Pharmacotherapy
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Pharmacotherapy explores the principles and applications of drug therapy in the prevention, management, and treatment of diseases. The course examines the selection and use of medications based on efficacy, safety, and individual patient variables, emphasizing evidence-based practice and rational drug choice. Topics include pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, clinical guidelines, drug interactions, adverse effects, and the role of the pharmacist in optimizing therapeutic outcomes across a variety of disease states. Through case studies and practical scenarios, students develop the skills necessary to tailor pharmacologic regimens and monitor treatment progress in diverse patient populations.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Pharmacology 8th Edition by Shane Bullock
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Chapter 1: Sociocultural Aspects
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is best to learn about pharmacology with reference to what particular type of medication names?
A) Chemical names
B) Brand names
C) Generic names
D) Proprietary names
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following acne preparations CANNOT be purchased as an over-the-counter preparation?
A) An isotretinoin preparation
B) A sulphur preparation
C) A resorcinol preparation
D) A benzoyl peroxide preparation
Answer: A
Q3) A key feature of polypharmacy is:
A) self-diagnosing and medicating.
B) using many different pharmacies to purchase medicines.
C) the excessive or unnecessary use of medicines.
D) a reluctance to use complementary therapies.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Health Professionals and the Law
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Q1) Pharmacy medicines are substances that:
A) are available for use but require restriction of manufacture, supply, distribution, possession and use to reduce abuse, misuse and physical or psychological dependence.
B) require professional advice from a pharmacist and should be available from a pharmacy or, where a pharmacy service is not available, from a licensed person.
C) are provided on the order of persons permitted by legislation to prescribe and should be available from a pharmacist on prescription.
D) have a 2 potential for causing harm, the extent of which can be reduced through the use of distinctive packaging with strong warnings and safety directions.
Answer: B
Q2) When the drug order is unclear,the health professional should:
A) ask a colleague to interpret the writing.
B) check what other medications the patient is taking and have an educated guess. C) question the prescriber about what was intended.
D) withhold the medication.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Ethical Issues
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Q1) Ms B has an operable brain tumour but refuses life-saving treatment after an acute bleeding episode.Her partner supports the decision.What ethical principle do the health professionals apply to justify doing nothing?
A) Non-maleficence
B) Confidentiality
C) Autonomy
D) Justice
Answer: C
Q2) Macroallocation and microallocation of resources are principles related to what aspect of ethical conduct?
A) Autonomy
B) Beneficence
C) Veracity
D) Justice
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
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Q1) In their role as client advocate,health professionals inform people about their rights in relation to drug therapy,other health care-related matters,or when confronted by adversaries,to empower them to make informed decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following factors has an effect on medication adherence? Select all that apply.
A) Age extremes
B) Communication barriers
C) Polypharmacy
D) Single illness with uncomplicated treatment regimen
Q3) A client is recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.Her mother has also been diagnosed some years ago.Which of the following teaching principles will be most helpful in client teaching?
A) Passive participation
B) Prior knowledge and experience
C) Repetition will not be required.
D) The patient is genetically predisposed to be prepared for accompanying pain.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
Professionals in Medicine Management
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Q1) Naturopaths may:
A) prescribe any medicines that will have a holistic effect on their client.
B) recommend and dispense doses of herbal, mineral and animal-based products.
C) prescribe Schedule 1--3 medications only.
D) none of the above.
Q2) The educational preparation for a nurse practitioner is:
A) a Master's degree.
B) a Bachelor's degree.
C) extensive training in the clinical setting.
D) a professional doctorate.
Q3) Which of the following healthcare workers have some prescribing rights,are able to order context-specific pathology and radiology tests,and are able to make limited referrals?
A) assistant in nursing
B) registered nurse
C) nurse practitioner
D) nurse researcher
Q4) Dietitians are legally allowed to administer medications to clients.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Medicine Formulations, Storage and Routes of Administration
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Q1) The shelf life of glyceryl trinitrate tablets after opening the container is:
A) 80 days.
B) 85 days.
C) 90 days.
D) 100 days.
Q2) The shelf life of a reconstituted penicillin mixture for oral use is:
A) 5 days.
B) 7 days.
C) 9 days.
D) 12 days.
Q3) Which is true of a linctus?
A) It needs to be stored at or below 25°C.
B) It is administered without water.
C) It is a viscous liquid with expectorant, sedating and cough-suppressing properties.
D) All of the above.
Q4) What effect does exercise have on absorption of a drug that is administered by intramuscular injection?
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Chapter 7: the Clinical Decision-making Process
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Q1) The nursing clinical decision-making process involves the following steps:
A) assessment, planning and implementation.
B) assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.
C) assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation.
D) assessment and evaluation.
Q2) What is the first step in the clinical decision-making process?
A) evaluation
B) assessment
C) planning
D) prognosis
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Australia's National Medicines Policy?
