmune and inflammatory diseases in women as a result of stimulation of the CRH gene promoter and central norepinephrine system?
A)Progesterone
B)Cortisol
C)Estrogen
D)Prolactin
Q3) Constricts peripheral vessels to increase blood pressure
A)Epinephrine
B)Norepinephrine
C)Cortisol
Q4) Cortisol circulates in the plasma free (unbound) and bound to protein.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Biology, Clinical Manifestations, and Treatment of Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Burkitt lymphomas designate a chromosome that has a piece of chromosome 8 fused to a piece of chromosome 14.This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?
A)Point mutation
B)Chromosome translocation
C)Gene amplification
D)Chromosome fusion
Q2) Normally, which cells, are considered immortal (never die)?
A)Germ cells
B)Stems cells
C)Blood cells
D)Epithelial cells
E)Muscle cells
Q3) The major virus involved in cervical cancer is:
A)herpes simplex virus type 6.
B)herpes simplex virus type 2.
C)human papillomavirus.
D)human immunodeficiency virus.
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Chapter 12: Cancer Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is no current evidence that associates adult obesity with cancer formation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Research data support the relationship between ultraviolet sunlight exposure and the development of:
A)basal cell carcinoma.
B)squamous cell carcinoma.
C)melanoma.
D)non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
E)soft tissue sarcoma.
Q3) The most important risk factors associated with the development of skin melanoma include:
A)light-colored hair.
B)blue eyes.
C)fair skin.
D)freckles.
E)history of acne.
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14
Chapter 13: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of children with cancer can be cured?
A)40%
B)50%
C)60%
D)70%
Q2) Chronic myelogenous leukemia, retinoblastoma, and osteosarcoma are associated with which genetic factors in childhood cancers?
A)Chromosome aberrations or single gene defects
B)Mutation of proto-oncogenes to oncogenes
C)Tumor-suppressor genes that have lost their suppressor function
D)Congenital malformations
Q3) Cancers in children are slow growing and usually have not metastasized at time of diagnosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mutations of proto-oncogenes into oncogenes have been identified with pediatric lymphoma and leukemia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cranial nerves contain parasympathetic nerves?
A)Cranial nerves I (olfactory), II (optic), XI (spinal accessory), XII (hypoglossal)
B)Cranial nerves III (oculomotor), VII (facial), IX (glossopharyngeal), X (vagus)
C)Cranial nerves IV (trochlear), V (trigeminal), VI (abducens), VIII (vestibulocochlear)
D)Cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal), X (vagus), XI (spinal accessory), XII (hypoglossal)
Q2) Parkinson and Huntington diseases are associated with defects in the:
A)thalamus.
B)medulla oblongata.
C)cerebellum.
D)basal ganglia.
Q3) Cholinergic effects increase heart rate, increase contractility, and cause release of renin from the kidneys.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Early treatment of fever is important because fever has no therapeutic benefit.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All endorphins act by attaching to opiate receptors on the plasma membranes of afferent neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A sensorineural hearing loss may be a result of:
A)Ménière disease.
B)aging.
C)diabetes mellitus.
D)noise exposure.
E)outer ear trauma.
Q4) Which disorder of temperature regulation is caused by prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia?
A)Heat cramps
B)Heat stroke
C)Malignant hyperthermia
D)Heat exhaustion
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics and Motor Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vomiting is associated with CNS injuries that compress which anatomic location(s)?
A)Vestibular nuclei in the lower pons and medulla oblongata
B)Floor of the third ventricle
C)Vestibular nuclei in the midbrain
D)Diencephalon
Q2) Which is a description of Cheyne-Stokes respirations?
A)A sustained deep rapid, but regular pattern of breathing
B)A smooth increase in rate and depth followed by a gradual smooth decrease in rate and depth
C)A prolonged inspiratory period followed gradually by a short expiratory period
D)A completely irregular breathing pattern with random shallow, deep breaths and irregular pauses
Q3) Diagnostic criteria for a vegetative state (VS) include:
A)absence of eye opening.
