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Pharmacy in Rehabilitation explores the critical role pharmacists play in supporting patients recovering from injury, surgery, or chronic illness within rehabilitative settings. The course covers medication management principles tailored for rehabilitation populations, including pain management, neurological and musculoskeletal conditions, and medication-related challenges such as polypharmacy and adverse drug interactions. Students will learn strategies for collaborating with multidisciplinary healthcare teams to optimize therapy, improve patient outcomes, and ensure safe medication use during the rehabilitation process. Emphasis is placed on patient education, adherence, and the development of individualized pharmacotherapy plans for diverse rehabilitation scenarios.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology in Rehabilitation 5th Edition by Charles D. Ciccone
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37 Chapters
343 Verified Questions
343 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1007 Page 2
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19949
Sample Questions
Q1) When two drugs are compared,the drug that requires a lower dosage to produce the same effect as a higher dose of the second drug is said to
A) be more potent
B) be impotent
C) have a great maximal efficacy
D) have a greater therapeutic index
E) be pharmacosuperior
Answer: A
Q2) During drug testing and approval,the drug is usually tested in a relatively small sample (200 to 300 people)with a specific disease or pathologic condition during A) preclinical trials
B) phase 1 clinical trials
C) phase 2 clinical trials
D) postmarketing surveillance
Answer: C
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19950
Sample Questions
Q1) The extent to which a drug reaches the systemic circulation is referred to as A) bioequivalence
B) biotransformation
C) bioavailability
D) biodistribution
E) last pass metabolism
Answer: C
Q2) The ______ effect occurs when drugs are transported initially to the liver where a significant amount of the drug may be metabolized and destroyed before the drug reaches its primary site of action.
A) malabsorptive
B) first pass
C) Bohr
D) bioequivalence
E) pharmacodynamic
Answer: B
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19951
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs and their metabolites are excreted from the body primarily by
A) the liver
B) the kidneys
C) the lungs
D) skeletal muscle
E) adipose tissue
Answer: B
Q2) Drug metabolism by the liver and other organs typically creates a more ____ compound,thus enabling the compound to be ____ when it reaches the nephrons in the kidney.
A) polar; excreted
B) neutral; excreted
C) polar; reabsorbed
D) neutral; reabsorbed
E) none of the above; metabolism does not affect the polarity of drug byproducts
Answer: A
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11 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19952
Sample Questions
Q1) In contrast to an agonist,a pharmacologic antagonist
A) has affinity for the receptor, but lacks efficacy
B) is also known as a "blocker"
C) can be used prevent endogenous chemicals from overstimulating the receptor
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) A noncompetitive antagonist
A) has a more or less equal opportunity to occupy the receptor as the agonist
B) forms rather weak bonds with the receptor
C) produces inhibition that can be overcome by administering high concentrations of the agonist
D) all of the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q3) A drug that fails to evoke a maximal response even though it occupies all available receptors is known as
A) a competitive antagonist
B) a noncompetitive antagonist
C) a partial agonist
D) a competitive agonist
E) an inverse antagonist
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19953
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs can alter CNS neurotransmission by affecting neurotransmitter
A) synthesis in the presynaptic terminal
B) release from the presynaptic terminal
C) degradation or breakdown at the synapse
D) reuptake into the presynaptic terminal
E) all the above are true
Q2) Drugs that must cross the blood brain barrier and enter the brain to exert therapeutic effects will be clinically useful if
A) they are lipophilic
B) they are hydrophilic but are able to enter the brain by active transport or facilitated diffusion
C) they are not subject to active transport enzymes (efflux pumps) that move the drug out of the brain and back into the systemic circulation
D) all the above
E) none of the above
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19954
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs used to relax the patient and promote sleep are classified as A) sedative-hypnotics
B) antidepressants
C) antipsychotics
D) neuroleptics
E) antidyskinetics
Q2) Problems such as a "hang-over" effect and other residual symptoms that occur the morning after a person takes a sedative-hypnotic can often be resolved by A) lowering the dose of the sedative-hypnotic
B) switching to a drug that has a shorter half-life
C) switching to one of the newer agents (zolpidem, zalepon) that tend to have milder residual effects
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19955
Sample Questions
Q1) According to the neurogenesis basis for depression,antidepressant drugs may increase the CNS production of ____,thereby leading to increased synaptic connections in the _____.