A) Timely access to the medicines that Australians need, at a cost individuals and the community can afford
B) Medicines meeting appropriate standards of quality, safety and efficacy
C) Quality use of medicines
D) Consumers and health professionals communicating effectively about medicines management
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Chapter 8: Medicine Administration Strategies and Documentation
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Q1) How many registered nurses are needed to check information for administration of drugs such as narcotic analgesics,digoxin and warfarin?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) More than five
Q2) Medication ordered at particular time intervals should be given on time to:
A) ensure that health professionals provide their care efficiently.
B) maintain consistent blood levels of the medication.
C) ensure that medications are not wasted.
D) ensure that patients have a structured approach to their care.
Q3) The rights of drug administration are:
A) giving the right drug, in the right dose, to the right person, by the right route, at the right time.
B) giving the right drug, in the right dose, at the right time.
C) giving the right drug, in the right dose, by the right route.
D) giving the right drug, in the right dose, to the right person.
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Chapter 9: Medication Errors
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Q1) Following the five rights"will help reduce medication errors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In order to avoid medication errors,it is a good strategy to have two patients with the same name positioned:
A) next to each other.
B) opposite each other.
C) next to the central office area.
D) at opposite ends of the hospital ward.
Q3) Which of the following are potential sources of medical errors? Select all that apply.
A) The wrong dose of a medication is given.
B) The person's identity is not checked.
C) The manufacturer changes inert ingredients.
D) The person takes all of their medicines at the same time every day.
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Chapter 10: Management of Common Adverse Drug
Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mainstay of treatment for anaphylactic shock?
A) Hydrocortisone
B) Adrenaline
C) Salbutamol
D) Promethazine
Q2) Aplastic anaemia caused by chloramphenicol is an example of type B adverse drug reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What agent is used to treat respiratory depression caused by an opioid analgesic?
A) Pentazocine
B) Naloxone
C) Methadone
D) Naltrexone
Q4) A conscious client with respiratory depression should be placed in a:
A) flat position.
B) semi-upright position.
C) side position.
D) prone position.
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Chapter 11: Risk Communication: Balancing the Benefits and Risks of Drug Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A study examining the risks and benefits of hormone replacement therapy (HRT)finds the number needed to treat with HRT to prevent an osteoporotic fracture is 300.This figure means 300 women need to be treated to prevent:
A) one woman from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture. B) five women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
C) 110 women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture. D) 220 women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
Q2) Which is the correct formula for measuring population absolute risk?
A) Multiply the absolute risk for the incidence of an adverse event by the prevalence of the use of the medication in the population.
B) Divide the absolute risk by the prevalence of use in a small subset of the population. C) Multiply the absolute risk for the incidence of a statistically significant adverse event by the likelihood of the medication being taken as directed.
D) Divide the possibility of an adverse event occurring by the number of persons likely to be taking the medication.
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Chapter 12: Drug Nomenclature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a generic drug name used in Australia and New Zealand?
A) Frusemide
B) Furomide
C) Furosemide
D) Lasix
Q2) Drugs with generic names that end in the suffix -pril are members of the drug group called:
A) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) serotonin receptor antagonists.
D) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
Q3) Individual drugs can be classified according to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) therapeutic use.
B) mode of action.
C) molecular structure.
D) adverse drug reaction.
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Chapter 13: Pharmacokinetics: Absorption and Distribution
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Q1) Drugs are best absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract if they are:
A) hydrophilic.
B) amphipathic.
C) lipophobic.
D) lipophilic.
Q2) Highly lipophilic substances can cross the blood-brain barrier.Which of the following cannot cross the blood-brain barrier in normal circumstances?
A) Alcohol
B) Penicillin
C) Glucose
D) Antihistamines
Q3) Drugs that are liver enzyme inducers may:
A) increase a drug's half-life.
B) increase a drug's metabolism.
C) inhibit a drug's therapeutic effect.
D) increase tissue distribution of another drug.
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Chapter 14: Pharmacokinetics Metabolism and Excretion
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Q1) After a single dose of a drug with a half-life of 8 hours,how much of the drug remains after 16 hours?
A) 50 per cent
B) 12.5 per cent
C) 100 per cent
D) 25 per cent
Q2) Explain what is meant by drug clearance.
Q3) To elicit a rapid systemic effect,the route that will enable the maximum bioavailability is:
A) intramuscular.
B) oral.
C) intravenous.
D) intradermal.
Q4) Which of the following drugs is not excreted by the lungs?
A) Ethanol
B) Salbutamol
C) Isoflurane
D) Metoprolol
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Chapter 15: Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common drug-food interaction is between grapefruit juice and:
A) aspirin.
B) paracetamol.
C) felodipine.
D) ibuprofen.
Q2) In which way can hepatic enzymes be altered by drug metabolism?
A) Can cause enhancement or inhibition of metabolism
B) Can interact with the external environment
C) Are only altered in conjunction with food
D) Are only considered with regard to synergistic effects between drugs
Q3) The drug interactions that occur with cimetidine are usually due to:
A) enzyme inhibition.
B) enzyme induction.
C) protein binding.
D) summation.
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Chapter 16: Pharmacodynamics
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Q1) In disrupting the synthesis of folic acid in bacteria,sulfonamides act:
A) as competitive inhibitors.
