Pharmacy Operations Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Pharmacy Operations is a comprehensive course that explores the fundamental concepts, practices, and regulations involved in the daily management of a pharmacy. Students will learn about inventory control, workflow optimization, prescription processing, medication safety, pharmacy law, and the use of technology in supporting efficient operations. The course covers the roles and responsibilities of pharmacy personnel, customer service in pharmacy settings, billing and reimbursement procedures, and quality assurance processes. Emphasis is placed on real-world problem solving, regulatory compliance, and the integration of ethical standards to ensure effective and safe pharmacy practice.
Recommended Textbook
Mosbys Pharmacy Technician Principles and Practice 4th Edition by Elsevier
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28 Chapters
895 Verified Questions
895 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: History of Medicine and Pharmacy
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ancient treatment process of cutting a hole in the skull to allow evil spirits that were thought to cause disease a way to exit the body was called:
A)Blood letting
B)Trephining
C)Leaching
D)Venesection
Answer: B
Q2) The effects associated with opioid receptors include all of the following except:
A)Analgesia
B)Respiratory depression
C)Increased gastrointestinal motility
D)Euphoria
Answer: C
Q3) Who is considered the "Father of Medicine?"
A)Hercules
B)Hippocrates
C)Asclepius
D)Aristotle
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Pharmacy Law, Ethics, and Regulatory Agencies
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purchase of pseudoephedrine is limited to:
A)3.6 g per calendar day
B)9 g per 30 days from a retailer
C)7.5 g per 30 days by mail order
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following involved the setup of the five-level schedule of controlled substances?
A)1951 Durham-Humphrey Amendment
B)1962 Kefauver-Harris Amendments
C)1970 Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act
D)1972 Drug Listing Act
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following statements is not true regarding a boxed warning?
A)A boxed warning is encased in a black border in the manufacturer's insert.
B)It is required on any medication or product that carries a high risk potential to the consumer.
C)A boxed warning is required on all medication package inserts.
D)It is sometimes referred to as a "black box warning."
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Competencies, Associations, and Settings for Technicians
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30 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A stat dose needs to be delivered within ____ minutes.
A)5
B)10
C)15
D)20
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following organizations was founded in 1999 by technicians for technicians?
A)National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP)
B)American Pharmacists Association (APhA)
C)American Association of Pharmacy Technicians (AAPT)
D)National Pharmacy Technician Association (NPTA)
Answer: D
Q3) State Boards of Pharmacy (BOPs) are overseen by which organization?
A)American Pharmacists Association (APhA)
B)American Society of Health-System Pharmacists (ASHP)
C)National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP)
D)Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB)
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Communication and Role of the Technician
With the Customerpatient
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Sample Questions
Q1) When answering a telephone call, the technician should:
A)Identify his or her name and title.
B)Carefully listen to the caller.
C)Decide whether to forward the call to a pharmacist.
D)All of the above should be performed.
Q2) Communication channels include:
A)Written messages
B)Spoken words
C)Body language
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following negatively impacts written communication?
A)Illegible handwriting
B)Grammatical errors
C)Typographical errors
D)All of the above
Q4) How can pharmacies deal with non-English-speaking customers?
A)Employ bilingual staff members
B)Use translating software programs
C)Use pictograms
D)All of the above
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Chapter 5: Dosage Forms and Routes of Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dosage forms appropriate for children include:
A)Liquids
B)Spansules
C)Chewable tablets
D)All of the above
Q2) HFA:
A)Is the abbreviation for hydrofluoroalkane.
B)Replaced chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in inhalers in 2009.
C)Is more expensive than CFC.
D)All of the above statements are true.
Q3) What needs to be done to substitute one dosage form for another on a prescription?
A)Nothing needs to be done as long as the technician can figure the exact dose.
B)The technician needs to check with the physician.
C)Nothing needs to be done as long as the technician is changing only to a different solid dosage form.
D)The pharmacist must call and get permission from the prescriber.
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7
Chapter 6: Conversions and Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many capsules are needed to fill the following prescription: amoxicillin (Amoxil) 250 mg po qid ´ 10 d? (Amoxil is available in 250 mg capsules.)
A)20
B)40
C)60
D)80
Q2) One fluid ounce is equivalent to _____ milliliters. A)5
B)10
C)15
D)30
Q3) What is 12:30 AM in military time?
