Pharmacy Pathology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Pharmacy Pathology is an integrative course designed to provide students with a comprehensive understanding of the mechanisms, causes, and effects of diseases at the tissue and cellular levels, specifically as they relate to pharmaceutical practice. Through the study of pathological processes such as inflammation, infection, neoplasia, and degenerative disorders, students will gain insights into how diseases develop and progress in the human body. Emphasis is placed on correlating pathological findings with clinical symptoms and pharmacological treatments, enabling future pharmacists to make informed decisions about medication management and therapeutic interventions. This foundational knowledge supports the safe and effective use of pharmaceuticals in treating and preventing disease, enhancing patient care within diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pathology 9th Edition by Vinay Kumar
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23 Chapters
265 Verified Questions
265 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1129
Page 2
Chapter 1: Cell Injury, Cell Death, and Adaptations
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22166
Sample Questions
Q1) A 30-year-old woman who had leukemia was treated with bone marrow transplantation. She developed a skin rash that was interpreted as a sign of a graft-versus- host reaction. A skin biopsy was performed. In the epidermis, there were scattered dead epidermal cells that had rounded contours and pyknotic nuclei. This form of cell death is caused by
A) activation of caspases through receptor transmitted signals on the cell surface
B) inhibition of ATPase
C) inhibition of oxidative phosphorylation
D) activation of lysosomal enzymes
E) depletion of glycogen
Answer: A
Q2) Ubiquitin-proteasome degradation of plasma proteins is opposed by A) insulin
B) interleukin-1
C) tumor necrosis factor
D) glucocorticoids
E) thyroid hormones
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Inflammation and Repair
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 2-year-old child known to suffer from recurrent bacterial infections and poor wound healing was found to have leukocyte adhesion molecule deficiency 1 (LAD-1). The leukocytes of this patient do not express CD18, a molecule classified as belonging to the family of
A) selectins
B) integrins
C) lectin type of vascular adhesion molecules
D) aminotransferases
E) glycosidases
Answer: B
Q2) Bradykinin is produced from a high-molecular weight kininogen circulating in the blood. This reaction is mediated by
A) coagulation factor X
B) kallikrein
C) Hageman factor
D) complement C3
E) protein C
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Hemodynamic Disorders, Thromboembolism, and Shock
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22168
Sample Questions
Q1) A 60-year-old man had congestive heart failure and sodium retention. Pitting edema of the lower extremities in this patient is most likely associated with an increased blood level of
A) albumin
B) globulin
C) aldosterone
D) troponin
E) plasminogen
Answer: C
Q2) Which form of hemorrhage is most typical of defective platelet function seen in uremia (end stage kidney failure)?
A) Multiple petechiae
B) Multiple ecchymoses
C) Solitary ecchymoses
D) Hematoma
E) Hemarthrosis
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Diseases of the Immune System
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22169
Sample Questions
Q1) A 10-year-old girl presented with lilac or heliotrope discoloration of the upper eyelids, muscle weakness, and dusky red patches over the knuckles, elbows, and knees. Which antibody was most likely found in this patient's blood?
A) Anti-histidyl-t-RNA synthetase
B) Anti-double-stranded DNA
C) Anti-single-stranded DNA
D) Anti-topoisomerase
E) Anti-ribonucleoprotein antibody SS-A (Ro)
Q2) Which antibody can most effectively activate complement by the alternate pathway, even without prior forming an antigen-antibody complex?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgM
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6
Chapter 5: Neoplasia
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22170
Sample Questions
Q1) Clubbing of the digits, periosteal new bone formation on the metatarsals, metacarpals, and proximal phalanges, and arthritis of adjacent joints is a paraneoplastic syndrome most often associated with carcinoma of the
A) thyroid
B) larynx
C) bronchi
D) liver
E) stomach
Q2) Which mechanism affecting the genes or chromosomes accounts for the activation of the c-myc protooncogene in Burkitt lymphoma cells?
A) Overexpression
B) Amplification
C) Point mutation
D) Translocation
E) Inactivation of its promotor
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Pediatric Diseases
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which disease is caused by prolonged exposure of premature infants to oxygen at a high concentration?
A) Retrolental fibroplasia
B) Coloboma
C) Retinitis pigmentosa
D) Blepharitis
E) Keratomalacia
Q2) Chromosome 22q11 deletion is typically associated with
A) rocker-bottom feet
B) horseshoe kidneys
C) thymic hypoplasia
D) microphthalmia
E) simian crease on hands
Q3) Which hormone can suppress surfactant production in fetal lungs?
A) Cortisol
B) Estrogen
C) Insulin
D) Glucagon
E) Androgens
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Environmental and Nutritional Diseases
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in chronic alcoholics is caused by a deficiency of
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin D
E) vitamin K
Q2) Frontal bossing of the cranium that imparts a square appearance to the head, pigeon breast deformity, and bow legs are features of a deficiency of which vitamin?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin K
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9
Chapter 8: General Pathology of Infectious Diseases
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lepromatous leprosy represents a form of disease that develops due to
A) accelerated T-helper lymphocyte response
B) accelerated cytotoxic T-cell response
C) inadequate B-cell response
D) hyperimmunity
E) immunologic anergy
Q2) Reiter syndrome, including the triad of conjunctivitis, polyarthritis, and genital lesions, occurs in men infected with which pathogen?