B) as non-competitive inhibitors.
C) by physical action.
D) by none of the above.
Q2) Some terms that describe interactions between drugs and receptors include: (Select all that apply)
A) antagonism.
B) agonism.
C) first mechanism
D) first messenger
Q3) Pharmacological effect is achieved by:
A) the portion of free or unbound drug.
B) the portion of protein-bound drug.
C) ionisation.
D) penetrating the blood-brain barrier.
Q4) Pharmacodynamics describes the physiological processes that act on a drug once it enters the body,or how the body handles the drug.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Drug Development, Evaluation and Safety
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Q1) What does it mean when a medicine is sold under patent?
A) The medicine can only be marketed by the pharmaceutical company that manufactured it.
B) The medicine can be marketed by pharmaceutical companies that did not manufacture it as long as they use a different trade name from the pharmaceutical company that made the medicine.
C) The pharmaceutical company can only sell the medicine to retailers who have a patented corporate logo.
D) The medicine can be marketed by any pharmaceutical company without restrictions placed on its trade name.
Q2) Only a few medicines are excreted in breast milk.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ability of a drug to produce an effect at a receptor is referred to as: A) affinity.
B) specificity.
C) efficacy.
D) potency.
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Chapter 18: Genetic Considerations in Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The types of gene therapy include:
A) somatic and germline.
B) psychosomatic and germline.
C) somatic and viraline.
D) psychosomatic and viraline.
Q2) Determining the kind or dosage of drug therapy on the basis of an individual's genetic status:
A) is an example of genetic polymorphism.
B) may increase the cost of health insurance for the whole community.
C) is called drug striation.
D) may decrease the incidence of serious drug adverse reactions for some clients.
Q3) How many human enzymes have been associated with drug metabolism and polymorphisms?
A) Less than 20
B) More than 20
C) A minimum of 50
D) None
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Chapter 19: Pharmacokinetic Factors That Modify Drug Action
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Q1) Which one of the following factors would not be expected to increase the rate of drug absorption from the small intestines?
A) A small-sized drug molecule
B) Delayed gastric emptying
C) An increase in gut blood flow
D) The majority of drug molecules in an un-ionised state
Q2) During pregnancy,drug absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is variable and unpredictable due to slowed peristalsis and gastric emptying.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Paediatric and Geriatric Pharmacology
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Q1) Compared to neonates,do the elderly have greater or diminished drug effects due to variation in the volume of body fluid?
Q2) In geriatric settings,it is desirable to:
A) arrange for all drugs to be dispensed to clients in childproof containers.
B) administer all drugs to all clients so that they can concentrate on resting and getting better.
C) encourage the client to learn about their medications prior to discharge.
D) use the deltoid muscle for intramuscular injection in a client with muscle wasting.
Q3) Which of the following would assist in medication adherence for the older person?
A) Simple medicine regimens
B) Use of medication aids
C) Improved communication
D) All of the above
Q4) In paediatric settings,it is desirable to:
A) leave medications on the bedside locker for later administration.
B) use the vastus lateralis muscle for intramuscular injection.
C) prepare medicines for injection in front of the child.
D) advise the child that injections are painless.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Poisoning and Envenomation
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Q1) Which of the following is an iron chelating agent?
A) Disodium edetate
B) Deferasirox
C) d-penicillamine
D) Calcium gluconate
Q2) Which of the following best characterizes the mode of action of cyanide poisoning?
A) Central nervous system depressant
B) Displaces essential trace elements and accumulates in tissues
C) Permanently disables the enzyme cholinesterase
D) Diminishes cellular energy
Q3) AZ is a 62-year-old farmer who is brought in to the emergency department for the management of organophosphate poisoning.How should this be managed?
A) Administration of vitamin K
B) Administration of atropine
C) Administration of diphenhydramine
D) Administration of dicobalt edetate
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Chapter 22: the Management of Acute Clinical Overdose
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Q1) A specific antidote for an overdose of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor is:
A) physostigmine.
B) atropine.
C) acetylcysteine.
D) naloxone.
Q2) The principle of management of clinical drug overdose that takes precedence over all others is:
A) life support.
B) patient assessment.
C) drug detoxification.
D) drug elimination.
Q3) The passing of a patient's blood across a medium containing adsorbent beads is called:
A) haemoperfusion.
B) haemosiderosis.
C) haemodialysis.
D) haemolysis.
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Chapter 23: Contemporary Drugs of Abuse
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Q1) Therapeutic uses of marijuana include:
A) glaucoma.
B) emesis control.
C) hypertension.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Nicotine can have the following effect EXCEPT:
A) weight gain.
B) stimulation.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) appetite suppression.
Q3) Which of the following medications can be used to treat alcohol addiction?
A) Metronidazole
B) Disulfiram
C) Acamprosate
D) Both B and C
Q4) Which of the following is a symptom of caffeine withdrawal?
A) Hallucinations
B) Palpitations
C) Headaches
D) Muscle tremors
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Chapter 24: Drug Abuse in Sport
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Q1) One rationale given for misuse of narcotic agents by sportspeople is to:
A) induce anabolic effects.
