Pharmacy Operations Final Exam
Course Introduction
Pharmacy Operations explores the essential processes and systems that underpin successful pharmacy practice in various settings, including community, hospital, and institutional pharmacies. The course covers inventory management, workflow optimization, legal and regulatory compliance, prescription processing, medication safety, and customer service. Students gain an understanding of financial operations, quality assurance, and the integration of technology in pharmacy environments. Emphasis is placed on developing operational strategies that enhance efficiency, patient care, interprofessional collaboration, and adherence to ethical and legal standards in pharmacy practice.
Recommended Textbook
Mosbys Pharmacy Technician Principles and Practice 4th Edition by Elsevier
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28 Chapters
895 Verified Questions
895 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: History of Medicine and Pharmacy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The effects associated with opioid receptors include all of the following except:
A)Analgesia
B)Respiratory depression
C)Increased gastrointestinal motility
D)Euphoria
Answer: C
Q2) Which medication(s) come(s) from plants?
A)Opium
B)Penicillin
C)Quinine
D)A and C
Answer: D
Q3) Laudanum, which is a combination of opium and alcohol that was used during the Civil War for multiple conditions, was problematic for what reason?
A)Laudanum was difficult to make.
B)It was very expensive.
C)Opium could no longer be imported.
D)Laudanum was highly addictive and resulted in many deaths and miscarriages.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Pharmacy Law, Ethics, and Regulatory Agencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What agency within the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services is responsible for ensuring the safety, efficacy, and security of human and veterinary drugs, biologic products, medical devices, the national food supply, cosmetics, and radioactive products?
A)DEA
B)FDA
C)DUE
D)USDA
Answer: B
Q2) Individual states cannot establish which of the following?
A)Storage of certain controlled substances
B)Record keeping of certain controlled substances
C)OTC status of some schedule C-V medications
D)Schedule under which a drug should be placed
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Competencies, Associations, and Settings for Technicians
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements is not true of pharmacy technician CE hours?
A)Pharmacy technicians need 20 hours every 2 years.
B)By 2015, only pharmacy technician-specific CE hours will be accepted.
C)All valid CE credits must be approved by the ACPE.
D)Very few areas require CE hours for pharmacy technicians to maintain their license, certification, or registration.
Answer: D
Q2) On the job, a pharmacy technician should be concerned about all of the following except:
A)Appropriate appearance
B)Communication skills
C)Entitlement
D)Punctuality
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Communication and Role of the Technician
With the Customerpatient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Communication channels include:
A)Written messages
B)Spoken words
C)Body language
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following pertain to spoken communication?
A)Vocal
B)Verbal
C)Gestures
D)A and B
Q3) The skill of dealing with others without causing bad feelings is called:
A)Compassion
B)Diplomacy
C)Etiquette
D)Communication
Q4) How can pharmacies deal with non-English-speaking customers?
A)Employ bilingual staff members
B)Use translating software programs
C)Use pictograms
D)All of the above
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Chapter 5: Dosage Forms and Routes of Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Caplet refers to a(n):
A)Little capsule
B)Different-shaped tablet
C)Easy-to-swallow form of tablet
D)B and C
Q2) What is the most professional way to word the label directions for one drop in the left eye?
A)Put one drop in the left eye.
B)Take one drop in the left eye.
C)Instill one drop in the left eye.
D)Stick one drop in the left eye.
Q3) What should the pharmacy technician do if he or she get a prescription for cortisporin otic solution with directions to instill 1 drop in the left eye two times daily (bid) for 5 days?
A)Fill it since physicians write these directions all of the time.
B)Fill it and let the pharmacist decide whether to call the physician.
C)Alert the pharmacist since Otic medications are never used in the eyes.
D)Give the prescription back to the patient, and tell him or her to ask the physician about it.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Conversions and Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is 12:30 AM in military time?
A)1200
B)0000
C)1230
D)0030
Q2) How many capsules are needed to fill the following prescription: amoxicillin (Amoxil) 250 mg po qid ´ 10 d? (Amoxil is available in 250 mg capsules.)
A)20
B)40
C)60
D)80
Q3) A fraction that is used to convert one unit to another without changing the value of the number is called:
A)Converter
B)Conversion factor
C)Unit converter
D)None of the above
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Chapter 7: Drug Information References
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drug monograph or official label should include all of the following except:
A)Classification
B)Indication and contraindications
C)Chemical and generic names
D)Cost
Q2) Which of the following is not a section in the reference book Drug Facts and Comparisons?
A)Drug monographs
B)Drug identification
C)Keeping up
D)Drug costs
Q3) Which reference book is a compilation of package inserts from manufacturers who have paid a fee to have their drugs included?