A) dopamine; basal ganglia
B) dopamine; hippocampus
C) brain-derived neurotrophic factor; basal ganglia
D) brain-derived neurotrophic factor; hippocampus
E) acetylcholine; cerebellum
Q2) Tricyclic antidepressants work by ______ the reuptake of ______ into the presynaptic terminal of certain CNS neurons.
A) increasing; amine neurotransmitters
B) inhibiting; amine neurotransmitters
C) increasing; amino acids
D) inhibiting; amino acids
E) increasing; acetylcholine
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9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Newer or "atypical" antipsychotics are often preferred because
A) they bind more effectively to dopamine receptors in the basal ganglia
B) they offer a greater chance of curing schizophrenia
C) they are less expensive than traditional agents
D) they have a reduced risk of causing motor side effects
E) they are available without prescription
Q2) Patients taking relatively high doses of the more potent antipsychotics may experience catatonia,stupor,rigidity,tremors,and fever.These symptoms comprise a serious disorder known as
A) Horner's syndrome
B) Brown-Sequard syndrome
C) Charcot's syndrome
D) neuroleptic malignant syndrome
E) general adaptation syndrome
Q3) Antipsychotics are often used in Alzheimer disease and other cases of dementia
A) to improve cognition and memory
B) to improve balance
C) to help control aggression and agitation
D) to increase vomiting and diarrhea
E) none of the above
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19957
Sample Questions
Q1) Antiseizure drugs attempt to control neuronal activity via all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT
A) decreasing the effects of excitatory amino acids (glutamate, aspartate)
B) increasing the excitatory effects of acetylcholine in the CNS
C) decreasing sodium entry into rapidly firing neurons
D) increasing the inhibitory effects of gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)
E) decreasing the excitatory effects of calcium ions in the CNS
Q2) Newer or "second-generation" antiseizure drugs are helpful in treating certain patients because
A) newer agents generally have milder side effects than traditional antiseizure drugs
B) newer agents have favorable pharmacokinetic characteristics (absorption, distribution, metabolism, and so forth)
C) newer agents can be combined with a traditional antiseizure drug to provide adequate seizure control in patients who did not respond to a single traditional antiseizure agent
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19958
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs such as selegiline (Eldepryl)and rasagiline (Azilect)that inhibit the monoamine oxidase type B (MAOB)enzyme may be helpful in Parkinson disease because
A) they increase dopamine absorption from the GI tract
B) they increase the conversion of levodopa to dopamine in the bloodstream
C) they decrease the movement of levodopa across the blood-brain barrier
D) they decrease the breakdown of dopamine in the brain
E) they increase the breakdown of acetylcholine in the brain
Q2) Oral administration of dopamine is NOT effective in the treatment of Parkinson disease because dopamine is
A) degraded into L-DOPA in the blood stream
B) digested in the stomach
C) unable to pass from the blood stream into the brain
D) degraded by dopa decarboxylase in the blood stream
E) none of the above
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8 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ideally,a general anesthetic should produce all of the following properties EXCEPT
A) loss of consciousness and sensation
B) amnesia (i.e., no recollection of what occurred during the surgery)
C) slow onset of anesthesia
D) inhibition of sensory and autonomic reflexes
E) a minimum of toxic side effects (i.e., be relatively safe)
Q2) When injected intravenously,general anesthetics offer the advantage of _______,but have a primary disadvantage of _____.
A) rapid onset of anesthesia; a relative lack of control over the level of anesthesia
B) rapid onset of anesthesia; excessive first pass metabolism
C) relatively good control over the level of anesthesia; rapid onset of anesthesia
D) relatively good control over the level of anesthesia; excessive first pass metabolism
E) relatively good control over the level of anesthesia; slow onset of anesthesia
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19960
Sample Questions
Q1) Intravenous regional anesthesia (Bier block)is achieved by
A) injecting a local anesthetic into a peripheral vein located in a selected limb
B) injecting a general anesthetic into a peripheral vein located in a selected limb
C) injecting a local anesthetic into the superior vena cava
D) injecting a local anesthetic into the inferior vena cava
Q2) Local anesthetics can be administered via all of the following routes EXCEPT
A) transdermally
B) subcutaneous infiltration
C) direct injection into the epidural space
D) direct injection into the third ventricle of the brain
E) direct injection into the subarachnoid space
Q3) Local anesthetics inhibit action potential propagation along neuronal axons by blocking the opening of ________ channels.