B) produce euphoria.
C) promote aggression.
D) increase blood oxygen-carrying capacity.
Q2) Which one of the following is considered a banned substance by WADA?
A) Caffeine
B) Alcohol
C) Pseudoephedrine
D) Diuretics
Q3) Which one of the following could be perceived as a benefit associated with anabolic-androgenic steroid use?
A) Mood swings
B) Premature completion of long bone growth
C) Increased skeletal muscle mass
D) An altered blood lipid profile
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Chapter 25: General Aspects of Neuropharmacology
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Q1) Sympathetic stimulation would result in which one of the following sets of responses?
A) Increased gastric juice secretion and increased heart rate
B) Sweating, urinary retention, salivation and pupil dilation
C) Increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, defecation and erection of genitalia
D) Slowed heart rate, increased blood pressure, pupil constriction and pallor
Q2) Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in autonomic nervous system (ANS)function?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Vasopressin
C) Acetylcholine
D) Dobutamine
Q3) The parasympathetic division is activated in an emergency or stressful situation. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Adrenergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Which type of electrolyte abnormality may occur with the use of \(\beta_{2} \) agonists?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypomagnesemia
D) Hypernatremia
Q2) Receptors that respond to norepinephrine are called:
A) adrenergic.
B) cholinergic.
C) dopaminergic.
D) noradrenergic.
Q3) A clinical use for \(\beta_{1} \) antagonists is in the treatment of:
A) tachycardia.
B) hypertension.
C) COPD.
D) Both A and B.
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Chapter 27: Cholinergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following agent is used for the management of malignant hyperthermia?
A) Atropine
B) Suxamethonium.
C) Tubocurarine.
D) Dantrolene
Q2) Which set of drug responses best matches the action of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?
A) Feelings of relaxation, increased skeletal muscle tone, increased autonomic tone and the release of catecholamines
B) Bronchoconstriction, increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, increased skeletal muscle tension and bradycardia
C) Tachycardia, facial flushing, decreased gastrointestinal motility, dry mouth and urinary retention
D) Tachycardia, histamine-induced hypotension, muscle relaxation and decreased gastrointestinal motility
Q3) Acetylcholinesterase breaks acetylcholine into choline and acetate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: An Introduction to Chemical Mediators
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Q1) Which of the following mediators is released directly into the bloodstream?
A) Hormones
B) Neurotransmitters
C) Autacoids
D) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following mediators acts on a distant target?
A) Neurotransmitter
B) Classic hormone
C) Local hormone
D) Autacoid
Q3) Mediators that induce their effect without entering the circulation are referred to as:
A) hormones.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) autacoids.
D) second messengers.
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Chapter 29: Histamine and Antihistamines
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Q1) Which secondary messenger is associated with H<sub>1</sub> receptor activation?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D
Q2) First-generation antihistamines have a longer duration of action.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How many subtypes of H<sub>1</sub> receptors have been identified?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Q4) In comparison to second-generation antihistamines,first-generation antihistamines cause more:
A) orthostasis.
B) nausea.
C) sedation.
D) vomiting.
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Chapter 30: Prostaglandins and Serotonin
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Q1) 5-HT<sub>3</sub> receptor antagonists have been used for:
A) nausea.
B) somnolence.
C) REMS sleep disorder.
D) GERD.
Q2) Prostaglandin analogues have been used for:
A) termination of pregnancy.
B) glaucoma.
C) treatment of impotence.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Drugs that inhibit the synaptic serotonin reuptake are used for: A) autism.
B) depression.
C) glaucoma.
D) termination of pregnancy.
Q4) Common eicosanoids include:
A) thromboxanes.
B) leukotrienes.
C) hydroperoxyeicosatrienoic acids.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 31: Nitric Oxide and the Endothelins
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Q1) Endothelin receptor antagonists have been used for the treatment of:
A) pulmonary hypertension.
B) ischemic valve disease.
C) peripheral vascular disease.
D) none of the above.
Q2) How many endothelin receptor subtypes have been identified?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Q3) Which secondary messenger is associated with endothelin receptors?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D
Q4) Endothelin receptor antagonists can be used safely in pregnant patients.
A)True
B)False
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Page 33
Chapter 32: General concepts of Psychopharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the pharmacological issues associated with the widespread distribution of receptors for a particular transmitter throughout the brain is that:
A) the number of unwanted drug effects is low.
B) there is a need to develop more specific agents.
C) the drugs will not work on peripheral body receptors.
D) the receptors are all of the same subtype.
Q2) The major inhibitory neurotransmitter is:
A) dopamine.
B) glutamate.
C) serotonin.
D) GABA.
Q3) The transmitter associated with emesis is:
A) dopamine.
B) serotonin.
C) noradrenaline.
D) acetylcholine.
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Chapter 33: Antipsychotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When switching from one antipsychotic medication to clozapine,the other antipsychotic medication is reduced over:
A) one day, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
B) two days, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
C) four days, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
D) seven days, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
Q2) Psychoses include the following conditions EXCEPT:
A) depression.