A)Drug Facts and Comparisons
B)Physicians' Desk Reference (PDR)
C)American Hospital Formulary Service Drug Information
D)Orange Book
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Chapter 8: Community Pharmacy Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) When counting medications on a tray with a spatula, the traditional method is to count in multiples of:
A)Two
B)Four
C)Five
D)Ten
Q2) One 14.7 g Combivent inhaler contains 200 actuations. What is the days' supply for the following prescription: sig 2 inh qid?
A)12
B)25
C)30
D)45
Q3) The primary role of a pharmacy technician is to:
A)Answer the telephone
B)Enter prescriptions into the computer
C)Fill prescription bottles
D)Assist the pharmacist
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Chapter 9: Institutional Pharmacy Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) The abbreviation that implies an emergency situation is:
A)ASAP
B)PRN
C)stat
D)SO
Q2) The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) regulates and administers:
A)Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP)
B)Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
C)Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)
D)A and B
Q3) A hospital pharmacy that is not open 24 hours a day has which of the following options for filling after-hours medication orders?
A)Allow limited access to medications by specific nursing personnel.
B)Have an on-call pharmacist.
C)Have an off-site pharmacy that can deliver medications.
D)All of the above.
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Chapter 10: Additional Pharmacy Practice Settings
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is medication reconciliation?
A)Ensuring all of the prescriptions are correctly filled
B)Ensuring all of the ordered prescriptions are filled
C)Comparing patients' medication orders with the medications they were taking before admission to the hospital
D)All of the above
Q2) Pharmacy benefit management (PBM) companies hire pharmacy technicians to:
A)Process claims for members according to their benefits.
B)Provide benefit information to patients.
C)Prepare mail-order prescriptions.
D)Perform all of the above tasks.
Q3) Which of the following advanced practice positions involve(s) communication with patients?
A)Pharmacy purchasing agent
B)Medication reconciliation technician
C)Managed care pharmacy technician
D)B and C
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Chapter 11: Bulk Repackaging and Non-Sterile
Compounding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compounding includes:
A)Mixing
B)Reconstituting
C)Packaging
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following ingredients is(are) considered hydrophobic?
A)Ointment
B)Cream
C)Oleaginous base
D)A and B
Q3) Which of the following statements is(are) true regarding a class A balance?
A)Class A balance is also called a torsion or class III balance.
B)Class A balance is required by most states' boards of pharmacy.
C)Class A balance uses special milligram and gram weights for counterbalance.
D)All of the above statements are true.
Q4) Which organization sets the standards for a nonsterile compounding area?
A)U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
B)American Society of Health-System Pharmacists (ASHP)
C)United States Pharmacopeia (USP)
D)Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
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Chapter 12: Aseptic Technique and Sterile Compounding
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the maximum volume (in millimeters) of a tension-type syringe?
A)0.5
B)1
C)3
D)5
Q2) Health care-associated infections are also called:
A)Hospital-induced infections
B)Hospital-spread infections
C)Health care-spread infections
D)Nosocomial infections
Q3) PCA stands for:
A)Pain-controlling analgesia
B)Patient-controlled analgesia
C)Pump-containing analgesia
D)Pump-continuous analgesia
Q4) KPO is the chemical formula for:
A)Calcium phosphate
B)Potassium phosphorous oxide
C)Potassium phosphate
D)Calcium phosphorous oxide
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Chapter 13: Pharmacy Billing and Inventory Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is meant by stock rotation?
A)Moving medication shelf displays around the pharmacy to ensure maximum exposure
B)Selling out an item before replacing it
C)Bringing the items with the earliest expiration dates to the front so they are used first
D)Moving items to different places on the shelves
Q2) Supplemental insurance provided through private insurance companies that help cover costs not reimbursed by Medicare is called:
A)Medigap plan
B)Medifill plan
C)Medisupp plan
D)Mediplus plan
Q3) PPO means:
A)Preferred provider option
B)Preferred provider organization
C)Preferred physician option
D)Preferred physician organization
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Chapter 14: Medication Safety and Error Prevention
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does TJC require hospitals and institutions to prepack all liquid doses in oral syringes or containers?
A)Continually opening bulk containers has led to an increased risk of contamination.
B)Patient-specific instructions are not denoted on the bulk medication; therefore the likelihood of an inappropriate dose increases when nurses pour medicine from bulk containers.
C)The pharmacy must maintain control over each dose to ensure accuracy.
D)All of the above are reasons..
Q2) A physician ordering an IV to run at 100 mL/hr instead of 125 mL/hr is an example of what type of error?
A)Prescribing error
B)Omission error
C)Wrong dosage form
D)Monitoring error
Q3) The majority of health care-associated infections (HAIs) are:
A)Urinary tract infections (UTIs)
B)Bloodstream and surgical site infections
C)Pneumonia
D)All of the above
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Therapeutic Agents for the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the mood-changing drug of choice for bipolar disorder?