B)lack of subcortical responses to pain stimuli.
C)roving eye movements with visual tracking.
D)return of autonomic functions such as gastrointestinal function.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Sample Questions
Q1) In children most intracranial tumors are located:
A)above the tentorium cerebelli.
B)below the tentorium cerebelli.
C)laterally.
D)posterolaterally.
Q2) Tubercular meningitis is on the rise in the United States especially in persons with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).
A)True
B)False
Q3) A man was in an automobile accident in which his forehead struck the windshield.A blunt force injury to the forehead would result in a coup injury to the _____ region.
A)frontal
B)temporal
C)parietal
D)occipital
Q4) Most central nervous system tumors in children are found above the tentorium cerebelli.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is thought to be the alteration produced by electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) when treating individuals with depression?
A)It produces an alteration in the monoamine systems.
B)It produces an alteration in serotonin.
C)It produces an alteration in norepinephrine.
D)It produces an alteration in the limbic system.
Q2) Which neurotransmitter is inhibited in generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?
A)Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
B)Serotonin
C)Dopamine
D)Norepinephrine
Q3) The common property among the three types of medications used to treat depression is that they:
A)increase neurotransmitter levels within the synapse.
B)increase neurotransmitter levels in the presynapse.
C)decrease neurotransmitter levels in the postsynapse.
D)decrease neurotransmitter levels within the synapse.
Q4) Mania is the most common mood disorder.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) The life-threatening problems associated with myelomeningocele include:
A)upward displacement of the cerebellum into the diencephalon.
B)motor and sensory lesions below the level of the myelomeningocele.
C)downward displacement of the cerebellum, brainstem, and fourth ventricle.
D)encephalitis causing generalized cerebral edema and hydrocephalus.
Q2) The neural groove closes dorsally during the _____ week of gestational life.
A)second
B)fourth
C)eighth
D)twelfth
Q3) Which nutritional deficiency in a pregnant woman is associated with neural tube defect (NTD)?
A)Iron
B)Vitamin C
C)Zinc
D)Folate
Q4) Spina bifida occulta occurs in 10% to 25% of infants.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regulation of the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla is an example of _____ regulation.
A)negative-feedback
B)positive-feedback
C)neural
D)physiologic
Q2) What are actions of glucocorticoids?
A)Protein catabolism and liver gluconeogenesis
B)Fat storage and glucose use
C)Decreased blood glucose and fat mobilization
D)Fat, protein, and carbohydrate anabolism
Q3) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) has no direct effect on electrolyte levels.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hormones are effective communicators because they:
A)are regularly synthesized in response to cellular and tissue activities.
B)increase their secretion in response to rising hormone levels.
C)are rapidly degraded once they enter the cell.
D)decrease their secretion in response to rising plasma hormone levels.
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Chapter 21: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) usually craves fluids.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Giantism occurs only in children and adolescents.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth hormone (GH) in adults?
A)Cushing syndrome
B)Acromegaly
C)Giantism
D)Myxedema
Q4) A man with a closed head injury has a urine output of 6 to 8 L/day.Electrolytes are within normal limits but his antidiuretic hormone (ADH) level is low.Although he has had no intake for 4 hours, there is no change in his polyuria.These are indications of:
A)neurogenic diabetes insipidus.
B)syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).
C)psychogenic polydipsia.
D)osmotically induced diuresis.
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Chapter 22: Structure and Function of the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the late follicular phase of the menstrual cycle, estrogen levels begin to dip and progesterone levels begin to rise.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for arteriolar constriction necessary for penile erections.
A)True
B)False
Q3) At puberty the vaginal pH:
A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)stabilizes.
D)fluctuates.
Q4) _____ are a pair of glands that lie posterior to the urinary bladder in the male.
A)Seminal vesicles
B)Prostate glands
C)Cowper glands
D)Parabladder glands
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Chapter 23: Alterations of the Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is the descent of the bladder and the anterior vaginal wall into the vaginal wall.