B) schizophrenia.
C) severe agitation.
D) some forms of dementia.
Q3) Akathisia,dystonic reactions and tardive dyskinesia are extrapyramidal symptoms associated with:
A) antipsychotic use of some agents.
B) anxiolytics.
C) hypnotics.
D) tetracyclic antidepressants.
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Chapter 34: Anxiolytics and Hypnotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why hypnotic agents should not be used for long-term therapy.
Q2) Benzodiazepines can induce:
A) amnesia.
B) rage.
C) depression.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following benzodiazepine agents would be suitable for a plane journey where the traveller is having trouble getting to sleep?
A) Clobazam
B) Diazepam
C) Triazolam
D) Nitrazepam
Q4) Which one of the following anxiolytic/sedative drugs can directly activate GABA receptors,even in the absence of GABA itself?
A) Benzodiazepines
B) Buspirone
C) Barbiturates
D) Dexmedetomidine
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Chapter 35: Antidepressants and Mood Stabilisers
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following antidepressants are suitable forms of therapy for a woman with postpartum depression who is breastfeeding,EXCEPT for:
A) paroxetine.
B) fluoxetine.
C) sertraline.
D) fluvoxamine.
Q2) The psychological disorder characterised by persistent thoughts and repetitive,ritualistic behaviours is called:
A) endogenous depression.
B) panic disorder.
C) mania.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Q3) The proposed action of tetracyclic antidepressant drugs is:
A) block transmitter reuptake.
B) block the amine reuptake pump on the presynaptic terminal.
C) inhibit monoamine oxidase.
D) selectively block postsynaptic 5-HT<sub>2</sub> receptors.
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Chapter 36: Medicines Used in Neurodegenerative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr Penson was being treated with drugs for Parkinson's disease and noted an increase in his libido.What drug may have caused this?
A) The dopamine precursor, levodopa
B) The antimuscarinic, benzhexol
C) Amantadine
D) The MAO-B inhibitor, selegiline
Q2) Alzheimer's disease is characterised by the lack of which neurotransmitter in the higher centres of the brain?
A) Noradrenaline
B) Acetylcholine
C) Dopamine
D) Serotonin
Q3) Neuroleptic drug-induced Parkinsonian symptoms are often treated with:
A) an antimuscarinic agent.
B) a serotonin receptor agonist.
C) an antiemetic agent.
D) an increase in neuroleptic dose.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Antiseizure Agents and Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The therapeutic action of spasmolytic agents for epilepsy management is:
A) to increase muscle tone.
B) to inhibit muscular spasms.
C) to initiate the efflux of sodium from within cells.
D) none of the above.
Q2) As well as an antiseizure agent,phenytoin is also used for treating:
A) dysrhythmia.
B) ADHD.
C) migraine.
D) Parkinson's disease.
Q3) A seizure that manifests as muscle spasms of body parts in sequence is most likely a:
A) myoclonic seizure.
B) absence seizure.
C) psychomotor seizure.
D) Jacksonian seizure.
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Chapter 38: Central Nervous System Stimulants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Modafinil is useful in the treatment of:
A) ADD.
B) ADHD.
C) narcolepsy.
D) amphetamine addiction.
Q2) Behaviour associated with ADD in children includes:
A) forgetfulness.
B) daydreaming.
C) lack of interest.
D) all of the above.
Q3) 'Drug holidays' from dexamphetamine may be important to avoid: A) addiction.
B) growth retardation.
C) insomnia.
D) cognitive impairment.
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Chapter 39: Opioid Analgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pain medicines produce a constipating effect?
A) Pethidine
B) Aspirin
C) Morphine
D) Paracetamol
Q2) What is the equivalent dose of pethidine when compared with 10 mg of morphine?
A) 25-50 mg of pethidine
B) 50-75 mg of pethidine
C) 75-100 mg of pethidine
D) 100-125 mg of pethidine
Q3) When administering tramadol,it should not be given with drugs that:
A) affect coagulation.
B) affect blood vessel vasculature.
C) are largely metabolised renally.
D) increase seizure tendencies.
Q4) Somatic pain is defined as:
A) pain of sudden onset and short duration.
B) pain associated with the musculoskeletal system.
C) a reaction that avoids further tissue damage.
D) pain induced through remodelling of neural connections.
Page 41
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which individuals may be more susceptible to paracetamol overdose? Why?
Q2) Which micronutrient should be supplemented with methotrexate use?
A) Folate
B) Thiamin
C) Riboflavin
D) Pyridoxine
Q3) Describe the effects of prostaglandins on inflammation and pain.
Q4) NSAIDs may not be suitable for use in individuals with renal impairment because they:
A) increase sodium excretion.
B) increase body temperature.
C) reduce the glomerular filtration rate.
D) reduce pepsin levels in the stomach.
Q5) Which enzyme is the target for inhibition by the NSAIDs?
A) Cyclo-oxygenase
B) Phospholipase A
C) Adenylate cyclase
D) 5-Lipoxygenase
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Chapter 41: Medicines Used to Treat Migraine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Preventive therapies for migraine should be used for a period of:
A) three to six days.