A)Lithium
B)Diazepam
C)Carbamazepine
D)Sertraline
Q2) Which of the following ions is(are) involved in nerve transmission?
A)Potassium
B)Sodium
C)Iodide
D)A and B
Q3) Agents that activate the PSNS are called:
A)Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
B)Parasympathomimetic agents
C)Anticholinergic medications
D)A and B
Q4) Which of the following is a primary neurotransmitter of the SNS?
A)Norepinephrine
B)Caffeine
C)Acetylcholine
D)None of the above
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Chapter 16: Therapeutic Agents for the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements is true about hypothyroidism?
A)Hypothyroidism is a rare medical condition.
B)Symptoms include weight loss.
C)Hypothyroidism is a life-threatening disorder.
D)It can be treated with a thyroid hormone replacement medication.
Q2) Glucocorticoids, such as cortisol, have all of the following effects except:
A)Increases glucose levels.
B)Increases inflammation.
C)Increases the capacity to cope with stress.
D)All of the above are effects of glucocorticoids.
Q3) All of the following are true of Graves disease except:
A)Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder.
B)Common symptoms of Graves disease are goiter and exophthalmos.
C)Although rare, Graves disease is more common in women than men.
D)Graves disease can be treated with thyroid hormone replacement therapy.
Q4) Pioglitazone is used to treat:
A)Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T DM)
B)Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T DM)
C)T DM and T DM
D)None of the above
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Chapter 17: Therapeutic Agents for the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does acetaminophen not have an antiinflammatory effect?
A)Acetaminophen does not inhibit cyclooxygenase.
B)It only inhibits COX-2 enzymes.
C)Acetaminophen only inhibits cyclooxygenase within the CNS.
D)None of the above answers apply.
Q2) All of the following statements are true about gout except:
A)Gout is a form of arthritis.
B)It can be exacerbated by the intake of alcohol.
C)Gout is not related to diet.
D)It can be treated with colchicine.
Q3) Opioid analgesics require the following auxiliary label(s):
A)May cause dizziness or drowsiness.
B)Avoid alcohol.
C)"Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the patient for whom it was prescribed."
D)All of the above auxiliary labels are required for opioid analgesic medications.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Therapeutic Agents for the Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood pressure:
A)Is the force exerted by the blood against the inner walls of the blood vessels.
B)Is recorded as systolic pressure and diastolic pressure.
C)Measures the pressure of contraction and the pressure of relaxation.
D)All of the above are characteristics of blood pressure.
Q2) Which classification of medications is not used in the treatment of hyperlipidemia?
A)Diuretics
B)Bile acid sequestrants
C)Fibrates
D)Statins
Q3) One annoying side effect of some niacin formulations is:
A)Cramping
B)Diarrhea
C)Flushing
D)Excessive urination
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Chapter 19: Therapeutic Agents for the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications is not available OTC?
A)Allegra
B)Benadryl
C)Clarinex
D)Mucinex
Q2) Treatment for Mycobacterium tuberculosis:
A)Is bacteriostatic.
B)Often lasts for months.
C)Is accomplished by a single medication.
D)A and C are characteristics of the treatment for M.tuberculosis.
Q3) Influenza can be fatal to:
A)Older adults
B)Infants
C)Those with weakened immune systems
D)All of the above
Q4) Atrovent is classified as a(n):
A)Inhaled corticosteroid
B)Inhaled anticholinergic
C)Short-acting beta-agonist
D)Long-acting beta-agonist
21
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Chapter 20: Therapeutic Agents for the Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Peristalsis occurs in the:
A)Esophagus alone
B)Esophagus and stomach
C)Stomach and small intestines
D)Esophagus, stomach, and intestines
Q2) Bulk-forming agents are used for:
A)Constipation
B)Nausea
C)Diarrhea
D)A and C
Q3) The organs most involved in the absorption of nutrients are:
A)Mouth and salivary glands
B)Stomach and small intestines
C)Large intestine
D)Anus
Q4) Which of the following is an antidiarrheal medication?
A)Cephulac
B)Lomotil
C)Antivert
D)Colace
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Chapter 21: Therapeutic Agents for the Renal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following treatments for an overactive bladder (OAB) is available in an OTC patch?
A)oxybutynin
B)tolterodine
C)trospium chloride
D)darifenacin
Q2) A nosocomial infection is a(an):
A)Sinus infection
B)UTI
C)Upper respiratory infection (URI)
D)Infection contracted in a hospital or health care facility
Q3) Thiazide diuretics are used in the treatment of:
A)Edema associated with congestive heart failure (CHF)
B)Hypertension
C)Prevention of calcium kidney stones
D)All of the above
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Chapter 22: Therapeutic Agents for the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following protect(s) the partners from all forms of STDs?