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Treponema pallidum
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Trichomonas vaginalis
E) Haemophilus ducreyi
Q3) The diagnosis of malaria is best made by examining a
A) biopsy specimen of the liver
B) biopsy specimen of the spleen
C) bone marrow biopsy
D) blood smear
E) serum sample for antibodies to plasmodia
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Blood Vessels
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aneurysms caused by weakening or destruction of the arterial wall by bacteria are called
A) berry aneurysms
B) fusiform aneurysms
C) saccular aneurysms
D) mycotic aneurysms
E) cirsoid aneurysms
Q2) Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies showing widespread cytoplasmic staining of neutrophils in an indirect immunofluorescence test (c-ANCA) are found in high titers in which disease?
A) Microscopic polyangiitis
B) Wegener granulomatosis
C) Churg-Strauss syndrome
D) Goodpasture syndrome
E) Kawasaki syndrome
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11
Chapter 10: Heart
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22175
Sample Questions
Q1) Which marker of myocardial necrosis is elevated first in the blood of a patient with a myocardial infarction?
A) Aspartate aminotransferase
B) Creatine kinase
C) Creatine kinase M-B fraction
D) Troponin T
E) Lactate dehydrogenase
Q2) Which of the following is the most important and most common complication of prosthetic heart valve implantation?
A) Hemolysis
B) Infective endocarditis
C) Thromboembolic complications
D) Structural deterioration of prostheses
E) Coronary heart disease
Q3) The most common location of atrial septal defects is in the area of the
A) fossa ovalis
B) sinus venosus
C) septum primum
D) coronary sinus
E) supravalvular endocardium
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Chapter 11: Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Systems
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bleeding tests is abnormal in patients with von Willebrand disease?
A) Prolonged bleeding time
B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Prolonged prothrombin time
D) Shortened partial thromboplastin time
E) Increased levels of factor VIII in plasma
Q2) The monoclonal immunoglobulin, the so-called M protein of multiple myeloma, belongs to which class of immunoglobulins?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgM
Q3) Terminal deoxynucleotidyltransferase is a marker of
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) Precursors of B and T lymphocytes
D) Plasma cells
E) Natural killer cells
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Chapter 12: Lung
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22177
Sample Questions
Q1) Which bacterium is the most common cause of lobar pneumonia in chronic alcoholics?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Legionella pneumophila
Q2) A 30-year-old man was found to have atypical pneumonia that was accompanied by elevation of cold agglutinin in the serum. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this pneumonia?
A) Parainfluenza virus
B) Influenza virus
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Coxiella burnetii
E) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
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14
Chapter 13: Kidney and Its Collecting System
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis caused by mixed cryoglobulinemia is most often secondary to which of the following diseases?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Membranous nephropathy
D) Amyloidosis
E) Human immunodeficiency virus infection
Q2) A 5-year-old boy is taken to the pediatrician because of generalized facial edema and somnolence. He has been passing dark brown urine. Physical examination reveals hypertension. Urinalysis shows oliguria, hematuria, proteinuria, and red blood cell casts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Nephritic syndrome
B) Nephrotic syndrome
C) Rapidly progressive acute renal failure
D) Chronic uremia
E) Nephrolithiasis
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Chapter 14: Oral Cavity and Gastrointestinal Tract
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Esophageal diverticulum located above the upper esophageal sphincter is called
A) congenital diverticulum
B) postinflammatory diverticulum
C) traction diverticulum
D) epiphrenic diverticulum
E) Zenker diverticulum
Q2) Basal zone hyperplasia exceeding 20% of the thickness of the esophageal epithelium, accompanied by elongation of lamina propria papillae and by inflammatory infiltrates that contain eosinophils is a histologic finding most typical of which disease?
A) Reflux esophagitis
B) Viral esophagitis
C) Barrett esophagus
D) Mallory-Weiss syndrome
E) Boerhaave syndrome
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Chapter 15: Liver, Gallbladder, and Biliary Tract
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22180
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common cause of neonatal cholestasis?
A) a1-antitrypsin deficiency
B) Biliary atresia
C) Cytomegalovirus infection
D) Galactosemia
E) Unknown
Q2) Transplacental infection of the fetus will most often occur in women who have been infected with which hepatotropic virus?
A) Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
B) HBV
C) HCV
D) HDV
E) HEV
Q3) Cryoglobulinemia is found in chronic hepatitis caused by which hepatotropic virus?
A) Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
B) HBV
C) HCV
D) HDV
E) HEV
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pancreas
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22181
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?
A) Alcohol
B) Thiazide diuretics
C) Viruses
D) Trauma
E) Vascular thrombosis
Q2) Hereditary pancreatitis is most likely to be found in persons harboring the mutation of which of the following genes?