B) three to six weeks.
C) three to six months.
D) six to twelve months.
Q2) First-line therapy for an acute migraine attack includes:
A) triptans.
B) paracetamol.
C) ergotamine.
D) tricyclic antidepressants.
Q3) Which of the following is true of ergotamine for migraine prophylaxis?
A) Caffeine enhances its absorption and onset of action.
B) No more than five doses should be taken in any one week.
C) Doses should be closely monitored due to the risk of rebound headaches and dependence.
D) All of the above.
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Chapter 42: General Anaesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rate of absorption of inhaled anaesthetic into the bloodstream is dependent on the ________ of the gas.
A) rate of osmosis
B) partial pressure
C) volume
D) surfactant levels
Q2) Intrathecal administration of anaesthetic produces:
A) profound anaesthesia with a small dose.
B) a mild analgesic effect with a small dose.
C) analgesia via the nerve roots that communicate with the epidural space.
D) no analgesic effect; this route of administration is inappropriate to achieve analgesia.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of nitrous oxide as an inhalational anaesthetic?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Surgical procedures involving the middle ear
C) Tachycardia
D) Intestinal obstruction
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Chapter 43: Local Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following local anaesthetics has a relatively long duration of action?
A) Procaine
B) Lignocaine
C) Bupivacaine
D) Mepivacaine
Q2) The mechanism of action of the local anaesthetics is to impede the movement of which ion through its membrane channels?
A) Calcium
B) Potassium
C) Sodium
D) GABA
Q3) Which of the following routes of administration has the highest rate of systemic absorption of local anaesthetic agents?
A) Epidural administration
B) Intercostal administration
C) Subcutaneous administration
D) Brachial plexus administration
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Chapter 44: Medicines Used to Lower Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Long-term statin therapy has been linked to an increased incidence of:
A) stroke.
B) heart disease.
C) cataract development.
D) Alzheimer's disease.
Q2) An unwelcome but possibly benign effect of nicotinic acid treatment is:
A) petechiae.
B) constipation.
C) loose stools.
D) skin flushes and itching.
Q3) When timing the dose for the fibrate gemfibrozil,the patient should be advised to take it:
A) at bedtime.
B) upon arising in the morning.
C) with food.
D) half an hour before food.
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Chapter 45: Antihypertensive Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the antihypertensive groups is least likely to be used as first-line treatment for hypertension?
A) -blockers
B)ACE inhibitors
C)Calcium channel blockers
D)Centrally acting medicines
Q2) Which of the following are categories of hypertension?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Malignant
D) All of the above
Q3) Which one of the following chemical mediators can alter blood pressure via vasoconstriction?
A) Prostacyclin
B) Endothelin-1
C) Nitric oxide
D) Prostaglandin E<sub>2</sub>
Q4) Describe the method of action of ACE inhibitors.
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Chapter 46: Medicines Used to Promote Tissue Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nimodipine is a calcium channel blocker that:
A) is used widely in the management of angina.
B) is relatively selective for cerebral blood vessels.
C) increases cardiac workload.
D) is most beneficial when it is administered prophylactically.
Q2) The form of angina pectoris that is associated with coronary vasospasm is called ________ angina.
A) variant
B) exertional
C) classic
D) stable
Q3) Which two factors can be the root cause of angina pectoris?
A)Vasospasm and atherosclerotic plaque
B)Vasodilation and atherosclerotic plaque
C)Vasospasm and hypolipidaemia
D)Vasodilation and hypolipidaemia
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Chapter 47: Antithrombotic, Fibrinolytic and Haemostatic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the haemostatic agent used in colposcopy procedures?
A)Monsel's solution
B)Calcium alginate
C)Eltrombopag
D)Octocog alfa
Q2) When using aspirin as an antiplatelet agent,how many days before any planned surgery or dental procedures should it be stopped?
A) 2 days
B) 7 days
C) 14 days
D) 21 days
Q3) To reverse anticoagulation caused by heparin,________ is usually administered.
A) prostaglandin
B) warfarin
C) tranexamic acid
D) protamine
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Chapter 48: Diuretics and Other Renal Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why acidification of urine might be undertaken in individuals with urinary tract infections or urinary catheters.
Q2) Urinary alkalisation is possible only if creatinine clearance is at what level?
A)At least 20 mL/min
B)At least 30 mL/min
C)No more than 30 mL/min
D)No more than 20 mL/min
Q3) Which of the following diuretic agents is not recommended to be given with an ACE inhibitor?
A) Chlorothiazide
B) Frusemide
C) Ethacrynic acid
D) Spironolactone
Q4) To avoid ototoxicity,intravenous (IV)frusemide must be injected no faster than 4 mg/min.If the dose ordered is 20 mg IV,how quickly can it be administered?
A) Over at least 5 minutes
B) Over at least 4 minutes
C) Over at least 12 seconds
D) Over at least 10 minutes
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Chapter 49: Topic: Medicines Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dopamine and dobutamine are examples of what class of cardiac drugs?