A)1200
B)0000
C)1230
D)0030
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Drug Information References
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reference book to use when looking for average and wholesale drug costs and prices is:
A)Orange Book
B)PDR
C)Red Book Drug Topics
D)USP-NF
Q2) The primary condition for which a medication is used is called the:
A)Purpose
B)Classification
C)Indication
D)Use
Q3) Which of the following trade names is related to the indication of the medication?
A)Lasix
B)Tylenol
C)Restoril
D)Benadryl
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Community Pharmacy Practice
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34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a sole proprietorship is a(n):
A)Locally owned independent pharmacy
B)Wal-Mart pharmacy
C)Walgreens pharmacy
D)Inpatient pharmacy
Q2) Which of the following tasks can a pharmacy technician not legally do?
A)Accept a written prescription.
B)Accept payment for a prescription.
C)Counsel a patient.
D)Gather information for a patient profile.
Q3) If nothing is indicated on the prescription for refills, then the technician should:
A)Check with the prescriber to see how many refills he or she wants.
B)Tell the pharmacist.
C)Enter the abbreviation, prn, (Latin, pro re nata) meaning as needed for refills.
D)Enter zero refills.
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Chapter 9: Institutional Pharmacy Practice
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33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following criteria is(are) used to distinguish between types of hospitals?
A)Size
B)Profit or nonprofit
C)Types of services provided
D)All of the above
Q2) USP <797> regulations state that compounding should take place within an ______ or better clean room.
A)International Standards Organization (ISO) Class 1
B)ISO Class 2
C)ISO Class 8
D)ISO Class 9
Q3) Which of the following is considered to be a closed system?
A)Horizontal flow hood
B)Vertical flow hood
C)Glove box
D)Biological safety cabinet (BSC)
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Chapter 10: Additional Pharmacy Practice Settings
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pharmacy benefit management (PBM) companies hire pharmacy technicians to:
A)Process claims for members according to their benefits.
B)Provide benefit information to patients.
C)Prepare mail-order prescriptions.
D)Perform all of the above tasks.
Q2) Which of the following universities offer nuclear pharmacy training for technicians?
A)University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences
B)Purdue University
C)Ohio State University
D)All of the above
Q3) The specific class of drugs used in a nuclear pharmacy is known as:
A)Nuclear medicines
B)Radiopharmaceuticals
C)Radiotherapies
D)Radioactive medicines
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Chapter 11: Bulk Repackaging and Non-Sterile
Compounding
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32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When combining two or more ingredients that have different melting points, the ingredients are:
A)Placed in a container and melted together.
B)Melted from the lowest to the highest melting point.
C)Melted from the highest to the lowest melting point.
D)Mixed; the order of mixing is not important.
Q2) Which of the following ingredients is(are) considered hydrophobic?
A)Ointment
B)Cream
C)Oleaginous base
D)A and B
Q3) GMP means:
A)Good mixing process
B)Good manufacturing process
C)Good manufacturing procedure
D)Good manufacturing practice
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13
Chapter 12: Aseptic Technique and Sterile Compounding
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A room that has a lower pressure than surrounding rooms is called a ___________ pressure room.
A)Reverse
B)Negative
C)Positive
D)Forward
Q2) Work in a horizontal flow hood should be performed at least _____ inches inside the hood.
A)4
B)6
C)8
D)10
Q3) Pharmacies that prepare compounded sterile preparations must research, create, and document their standard operating procedures (SOPs) for ______ regulations.
A)USP <797>
B)USP <795>
C)ASHP
D)The Joint Commission (TJC)
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Pharmacy Billing and Inventory Management
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following insurance plans requires a PCP?
A)HMO
B)PPO
C)Medicaid
D)All of the above
Q2) Medicare Part D specifically covers:
A)Prescription medications
B)Surgery
C)Physicians' visits
D)Physical therapy
Q3) What is meant by a back-ordered item?
A)The item is automatically replaced by the wholesaler on a weekly basis.
B)The item must be reordered since it did not arrive with the order.
C)The ordered item is not currently in stock but will be sent as soon as it is available.
D)The item has been discontinued.
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15
Chapter 14: Medication Safety and Error Prevention
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is not a high-alert IV medication according the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)?
A)Insulin
B)Heparin
C)Potassium chloride (KCl)
D)Penicillin
Q2) Warfarin (Coumadin) administered to prevent blood clotting can interact with:
A)Aspirin
B)Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
C)Acetaminophen
D)A and B
Q3) Changes in labeling that drug companies are incorporating to reduce errors include:
A)Tall-man lettering
B)Color coding
C)Boldface lettering
D)All of the above
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Chapter 15: Therapeutic Agents for the Nervous System
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Agents that activate the PSNS are called:
A)Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
B)Parasympathomimetic agents
C)Anticholinergic medications
D)A and B
Q2) Which of the following is(are) true statements?