A) <sub>1</sub>-Antitrypsin
B) Amylase
C) Cationic trypsinogen
D) Enterokinase
E) Alkaline phosphatase
Q3) Which of the following genes is the most frequently mutated oncogene in ductal adenocarcinoma of the pancreas?
A) p53
B) K-RAS
C) MYC
D) RB1
E) SMAD4
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Chapter 17: Male Genital System and Lower Urinary Tract
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22182
Sample Questions
Q1) Penile carcinomas tend to metastasize first to which of the following nodes?
A) Inguinal lymph nodes
B) Obturator lymph nodes
C) Internal ileac lymph nodes
D) External iliac lymph nodes
E) Paraortic abdominal lymph nodes
Q2) Which of the following risk factors is most often encountered in patients with urothelial carcinoma?
A) Industrial exposure to arylamines
B) Industrial exposure to azo dyes
C) Cigarette smoking
D) Long-term use of analgesics
E) Infection with Schistosoma haematobium
Q3) Seminomas tend to metastasize first to which of the following sites?
A) Internal iliac lymph nodes
B) External iliac lymph nodes
C) Mesenteric lymph nodes
D) Retroperitoneal para-aortic lymph nodes
E) Urinary bladder
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Female Genital System and Breast
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following nonneoplastic breast lesions is associated with the highest risk of mammary cancer?
A) Apocrine cysts
B) Sclerosing adenosis
C) Complex sclerosing lesion
D) Small duct papillomas
E) Atypical ductal hyperplasia
Q2) Comedocarcinoma of the breast is a type of which of the following carcinomas?
A) Ductal carcinoma in situ
B) Medullary carcinoma
C) Invasive ductal carcinoma
D) Invasive lobular carcinoma
E) Tubular carcinoma
Q3) A high level of expression of the tumor suppressor gene PTEN will most likely be found in which of the following?
A) Normal proliferative phase endometrium
B) Uterine ligaments
C) Complex atypical endometrial hyperplasia
D) Endometrial intraepithelial neoplasia
E) Adenocarcinoma of the endometrium
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Chapter 19: Endocrine System
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22184
Sample Questions
Q1) A 50-year-old man who is showing signs of acromegaly is found to have an elevated concentration of growth hormone and another hormone in blood that was apparently derived from the liver. Which other hormone is most likely increased in this patient's blood?
A) Glucagon
B) Somatostatin
C) Insulin growth factor I
D) Cholecystokinin
E) Secretin
Q2) Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) is implicated in the pathogenesis of which complication of diabetes?
A) Cerebral infarcts
B) Intraretinal microangiopathy
C) Diabetic glomerulosclerosis
D) Gangrene of the foot
E) Peripheral neuropathy
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21
Chapter 20: Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The autosomal dominant bone disorder caused by a mutation of fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) is characterized by short stature, rhizomelic shortening of limbs, frontal bossing of the skull, and midface abnormalities. Which of the following disorders is described by these characteristics?
A) Achondrogenesis
B) Achondroplasia
C) Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia
D) Synpolydactyly
E) Holt-Oram syndrome
Q2) A 20-year-old man is being treated for a soft tissue tumor of the lower extremity. The tumor is composed of malignant spindle-shaped cells and epithelial cells that form gland-like structures. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Leiomyosarcoma
B) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
C) Primitive neuroectodermal tumor
D) Synovial sarcoma
E) Rhabdomyosarcoma
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nerves and Muscles
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1 Verified Questions
1 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Guillain-Barré syndrome is mediated by which form of immune hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Atopic IgE-mediated reaction
B) Cytotoxic IgG antibody-mediated reaction
C) Circulating immune complex-mediated reaction
D) T cell-mediated reaction
E) Graft-versus-host reaction
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Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fetal alcohol syndrome is most often characterized by which of the following disorders?
A) Encephalocele
B) Anencephaly
C) Macrogyria
D) Microencephaly
E) Lissencephaly
Q2) Posttraumatic hydrocephalus is most often caused by which of the following?
A) Hypersecretion of cerebrospinal fluid
B) Obstruction of the aqueduct
C) Obstruction of the foramen of Luschka
D) Obstruction of the foramen of Magendie
E) Obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid absorption
Q3) Which of the following is the most common source of septic thromboemboli in the cerebral arteries?
A) Leg veins
B) Pulmonary veins
C) Heart
D) Aorta
E) Carotid arteries
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Chapter 23: Skin
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22188
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following skin lesions becomes darker and more pigmented upon exposure to sunlight?
A) Vitiligo
B) Lentigo
C) Ephelis
D) Congenital melanocytic nevus
E) Dysplastic nevus
Q2) Which of the following skin lesions will most likely progress to invasive squamous cell carcinoma?
A) Actinic keratosis
B) Seborrheic keratosis
C) Seborrheic dermatitis
D) Epidermal inclusion cyst
E) Steatocystoma multiplex
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