A)Inotropic agents
B)Cardiac glycosides
C)Inotropic antagonists
D)Angiotensin converting enzymes
Q2) When the left side of the heart fails,what symptoms result?
A)Splenic congestion
B)Peripheral oedema
C)Pulmonary congestion
D)Hepatic congestion
Q3) The current optimal drug therapy in the management of heart failure is:
A) the cardiac glycoside digoxin.
B) the dopamine agonist dobutamine.
C) a non-selective \(\beta\)-blocker.
D) an ACE inhibitor and a diuretic.
Q4) Milrinone is an example of what type of cardiac drug?
A) -blockers
B)Calcium channel blockers
C)ACE inhibitors
D)Inotropic vasodilators
51
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Chapter 50: Medicines Used to Treat Cardiac Dysrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of a prodysrhythmic agent?
A)Fexofenadine
B)Clarithromycin
C)Haloperidol
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following are mechanisms of action of the class I antidysrhythmics?
A)They have local anaesthesia properties.
B)They have a high affinity for blocking active sodium channels.
C)They affect phase four of the action potential.
D)All of the above.
Q3) Atropine is especially useful in what sort of dysrhythmia?
A)Tachycardia
B)Bradycardia
C)Pre-ventricular contraction
D)AV conduction block
Q4) Class II antidysrhythmic drugs are also known as what?
A)Calcium channel blockers
B)ACE inhibiters
C)Beta blockers
D)Adrenergic agonists
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Chapter 51: Fluid and Potassium Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of an isotonic solution?
A) 4% glucose with 0.18% sodium chloride
B) 0.45% sodium chloride
C) 10% glucose
D) 25% mannitol
Q2) Intravenous potassium should never be administered:
A) through a peripheral line.
B) through the subclavian vein.
C) as a bolus through the side arm of the intravenous line.
D) through the jugular vein.
Q3) Mild hypokalaemia should be treated in what manner?
A)Dietary supplementation
B)Oral potassium supplementation
C)Slow-release oral potassium
D)Parenteral potassium
Q4) Which patient would likely have the greatest amount of body fluid?
A)A middle-aged man
B)A teenage girl
C)A toddler
D)A premature infant
53
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Chapter 52: Antianaemic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The absorption of iron in the gut may be enhanced by :
A) vitamin A.
B) vitamin E.
C) vitamin C.
D) folate.
Q2) The form of erythropoietin for clinical use:
A) may induce a hypertensive state during therapy.
B) is extracted from human urine.
C) induces a rise in haemoglobin levels within two days of starting therapy.
D) contains iron supplements in order to facilitate haemoglobin production.
Q3) Which one of the following is considered a cause of anaemia?
A) Vitamin D<sub>3</sub> deficiency
B) Exposure to anabolic steroids
C) Chronic renal failure
D) Elemental iron overload
Q4) High doses of vitamin B<sub>12</sub> may cause
A) hypotension.
B) hypokalaemia.
C) constipation.
D) folate deficiency.
54
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Chapter 53: Medicines Used to Maintain Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following actions will NOT reduce the effectiveness of acetylcysteine nebuliser solution used for the treatment of cystic fibrosis?
A) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and rubber
B) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and iron
C) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and copper
D) Diluting the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution with equal volumes of sodium chloride 0.9%
Q2) Which one of the following respiratory illnesses affects approximately 10% of adult Australians?
A) Bronchial asthma
B) Chronic bronchitis
C) Emphysema
D) Cystic fibrosis
Q3) Premature babies receiving long-term oxygen therapy are at risk of:
A) otitis media.
B) ototoxicity.
C) retinal damage.
D) macular degeneration.
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Chapter 54: Medicines for Upper Respiratory Tract
Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nasal decongestants are contraindicated in patients taking:
A) antihistamines.
B) certain types of antidepressants.
C) antitussive agents.
D) salicylate preparations.
Q2) Cough suppressants should not be given to children under ________ years of age.
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2
Q3) Hyoscine is contraindicated in patients with:
A) glaucoma.
B) depression.
C) heart failure.
D) diabetes.
Q4) To which drug group do many cough suppressants belong?
A) NSAIDs
B) Narcotics
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Dopamine antagonists
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Chapter 55: Upper Gastrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should histamine H<sub>2</sub>-receptor antagonists be administered in relation to food?
A) They should be administered with food.
B) They should be administered immediately following food.
C) They can be administered with or without food.
D) They should be administered two hours before food.
Q2) Ranitidine is an example of which class of medicines?
A) Proton pump inhibitor
B) H<sub>2</sub> antagonist
C) Antacid
D) Prostaglandin
Q3) Prostaglandin analogues such as misoprostol are contraindicated in:
A) clients also receiving the NSAID aspirin.
B) pregnancy.
C) conjunction with alcohol consumption.
D) clients also receiving the NSAID indomethacin.
Q4) Explain how a hiatus hernia can cause gastric reflux.
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Chapter 56: Lower Castrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the laxative groups acts directly on the wall of intestines to stimulate defecation?
A) Lubricants
B) Stimulant laxatives
C) Osmotic laxatives
D) Faecal softeners
Q2) In perianal disease,________ laxatives should be used to prevent straining.