A)Rectocele
B)Vaginocele
C)Cystocele
D)Enterocele
Q2) Which description of the pathogenesis of PID is false?
A)It develops when pathogenic microbes ascend from an infected cervix along the endometrial tissue to infect the uterus and adnexa.
B)It develops from virally infected endometrial cells that move through the fallopian tubes and empty into the pelvic cavity.
C)It spreads by way of lymphatics with parametrial dissemination of infection into the pelvis.
D)It develops by the adherence of sexually transmitted bacteria to sperm that travel through the genital tract.
Q3) Taking oral contraceptives increases the risk for ovarian and endometrial cancers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Haemophilus ducreyi
A)Trichomoniasis
B)Bacterial vaginosis
C)Amebiasis
D)Syphilis
E)Chancroid
Q2) During the _____ stage of syphilis, blood-borne bacteria spread to all the major organ systems.
A)primary
B)secondary
C)latent
D)tertiary
Q3) Gonococcal infection of a newborn is usually manifested as:
A)a generalized skin rash 4 to 6 days after birth.
B)systemic infection with fever.
C)bilateral corneal ulceration.
D)a yellow vaginal or penile discharge about 10 days after birth.
Q4) Chlamydia infection is the leading cause of tubal infertility in women.
A)True
B)False
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most abundant class of plasma protein is:
A)globulin.
B)albumin.
C)clotting factors.
D)complement proteins.
Q2) Hemostasis
A)Clotting
B)Red blood cell development
C)Red blood cell destruction
D)Platelet formation
E)Blood cell production
Q3) Once activated, the clotting cascade is immediately controlled by counteracting anticoagulants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The role of nitric oxide (NO) in hemostasis is to:
A)stimulate the release of fibrinogen to maintain the platelet plug.
B)stimulate the release of clotting factors V and VII.
C)cause vasoconstriction and stimulate platelet aggregation.
D)cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet adhesion and aggregation.
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Chapter 26: Alterations of Erythrocyte Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about folic acid is false?
A)Folic acid absorption is dependent on the enzyme folacin.
B)Folic acid is stored in the liver.
C)Folic acid is essential for RNA and DNA synthesis within erythrocytes.
D)Folic acid is absorbed in the upper small intestine.
Q2) Atrophy of gastric mucosal cells results in pernicious anemia because of:
A)erythrocyte destruction.
B)folic acid malabsorption.
C)vitamin B malabsorption.
D)poor nutritional intake.
Q3) The body compensates for anemia by:
A)increasing rate and depth of breathing.
B)capillary vasoconstriction.
C)hemoglobin holds on to oxygen more firmly.
D)kidneys release more erythropoietin.
Q4) Which anemia produces small, pale erythrocytes?
A)Folic acid
B)Hemolytic
C)Iron deficiency
D)Pernicious
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Alterations of Leukocyte, Lymphoid, and Hemostatic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a(n) _____ condition in adults and a(n) _____ condition in children.
A)acute; acute
B)chronic; chronic
C)acute; chronic
D)chronic; acute
Q2) In infectious mononucleosis (IM), what does the Monospot test detect?
A)IgE
B)IgM
C)IgG
D)IgA
Q3) The most reliable and specific test for diagnosing DIC is:
A)prothrombin time (PT).
B)activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
C)fibrin degradation products (FDP).
D)D-dimer.
Q4) In the leukemias, a single progenitor cell undergoes malignant transformation.
A)True
B)False
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which disorder results in decreased erythrocytes and platelets with changes in leukocytes and has clinical manifestations of pallor, fatigue, petechiae, purpura, bleeding, and fever?
A)ITP
B)Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
C)Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)
D)Iron deficiency anemia (IDA)
Q2) Sickled erythrocytes (characteristic of sickle cell anemia) are stiff and cannot change shape as easily as normal erythrocytes and thus tend to plug the microcirculation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Between 4 years of age and the onset of puberty, dietary iron deficiency is common. A)True
B)False
Q4) In beta-thalassemia major, most erythroblasts are destroyed in the spleen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which chamber of the heart endures the highest pressures?