A) potassium
B) sodium
C) chloride
D) calcium
E) magnesium
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19961
Sample Questions
Q1) Long term use of diazepam (Valium)as a muscle relaxant is often limited due to problems with
A) sedation
B) tolerance
C) physical dependence
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Tizanidine (Zanaflex)may help reduce spasticity in some patients by ______ receptors in the spinal cord.
A) stimulating alpha-1
B) inhibiting alpha-1
C) stimulating alpha-2
D) inhibiting alpha-2
E) stimulating GABA
Q3) Botulinum toxin is used to treat spasticity by injecting this drug
A) intravenously
B) intrathecally
C) subcutaneously
D) directly into the spastic muscle
E) none of the above are true; botulinum toxin is not used to treat spasticity
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15 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19962
Sample Questions
Q1) By blocking all opioid receptors,opioid antagonists such as nalmefene and naloxone are used primarily to
A) treat severe, acute postoperative pain
B) treat severe chronic pain
C) treat opioid overdose
D) treat diarrhea
E) opioid antagonists have no therapeutic value
Q2) The source of the naturally occurring opioid (narcotic)analgesics is
A) the foxglove plant
B) the opium poppy
C) St Johns wort
D) leaves from the gingko tree
E) opioid analgesics cannot be derived from natural sources
Q3) When used to treat pain,opioids can be administered by all of the following routes EXCEPT
A) inhalation
B) intravenously
C) intrathecally
D) transdermally
E) orally
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19963
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common problem associated with NSAIDs such as aspirin is
A) fever
B) dizziness
C) gastrointestinal damage
D) sedation
E) suppression of adrenal cortex activity
Q2) NSAIDs exert their therapeutic effects by _____ the ______ enzyme.
A) inhibiting; cyclooxygenase
B) stimulating; cyclooxygenase
C) inhibiting; acetylcholinesterase
D) stimulating; acetylcholinesterase
E) inhibiting; monoamine oxidase type A
Q3) In addition to its analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects,it appears that regular use of low-dose aspirin may also help prevent
A) heart attacks
B) ischemic strokes
C) colorectal cancer
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19964
Sample Questions
Q1) Because they may supply key ingredients needed for the production of articular cartilage and synovial fluid,dietary supplements such as _________ are used by some patients with osteoarthritis.
A) aspirin and acetaminophen
B) prednisone and methylprednisone
C) chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine
D) ibuprofen and ketoprofen
E) glucosamine and chondroitin
Q2) All of the following drugs are considered "disease-modifying" antirheumatic drugs EXCEPT
A) NSAIDs such as aspirin
B) gold compounds such as auranofin (Ridaura),
C) tumor necrosis factor-alpha inhibitors such as etanercept (Enbrel)
D) antimalarials such as chloroquine (Aralen)
E) methotrexate
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19965
Sample Questions
Q1) When opioids (e.g.,morphine,meperidine)are administered via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA),a low dose of ____ can be administered along with the opioid to reduce the amount of opioid needed to produce an adequate analgesic effect.
A) an NSAID such as toradol
B) a general anesthetic such as ketamine
C) an antipsychotic such as droperidol
D) an opioid receptor antagonist (blocker) such as naloxone
E) all the above
Q2) The use of a single large dose of pain medication to establish analgesia prior to patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)is known as
A) the loading dose
B) the demand dose
C) the background infusion rate
D) the postoperative sedative
E) none of the above are true
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5 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19966
Sample Questions
Q1) A drug that inhibits muscarinic cholinergic receptors will selectively
A) increase sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
B) decrease sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
C) increase parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
D) decrease parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
E) increase responses in all tissues innervated by the autonomic nervous system
Q2) In most peripheral tissues,sympathetic postganglionic neurons release ____ that binds directly to ____ receptors.