A)The brainstem connects the brain and spinal cord.
B)The brainstem consists of the midbrain, pons, and medulla.
C)The brainstem is part of the PNS.
D)Both A and B are true statements.
Q3) Parkinson disease (PD) is characterized by a deficiency of which of the following transmitters?
A)Epinephrine
B)Norepinephrine
C)Dopamine
D)Serotonin
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Chapter 16: Therapeutic Agents for the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true of Graves disease except:
A)Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder.
B)Common symptoms of Graves disease are goiter and exophthalmos.
C)Although rare, Graves disease is more common in women than men.
D)Graves disease can be treated with thyroid hormone replacement therapy.
Q2) Catecholamines produced in adrenal glands:
A)Help the body respond to stress.
B)Increase the heart rate.
C)Include epinephrine and norepinephrine.
D)Perform all of the above.
Q3) The catecholamines norepinephrine and epinephrine are secreted by and stored in the:
A)Pituitary gland
B)Adrenal medulla
C)Parathyroid gland
D)Pancreas
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Chapter 17: Therapeutic Agents for the Musculoskeletal System
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications is a combination product that includes acetaminophen?
A)Ultram
B)Percocet
C)Robaxin
D)Dilaudid
Q2) What organ is affected by an overdose of acetaminophen?
A)Kidney
B)Liver
C)Heart
D)Bladder
Q3) Which medication do many people take for the prophylaxis (prevention) of heart attacks and strokes?
A)Aspirin
B)Acetaminophen
C)Ibuprofen
D)Calcium
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Therapeutic Agents for the Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Angina (chest pain) is caused by:
A)Lack of blood flow to the brain
B)Lack of blood flow to the coronary muscle
C)Low iron levels
D)A and B
Q2) Which formulation of NTG would not be appropriate for the treatment of an acute angina attack?
A)Translingual spray
B)Sublingual tablets
C)Transdermal patch
D)Solution for injection
Q3) One benefit of selective beta-1 blockers over nonselective beta-blockers is:
A)Selective beta-1 blockers decrease blood pressure.
B)Selective beta-1 blockers constrict the bronchi.
C)Selective beta-1 blockers can be used with patients with asthma.
D)Both B and C are benefits of selective beta-1 blockers.
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20
Chapter 19: Therapeutic Agents for the Respiratory System
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications is not available OTC?
A)Allegra
B)Benadryl
C)Clarinex
D)Mucinex
Q2) MDI stands for:
A)Multiple-drug inclusion
B)Many dosage increments
C)Metered-dose inhaler
D)Multidose inhaler
Q3) Asthma:
A)Is a form of obstructive lung disease.
B)Symptoms include dyspnea, coughing, and wheezing.
C)Involves a narrowing of the airways.
D)All of the above apply.
Q4) Which of the following is(are) the function(s) of the lungs?
A)External oxygen extraction
B)Delivery of oxygen to the extremities
C)Removal of carbon dioxide
D)A and C
21
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Chapter 20: Therapeutic Agents for the Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adalimumab (Humira) for the treatment of Crohn disease is a(an):
A)Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a) inhibitor
B)Alpha-4 integrin antagonist
C)5-Aminosalicylate
D)Antispasmodic medication
Q2) Which ingredient helps control flatulence?
A)Aluminum hydroxide
B)Bismuth subsalicylate
C)Psyllium
D)Simethicone
Q3) The gallbladder releases:
A)Insulin to reduce glucose levels
B)Bile to aid in the dispersion of fats
C)Glycogen to increase glucose levels
D)None of the above
Q4) Lotronex is only indicated for use in:
A)Women
B)Long-term diarrhea as a result of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
C)Short-term relief of acute diarrhea
D)A and B
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Chapter 21: Therapeutic Agents for the Renal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The kidneys are involved in the synthesis of all of the following except:
A)Renin
B)Erythropoietin
C)Vitamin D
D)Vitamin K
Q2) All of the following are potassium-sparing diuretics except:
A)spironolactone (Aldactone)
B)triamterene (Dyrenium)
C)amiloride (Midamor)
D)furosemide (Lasix)
Q3) Which of the following is not a cause of kidney stones?