A)Right atrium
B)Left atrium
C)Left ventricle
D)Right ventricle
Q2) Which phase of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with diastole?
A)Phase 0
B)Phase 1
C)Phase 2
D)Phase 3
E)Phase 4
Q3) The right lymphatic duct drains into the:
A)right subclavian artery.
B)right atrium.
C)right subclavian vein.
D)superior vena cava.
Q4) Veins are less compliant than arteries.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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67 Verified Questions
67 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32193
Sample Questions
Q1) Nicotine increases atherosclerosis by the release of:
A)histamine.
B)nitric oxide.
C)angiotensin II.
D)epinephrine.
Q2) Which predominantly female valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, as well as being associated with connective tissue disease?
A)Mitral valve prolapse
B)Tricuspid stenosis
C)Tricuspid valve prolapse
D)Aortic insufficiency
Q3) An individual who is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase (CK), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) is exhibiting indicators associated with:
A)myocardial ischemia.
B)hypertension.
C)myocardial infarction (MI).
D)coronary artery disease.
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Chapter 31: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Truncus arteriosus
A)Causes atrial separation
B)Gap between the septum primum and the septum secundum
C)Conal portion of the ventricular septum
D)Communication between the aorta and the pulmonary artery
E)Allows right-to-left shunting
Q2) Which heart defect produces a systolic ejection murmur at the right upper sternal border that transmits to the neck and left lower sternal border with an occasional ejection click?
A)Coarctation of the aorta
B)Pulmonic stenosis
C)Aortic stenosis
D)Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
Q3) Common clinical manifestations of right ventricular failure in infants include unexplained weight gain and periorbital edema.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Kawasaki disease is a self-limiting systemic vasculitis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The relationship between arterial perfusion and alveolar gas pressure at the base of the lungs is best described as:
A)alveolar gas pressure exceeds arterial perfusion pressure.
B)arterial perfusion pressure and alveolar gas pressure are less than at the apex.
C)arterial perfusion pressure exceeds alveolar gas pressure.
D)alveolar gas pressure and arterial perfusion pressure are equal.
Q2) Pressure in the pleural space is:
A)atmospheric.
B)below atmospheric.
C)above atmospheric.
D)variable.
Q3) Normal physiologic changes in the aging pulmonary system include:
A)decreased flow resistance.
B)fewer alveoli.
C)stiffening of the chest wall.
D)improved elastic recoil.
Q4) The oropharynx is considered part of a conduction airway.
A)True
B)False
34
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Chapter 33: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ atelectasis is the collapse of lung tissue caused from the lack of collateral ventilation through the pores of Kohn.
A)Compression
B)Perfusion
C)Absorption
D)Hypoventilation
Q2) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) is a result of:
A)obstructed bronchi.
B)collapsed alveoli.
C)fluid in the lungs.
D)inflamed bronchioles.
Q3) Clinical manifestations of inspiratory crackles, increased tactile fremitus, egophony, and whispered pectoriloquy are indicative of:
A)chronic bronchitis.
B)emphysema.
C)pneumonia.
D)asthma.
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Chapter 34: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn?
A)An immature immune system
B)Small alveoli
C)A surfactant deficiency
D)Anemia
Q2) Which immunoglobulin is present in childhood asthma?
A)IgM
B)IgG
C)IgE
D)IgA
Q3) Bronchiolitis tends to occur during the first years of life and is most often caused by _____ infection.
A)respiratory syncytial virus
B)influenzavirus
C)adenoviruses
D)Epstein-Barr virus
Q4) All alveoli are present and functioning at birth.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What force(s) creates passive transport of water in the proximal tubule?
A)Peritubular capillary hydrostatic pressure
B)Peritubular capillary oncotic and osmotic pressures
C)Interstitial hydrostatic pressure
D)Interstitial oncotic and osmotic pressures
Q2) Which glucoprotein protects against urolithiasis and is a ligand for lymphokines?