A) epinephrine; adrenergic
B) epinephrine; cholinergic
C) norepinephrine; adrenergic
D) norepinephrine; cholinergic
E) acetylcholine; adrenergic
Q3) Alpha and beta receptors are the two primary subcategories of
A) muscarinic cholinergic receptors
B) nicotinic cholinergic receptors
C) dopamine receptors
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) adrenergic
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19967
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Q1) Indirect-acting cholinergic stimulants increase activity at cholinergic synapses by inhibiting the _______ enzyme
A) monoamine oxidase type A
B) monoamine oxidase type B
C) acetylcholinesterase
D) choline acetyltransferase
E) dopa decarboxylase
Q2) Cholinergic antagonists can be useful in the treatment of the following conditions EXCEPT
A) motion sickness
B) irritable bowel syndrome
C) overactive urinary bladder
D) tachycardia
E) Parkinson disease
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Q1) A drug that selectively stimulates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors will cause
A) vasoconstriction of peripheral arterioles
B) increased heart rate
C) decreased blood pressure
D) bronchodilation
Q2) Stimulation of alpha-2 adrenergic receptors on spinal interneurons typically results in a _______ in excitability of ______ supplied by these interneurons.
A) increase; motor neurons
B) decrease; motor neurons
C) increase; sensory
D) decrease; sensory
E) alpha-2 receptors are not located in the spinal cord
Q3) Adrenergic antagonists that are selective for the beta-1 subtype (i.e.,beta-1 blockers)can be useful in the treatment of
A) high blood pressure
B) heart failure
C) certain cardiac arrhythmias
D) recovery from myocardial infarction
E) all the above are true
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19969
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Q1) Patients who overdose on diuretics
A) may become hyponatremic
B) may become hypokalemic
C) may lose too much fluid from the vascular system
D) all the above are true
Q2) Beta blockers are so named because they block the effects of _______ on the heart.
A) epinephrine
B) norepinephrine
C) acetylcholine
D) all the above are true
E) A and B only are true
Q3) Presynaptic adrenergic inhibitors such as reserpine decrease activity at peripheral arterioles by impairing the release of
A) epinephrine
B) norepinephrine
C) acetylcholine
D) dopamine
E) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
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Sample Questions
Q1) Beta blockers help prevent angina pectoris in certain patients because these drugs
A) decrease myocardial oxygen demand
B) increase myocardial oxygen supply
C) decrease oxygen demand in peripheral tissues (skeletal muscle)
D) increase cardiac output
E) decrease blood flow to the heart
Q2) Nitrates such as nitroglycerin exert their primary beneficial effects in people with angina pectoris because these drugs ______ myocardial oxygen demand by vasodilating the ______.
A) decrease; coronary arteries
B) increase; coronary arteries
C) decrease; peripheral vasculature
D) increase; peripheral vasculature
E) decrease; cerebral vasculature
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Q1) Beta blockers are effective in treating certain cardiac arrhythmias because they _____ the excitatory effects of ______ on the heart
A) increase; acetylcholine
B) decrease; acetylcholine
C) increase; catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)
D) decrease; catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)
E) increase; beta interferons
Q2) An antiarrhythmic drug used to treat bradycardia inadvertently creates tachycardia.The most likely reason is that this drug causes _____ of the ______.
A) inhibition; sinoatrial node
B) excitation; sinoatrial node
C) inhibition; bundle of His
D) excitation; bundle of His E) inhibition; atrioventricular node
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Q1) Digitalis and the other cardiac glycosides increase the mechanical pumping ability of the heart by bringing about an increase in _________ concentration.