A)Genetic predisposition
B)Gout
C)Excessive dietary intake of calcium
D)Hyperparathyroidism
Q4) Hyperphosphatemia, a major issue with renal failure, can be treated with:
A)calcium acetate (PhosLo)
B)sevelamer (Renagel)
C)Tums
D)All of the above
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Chapter 22: Therapeutic Agents for the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for a medication that only treats the symptoms but not the cause of a disease?
A)Nosocomial
B)Palliative
C)Placebo
D)Symptomatic
Q2) Which of the following is(are) the primary oral estrogen products in use?
A)Conjugated estrogens
B)Estradiol
C)Esterified estrogens
D)A and B
Q3) Which of the following medications should not be handled by a pregnant woman?
A)Yaz
B)Avodart
C)Flomax
D)Hytrin
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Chapter 23: Therapeutic Agents for the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many diseases that were previously responsible for illnesses and deaths are now rare because:
A)Immunizations have widespread use.
B)Humans have naturally developed antibodies.
C)Better sanitation practices exist worldwide today.
D)More people visit physicians.
Q2) Hematopoiesis is:
A)Blood cell production
B)Blood cell destruction
C)Ratio of white-to-red blood cells
D)Disease of the blood cells
Q3) If a person steps on a rusty nail and has not had a booster in 10 years, then he or she should get a:
A)Tetanus toxoid
B)Diphtheria-pertussis-tetanus (DPT) vaccination
C)Tetanus antitoxin
D)Tetanus booster
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25
Chapter 24: Therapeutic Agents for the Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is not true regarding GERD?
A)Treatment includes avoiding certain foods.
B)Medication treatment includes the use of antacids.
C)Medication treatment includes proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) and histamine 2 (H )-antagonists.
D)Medications are available by prescription only.
Q2) The tympanic membrane is also known as the:
A)Cornea
B)Cochlear membrane
C)Retina
D)Eardrum
Q3) What is tinnitus?
A)Inflammation of the inner ear
B)Inflammation of the eye
C)Ringing or buzzing in the ears
D)Buildup of earwax
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Chapter 25: Therapeutic Agents for the Dermatologic System
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Q1) Adalimumab, golimumab, and ustekinumab for psoriasis are all administered:
A)Orally
B)Topically
C)Subcutaneously
D)Intramuscularly
Q2) Which of the following agents require participation in the iPLEDGE program?
A)Retin-A
B)Sotret
C)Renova
D)A and B
Q3) The epidermis:
A)Contains nerves, glands, and blood vessels.
B)Consists of two layers.
C)Contains melanin.
D)Contains fat cells.
Q4) Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) topical is used for:
A)Acne
B)Burns
C)Chickenpox
D)Shingles
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Chapter 26: Therapeutic Agents for the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The generic name for Feosol is:
A)Iron polysaccharide
B)Ferrous sulfate
C)Ferrous gluconate
D)Ferrous fumarate
Q2) Side effects of iron therapy may include:
A)Nausea and vomiting
B)Constipation
C)Dark stools
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following statements is(are) true of filgrastim (Neupogen)?
A)Filgrastim is administered orally.
B)It should not be shaken before administering.
C)Filgrastim is used to treat neutropenia.
D)B and C are true statements.
Q4) Stage _____ of cancer is the most advanced form.
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
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Chapter 27: Over-The Counter OTC Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions cannot be treated with OTC products?
A)Scratchy, dry throat
B)Congested cough
C)Dry cough
D)Streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat)
Q2) What is the most common ingredient in OTC acne preparations?
A)Miconazole
B)Tolnaftate
C)Benzoyl peroxide
D)Hydrocortisone
Q3) Symptoms such as itching, hives, sneezing, and itchy and runny eyes should be treated with a(n):
A)Antihistamine
B)Decongestant
C)Combination antihistamine and decongestant
D)Analgesic
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Chapter 28: Complementary and Alternative Medicine
Cam
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Q1) Which of the following statements is(are) not true of herbs and herbal supplements?
A)Herbs and herbal supplements are considered dietary supplements.
B)They are subjected to different U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulations than drugs.
C)They are natural and therefore not harmful.
D)All of the above statements are true.
Q2) Cranberry is used for:
A)Diabetes
B)Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
C)Treatment or prevention of urinary tract infections (UTIs)
D)Treatment of respiratory tract infections
Q3) The method of manipulative and body-based CAM practice that focuses on helping patients alter involuntary body functions such as heartbeat is:
A)Ayurveda
B)Biofeedback
C)Homeopathy
D)Traditional Chinese medicine
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