A)Oral birth control pills
B)Contraceptive gels
C)Gardasil vaccination
D)None of the above
Q2) Which of the following alpha-blocker(s) target(s) prostate tissue and is(are) not used for hypertension?
A)Flomax
B)Hytrin
C)Cardura
D)A and B
Q3) What is the major drug interaction between phosphodiesterase inhibitors such as sildenafil (Viagra) and nitrates?
A)Severe hypertension
B)Severe hypotension
C)Viagra may not work
D)Chest pain
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Therapeutic Agents for the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organ produces lymphocytes and gradually shrinks as a person ages?
A)Thymus
B)Tonsils
C)Spleen
D)Pancreas
Q2) A major side effect with immunosuppressive therapy is:
A)Nausea and vomiting
B)Increased risk of infection
C)Cough
D)B and C
Q3) Which of the following would not be considered an antigen?
A)Virus
B)Foreign substance that causes a disease
C)Foreign substance that causes no reaction
D)Foreign substance that causes an allergy
Q4) Belimumab (Benlysta) for SLE is available:
A)Orally
B)Topically
C)Intravenously (IV)
D)All of the above
25
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Chapter 24: Therapeutic Agents for the Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat
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Sample Questions
Q1) General considerations regarding ophthalmic antibiotics include:
A)Maintaining sterility
B)Not using them with contacts in the eyes
C)Shaking them well
D)A and B
Q2) Which of the following products is a prescription indicated for the treatment of severe dry eyes?
A)Artificial tears
B)cyclosporine (Restasis)
C)bimatoprost (Lumigan)
D)timolol (Timoptic)
Q3) What is GERD?
A)Gastric exertion reflux disease
B)Gastric esophagus reflux disorder
C)Gastroesophageal reflux disease
D)Gastroesophageal regurgitation disease
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Chapter 25: Therapeutic Agents for the Dermatologic System
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Q1) OTC treatments for Tinea pedis are available in:
A)Creams
B)Powders
C)Sprays
D)All of the above
Q2) Adalimumab, golimumab, and ustekinumab for psoriasis are all administered:
A)Orally
B)Topically
C)Subcutaneously
D)Intramuscularly
Q3) Which one of the following statements is not true concerning shingles?
A)Shingles is caused by the same virus that causes chickenpox.
B)Shingles is not painful.
C)A vaccine is available.
D)Antiviral medications may be used to reduce pain and to promote healing.
Q4) Which one of the following statements is not true regarding impetigo?
A)Impetigo can be caused by streptococcal organisms or Staphylococcus aureus.
B)It is highly contagious.
C)Once a person has impetigo, they are immune to getting it again.
D)Impetigo is treated with topical or oral antibiotics.
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Chapter 26: Therapeutic Agents for the Hematologic System
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Q1) Desmopressin (DDAVP) is available in all of the following dosage forms except:
A)IV and subcutaneous
B)Topical
C)Intranasal
D)Oral
Q2) The generic name for Feosol is:
A)Iron polysaccharide
B)Ferrous sulfate
C)Ferrous gluconate
D)Ferrous fumarate
Q3) The treatment for polycythemia vera can include:
A)Phlebotomy
B)Hydroxyurea
C)Erythropoietin
D)A and B
Q4) Which one of the following generics is not an antibiotic used in chemotherapy?
A)Bleomycin
B)Cyclophosphamide
C)Mitomycin
D)Daunorubicin
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Chapter 27: Over-The Counter OTC Medications
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Q1) Which of the following OTC products can be used for constipation or diarrhea?
A)Docusate sodium
B)Psyllium
C)Bisacodyl
D)Senna
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true regarding OTC sleep aids?
A)Many sleep aids contain antihistamines.
B)Sleep aids cause drowsiness.
C)Many contain acetaminophen.
D)Sleep aids are approved for chronic insomnia.
Q3) Which condition cannot be treated with an OTC medication?
A)Headache
B)Muscle aches
C)High blood pressure
D)Arthritis
Q4) What concern do pharmacists have about OTC drug use?
A)The OTC treatment may mask a more serious health issue.
B)The use of OTC medications will put pharmacists out of business.
C)Multiple OTC medications contain the same generic ingredients.
D)Both A and C are concerns.
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Chapter 28: Complementary and Alternative Medicine
Cam
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Q1) Most externally applied herbal preparations are used to treat:
A)Bruises, burns, and other skin irritations
B)Sore muscles and cramps
C)Headaches
D)Both A and B
Q2) The method of manipulative and body-based CAM practice that focuses on helping patients alter involuntary body functions such as heartbeat is:
A)Ayurveda
B)Biofeedback
C)Homeopathy
D)Traditional Chinese medicine
Q3) A CAM approach that might include dream evaluation and questions about taste and smells is:
A)Traditional Chinese medicine
B)Homeopathy
C)Ayurveda
D)Biofeedback
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Page 30