A) extracellular potassium
B) intracellular potassium
C) extracellular calcium
D) intracellular calcium
E) extracellular sodium
Q2) Angiotensin enzyme (ACE)inhibitors are often essential in treating heart failure because ACE inhibitors
A) stimulate renin production from the kidneys
B) increase heart rate
C) prevent the detrimental effects of epinephrine on the failing heart
D) may increase life expectancy in people with heart failure
E) all the above are true
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Q1) Patients who develop muscle pain and weakness when taking lipid lowering drugs such as atorvastatin (Lipitor)and simvastatin (Zocor)
A) should continue on the lipid lowering drugs because these muscle symptoms are usually not severe
B) should continue on the lipid lowering drugs but resolve the muscle pain through strenuous resistance exercises
C) should continue on the lipid lowering drugs but take an analgesic such as aspirin to control the pain
D) should be removed immediately from the drug because these symptoms may represent potentially serious myopathies
E) these drugs are not associated with muscle pain or weakness
Q2) Because of its ability to inhibit platelet activity,aspirin is used to prevent
A) myocardial infarction
B) ischemic stroke
C) hemorrhagic stroke
D) all the above are true
E) A and B only are true
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Q1) Cromones such as cromolyn sodium and nedocromil sodium can help prevent airway irritation and bronchospasm in people with asthma by
A) inhibiting acetylcholine release from airway smooth muscle
B) stimulating histamine receptors on airway smooth muscle
C) blocking histamine receptors on airway smooth muscle
D) inhibiting the release of inflammatory mediators such as histamine and leukotrienes from pulmonary mast cells
E) enhancing the release of endogenous anti-inflammatory substances such as cortisol from the adrenal cortex
Q2) Newer "second-generation" antihistamines such as cetirizine (Zyrtec)and desloratidine (Clarinex)may be preferred to traditional antihistamines because these newer drugs
A) cross the blood brain barrier more easily than traditional drugs
B) produce less gastric irritation than traditional drugs
C) bind to more subtypes of histamine receptors (i.e., newer drugs are less selective for the H1 receptor subtype)
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Q1) To improve the health and well-being of people with cystic fibrosis (CF),____ can be given to ____.
A) digestant preparations that contain pancreatic enzymes and bile salts; improve digestion and absorption of nutrients
B) products that contain deoxyribonuclease enzymes; decrease the viscosity of mucous in the respiratory tract
C) glucocorticoids; decrease inflammation in the airway
D) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs; decrease inflammation in the airway E) all the above
Q2) Daily or indiscriminate use of laxatives should be avoided because excessive use of these drugs can cause
A) excessive loss of fluids and electrolytes
B) irritation of the lower GI tract
C) impairment of loss of normal mechanisms governing evacuation and defecation
D) all of the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Q1) Hormones released from the posterior pituitary are synthesized by neurons originating in the
A) anterior pituitary
B) intermediate lobe of the pituitary
C) hypothalamus
D) thalamus
E) cerebellum
Q2) Anti-inflammatory steroids (glucocorticoids)produced by the adrenal cortex are under the control of ____ from the hypothalamus which stimulates ______release from the anterior pituitary.
A) corticotropin-releasing hormone; adrenocorticotropic hormone
B) adrenocorticotropic hormone; corticotropin-releasing hormone
C) follicle stimulating hormone; luteinizing hormone
D) luteinizing hormone; follicle stimulating hormone
E) thyrotropin releasing hormone; growth hormone
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Q1) In humans,the primary mineralocorticoid produced by the adrenal cortex is _____,and the primary glucocorticoid produced by the adrenal cortex is _______.
A) progesterone; testosterone
B) testosterone; estrogen
C) estrogen; aldosterone
D) aldosterone; cortisol
E) cortisol; progesterone
Q2) Glucocorticoids should be withdrawn slowly after several weeks or months of use,because the ______ needs time to resume normal function when these drugs are discontinued.
A) liver
B) kidneys
C) adrenal gland
D) thyroid gland
E) pancreas
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Q1) Physiologic doses of testosterone can be used therapeutically to treat all of the following conditions EXCEPT
A) delayed puberty in boys
B) hereditary angioedema
C) anemia
D) prostate cancer
E) conditions in which there is substantial muscle catabolism and protein loss
Q2) In postmenopausal women,estrogen replacement may provide beneficial effects on _____,but may also increase the risk of ____.
A) the heart; osteoporosis
B) bone; cardiovascular disease
C) the kidney; severe hypotension
D) the liver; Alzheimer disease
E) GI function; fibromyalgia
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Q1) Vitamin D and several related metabolites enhance bone formation by _____ intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphate,and _____ renal excretion of calcium and phosphate.
A) increasing; increasing B) increasing; decreasing
C) decreasing; increasing D) decreasing; decreasing
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Bisphosphonates such as alendronate (Fosamax)and pamidronate (Aredia)reduce bone resorption in osteoporosis and similar conditions by A) inhibiting osteoclast activity
B) increasing calcium absorption for the GI tract
C) decreasing calcium excretion by the kidneys
D) providing a dietary source of calcium
E) all the above are true
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Q1) Glugagon-like peptide type 1 (GLP-1)receptor agonists such as exenatide (Byetta)and liraglutide (Victoza)sensitize pancreatic ____ cells so that a relatively greater amount of _____ is released when these cells sense a rise in blood glucose.