A)Uromodulin
B)Nephrin
C)Urodilatin
D)Cystatin
Q3) Kidney stones in the upper part of the ureter would produce pain referred to the: A)vulva or penis.
B)umbilicus.
C)thighs.
D)lower abdomen.
Q4) The target tissue for angiotensin II is the blood vessels and adrenal medulla.
A)True
B)False
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) An alkaline urinary pH significantly decreases the risk of calcium phosphate stone formation whereas acid urine decreases the risk of uric acid stones.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which glomerular lesion is characterized by thickening of the glomerular wall with immune deposition of immunoglobulin G (IgG) and C3?
A)Proliferative
B)Membranous
C)Mesangial
D)Crescentic
Q3) In the formation of renal calculi, pyrophosphate, potassium citrate, and magnesium all:
A)inhibit crystal growth.
B)stimulate supersaturation of salt.
C)facilitate the precipitation of salts from a liquid to a solid state.
D)enhance crystallization of salt crystals to form stones.
Q4) Renal colic is the principal symptom of renal stones.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fibrin rich thrombi can be found throughout the microcirculation
A)Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
B)Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis
C)Renal dysplasia
D)Ureteropelvic junction obstruction
E)Polycystic kidney disease
Q2) Which cells of the inflammatory process are NOT found in acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN)?
A)Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
B)Immunoglobulin A (IgA)
C)Complement C3
D)Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
Q3) IgA nephropathy causing inflammation to glomerular blood vessels
A)Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
B)Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis
C)Renal dysplasia
D)Ureteropelvic junction obstruction
E)Polycystic kidney disease
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Chapter 38: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The role of the normal intestinal bacterial flora is to:
A)metabolize bile salts, estrogens, and lipids.
B)break down proteins into amino acids.
C)facilitate the motility of the colon.
D)metabolize aldosterone and insulin.
Q2) Hydrolase cleaves fatty acids from phospholipids and phospholipase breaks cholesterol esters into fatty acids and cholesterol.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Enhances insulin release, lipolysis, and ketogenesis
A)Peptide YY
B)Secretin
C)Cholecystokinin
D)Enteroglucagon
E)Pancreatic polypeptide
Q4) When vitamin B is bound to intrinsic factor, it is resistant to digestion.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical manifestation is not consistent with cancer of the cecum and ascending colon?
A)Mahogany-colored blood mixed with stool
B)Anemia
C)Pain
D)Constipation
Q2) Inflammation develops in crypts of Lieberkühn in the large intestine.
A)Ulcerative colitis
B)Crohn disease
Q3) Normal bowel habits range from two or three evacuations per day to one per:
A)day.
B)2 days.
C)week.
D)month.
Q4) Chronic gastritis tends to occur in older adults and causes thinning and degeneration of the stomach wall.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) People with cystic fibrosis have fat in their stools because:
A)their bile ducts are obstructed with mucus that prohibits the release of bile.
B)they cannot metabolize fat-soluble vitamins.
C)they have a deficiency of pancreatic lipase.
D)of fat malabsorption in their jejunum.
Q2) Malrotation
A)Gluten sensitivity
B)Periduodenal band
C)Congenital aganglionic megacolon
D)Protein energy malnutrition
E)Lack of digestive enzymes during fetal life
Q3) Celiac sprue
A)Gluten sensitivity
B)Periduodenal band
C)Congenital aganglionic megacolon
D)Protein energy malnutrition
E)Lack of digestive enzymes during fetal life
Q4) The primary cause of intrahepatic portal hypertension in children is cirrhosis.
A)True
B)False
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) During isotonic contraction the muscle maintains a constant length as the tension is increased, but as the muscle contracts the limb does not move.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When bone is "resorbed" during the process of growth and repair the original bone:
A)is replaced.
B)hardens.
C)is removed.
D)is synthesized.
Q3) Periosteal and endosteal surfaces of the bone are formed to the size and shape of the bone before the injury.