A) alpha; insulin
B) beta; insulin
C) alpha; glucagon
D) beta; glucagon
E) delta; somatostatin
Q2) People who are on insulin therapy for diabetes mellitus are more at risk for hypoglycemia if
A) they administer too much insulin
B) they skip a meal
C) they exercise too strenuously
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Q1) Rehabilitation interventions that use ultraviolet irradiation (UV light)should be used cautiously in people taking antibacterial drugs because antibacterial drugs may cause
A) pulmonary edema
B) photosensitivity
C) renal failure
D) tendinopathy
E) rhabdomyolisis
Q2) Beta-lactamase inhibitors such as clavulanate,sulbactam,and tazobactam are typically combined with a specific type of penicillin
A) to increase the absorption of penicillin from the GI tract
B) to enhance the penetration of penicillin into the bacterial cell
C) to prevent the beta-lactamase enzyme from destroying the penicillin
D) to prevent excessive excretion of the penicillin from the kidneys (i.e., more penicillin is retained in the body)
E) none of the above are true
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Q1) In people infected with HIV,highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)typically consists of
A) one reverse transcriptase inhibitor at maximal dosage
B) one protease inhibitor at maximal dosage
C) two drugs, e.g. a RTI plus a protease inhibitor
D) two drugs, e.g. a nonnucleoside RTI plus a nucleoside RTI
E) three drugs, e.g. two nucleoside RTIs and one nonnucleoside RTI
Q2) Interferons are small proteins that
A) exert nonspecific antiviral activity
B) control cell differentiation
C) limit excessive cell proliferation
D) modify certain immune processes
E) all the above are true
Q3) Certain anti-HIV drugs (e.g.,zidovudine,didanosine,and zalcitabine)are known as reverse transcriptase inhibitors because they
A) prevent adsorption/penetration of HIV into T4 lymphocytes
B) inhibit transcription of viral RNA to viral DNA
C) inhibit insertion of viral DNA into host-cell chromosomes
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Q1) Many antifungal drugs selectively affect fungal cells rather than human cells by impairing the synthesis or function of specific sterols and polysaccharides that are located in the fungal cell
A) membrane
B) mitochondria
C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D) rough endoplasmic reticulum
E) DNA
Q2) Antifungal drugs are relatively safe when administered _____,but the risk of liver toxicity and other severe side effects increases substantially when these drugs are given
A) topically; orally
B) orally; topically
C) subcutaneously; topically
D) intravenously; subcutaneously
E) systemically; locally
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Q1) Anti-cancer drugs are classified as cell-cycle-nonspecific if they exert antineoplastic effects on the cell only when it is in the _______ phase of the cell cycle.
A) G1
B) G2
C) S
D) M
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Most anticancer drugs exert severe and potentially toxic side effects because A) these drugs have a high therapeutic index (TI)
B) most of these drugs are not approved by the FDA
C) most of these drugs do not discriminate between healthy tissues and cancerous cells
D) these drugs all have extremely long half-lives, and tend to accumulate in the body for an extended period of time
E) the threshold dose of these drugs is typically much higher than other drugs
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Q1) Drugs that block the interleukin-2 receptor (e.g.,basiliximab [Simulect],daclizumab [Zenapax])and prevent interleukin-2 from activating T lymphocytes can be especially helpful in
A) reducing the progression of HIV infection to AIDS
B) reducing the incidence of acute organ transplant rejection
C) treating antibacterial drug resistance
D) treating antiviral drug resistance
E) reversing resistance to cancer chemotherapeutic drugs
Q2) Drugs are used to suppress the immune system
A) to prevent rejection of transplanted organs or tissues
B) to limit immune-mediated damage to the body's tissues
C) to treat autoimmune diseases
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q3) All of the following drugs can be used to suppress the immune system EXCEPT
A) azathioprine
B) cyclophosphamide
C) cyclosporine
D) immunoglobulin G
E) methotrexate
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