A)Callus replacement
B)Hematoma formation
C)Remodeling
D)Procallus formation
E)Callus formation
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Chapter 42: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis, after being activated by receptor activator of nuclear RANKL, RANK activates:
A)osteoclast apoptosis.
B)and prolongs osteoblast survival.
C)osteoprotegerin.
D)and prolongs osteoclast survival.
Q2) The most common clinical manifestation of osteoporosis is:
A)bone deformity.
B)bone pain.
C)pathologic fracture.
D)muscle strain.
Q3) Polymyositis
A)Caused by sedatives and narcotics, particularly street heroin
B)Caused by viruses, bacteria, and parasites
C)Exercise intolerance with normal production of lactic acid
D)Impairs the breakdown of glycogen and production of lactic acid
E)Autoimmune disease
Q4) Osteomyelitis is a bone infection caused only by bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 43: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pulmonary complications in children with Duchenne muscular dystrophy are contributed to:
A)chronic heart failure.
B)kyphoscoliosis.
C)impaired formation of alveoli.
D)anemia.
Q2) Cerebral palsy is usually a result of:
A)brain ischemia during birth.
B)prematurity.
C)congenital defects.
D)genetic defect.
Q3) Which bones are affected in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease?
A)Heads of the femur
B)Distal femurs
C)Heads of the humerus
D)Distal tibias
Q4) Poor posture results in structural scoliosis.
A)True
B)False
45
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Chapter 44: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inflammatory mediators that are active in frostbite include:
A)leukotrienes, serotonin, and prostacyclin.
B)histamine, bradykinin, and thromboxanes.
C)lymphokines, leukotrienes, and fibrin.
D)plasmin, lysosomal compounds, prostacyclin.
Q2) Merkel cells are associated with touch receptors and function as slowly adapting mechanoreceptors when stimulated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The alteration of which gene is associated with basal cell carcinoma?
A)myc
B)TP53
C)src
D)RAS
Q4) The relationship between nevi and melanoma has been found to be insignificant.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Tinea (e.g., ringworm) and candidiasis are caused by fungi.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atopic dermatitis is the most common cause of eczema in children.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Erythematous macular rash over the trunk and neck that lasts 24 hours
A)Rubella (German measles)
B)Rubeola (red measles)
C)Roseola (exanthema subitum)
D)Varicella (chickenpox)
E)Herpes zoster (shingles)
Q3) Which immunoglobulin is elevated in atopic dermatitis?
A)IgA
B)IgM
C)IgE
D)IgG
Q4) Which skin disorder has as its hallmark clinical manifestation skin lesions that rupture, creating a thin, flat, honey-colored crust?
A)Rubella
B)Tinea capitis
C)Atopic dermatitis
D)Vesicular impetigo
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Chapter 46: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and
Burns in Adult
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Sample Questions
Q1) In MODS, the gut hypothesis attempts to explain:
A)paralytic ileus.
B)translocation of bacteria.
C)maldistribution of blood flow.
D)massive diarrhea accompanying septic shock.
Q2) When proteins are broken down anaerobically, ammonia and urea are produced.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ shock is often more severe than other forms because of its sudden, rapid systemic vasodilation.
A)Septic
B)Hypovolemic
C)Anaphylactic
D)Neurogenic
Q4) Follows myocardial infarction
A)Cardiogenic shock
B)Hypovolemic shock
C)Neurogenic shock
D)Anaphylactic shock
E)Septic shock
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Chapter 47: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes renal failure after electrical burns in children?
A)Cytokines released after the damaged tissue
B)Immature kidneys unable to compensate for the electrical burn
C)Reduction in cardiac output
D)Myoglobin released from damaged muscles
Q2) Corrosive agent
A)Scald burns
B)Contact burns
C)Flame burns
D)Electrical burns
E)Chemical burns
Q3) The most common type of burn injury in very young children is flame injury.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Shock is present in children when there are signs of poor systemic perfusion with normal, low, or high blood pressure.
A)True
B)False
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