A) stimulant
B) lubricant
C) bulk
D) softener
Q3) Which of the following laxative groups is used for bowel preparation before a medical procedure?
A) Lubricants and stimulant laxatives
B) Faecal softeners and bulk-forming laxatives
C) Bulk-forming laxatives and lubricants
D) Irritant laxatives and selected osmotic laxatives
Q4) Outline the potential benefits of peppermint oil in the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome.
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Chapter 57: Antiemetic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antiemetic agents may cause extrapyramidal side effects?
A) Prochlorperazine
B) Domperidone
C) Ondansetron
D) Dolasetron
Q2) Which of the following antiemetic agents requires the person to take appropriate measures to protect themselves from sunlight?
A) Prochlorperazine
B) Metoclopramide
C) Domperidone
D) Ondansetron
Q3) Which of the following antiemetics is a serotonin antagonist?
A) Dimenhydrinate
B) Metoclopramide
C) Ondansetron
D) Hyoscine
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Chapter 58: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following measures would not improve the management of diarrhoea during enteral feeding?
A) Select a feed with a high fat content.
B) Decrease the rate of feed.
C) Remove the feed from the refrigerator about half an hour before administration.
D) Administer an iso-osmolar feed rather than a hyperosmolar feed.
Q2) What finding must be present in order to proceed with enteral feedings?
A) Bowel sounds
B) Normal blood sugar
C) Normal faeces
D) Sufficient kidney function
Q3) What is a suitable strategy to manage a large return of gastric aspirate in a person receiving nasogastric feeding?
A) Lower the head of the person's bed.
B) Use a hyperosmolar feed.
C) Select a feed with a higher fat content.
D) Decrease the rate of infusion.
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Chapter 59: Medicines and the Pituitary Gland
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the indication for clomiphene?
A) Contraception
B) Ovulatory failure
C) Treatment of ovarian cancers
D) Treatment of growth disorders
Q2) Bromocriptine is no longer recommended for inhibition of postpartum lactation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When administering somatropin produced from recombinant DNA technology in a young child,it is important to monitor:
A) urinary levels of potassium and sodium.
B) for limping.
C) serum levels of potassium and sodium.
D) for Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
Q4) In cases of growth hormone hyposecretion,therapy involves the use of:
A) a somatostatin analogue.
B) tetracosactrin.
C) somatropin.
D) the ergot alkaloids.
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Chapter 60: Medicines and the Thyroid
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Sample Questions
Q1) What purpose do \(\beta\)-blockers serve in treating thyroid disease?
A) They directly lower thyroid levels.
B) They are only used for well-controlled patients.
C) They are used to alleviate symptoms caused by adrenergic stimulation.
D) They have no clinical indication in treating thyroid disease.
Q2) Generally,L-thyroxine is preferable to liothyronine as therapy in hypothyroid states because:
A) it has a longer duration of action.
B) it is less cardiotoxic.
C) levels are easier to monitor.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Radioactive iodide may be used to treat hyperthyroidism because it:
A) inhibits conversion of L-thyroxine to L-triiodothyronine.
B) reduces synthesis of thyroid hormones.
C) destroys functional thyroid tissue.
D) depletes thyroid hormone stores.
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Chapter 61: Medicines and the Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glycosylated haemoglobin level (HbA<sub>1c</sub>)is an indicator of:
A) insulin overdose.
B) normal growth in children with diabetes mellitus.
C) stress.
D) longer-term glycaemic control.
Q2) A drug group that tends to raise blood glucose levels is the:
A) anabolic steroids.
B) oral contraceptives.
C) NSAIDs in high dosage.
D) monoamine oxidase inhibitors.
Q3) An injection of glucagon would be appropriate for which of the following?
A) A person with type 1 diabetes mellitus who presents with a blood glucose reading above 18 mmol/L
B) A person with unstable diabetes insipidus
C) A person with drug-induced hypoglycaemia
D) A person with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has hypersensitivity reactions to metformin
Q4) The majority of cases of diabetes mellitus are type 1.
A)True
B)False
Page 63
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Chapter 62: Medicines Affecting the Adrenal Cortex
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a long-acting corticosteroid?
A) Dexamethasone
B) Cortisone
C) Prednisone
D) Budesonide
Q2) A specific immune-related effect associated with glucocorticoid action is:
A) destabilisation of T lymphocytes.
B) increased protein synthesis.
C) increase in neutrophil and macrophage response.
D) reduction in the size and substance of the lymph nodes and spleen.
Q3) The glucocorticoids have a role in the therapy associated with:
A) diabetes mellitus.
B) osteoporosis.
C) hypovolaemic shock.
D) hypertension.
Q4) During spironolactone therapy,the blood levels of ________ should be monitored.
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) urea
D) calcium
64
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Chapter 63: Medicines and the Gonads
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Q1) Which one of the gonadal hormones induces effects that include increased libido,enhanced red blood cell production and raised basal metabolic rate?
A) Oestrogen
B) Testosterone
C) Progesterone
D) Inhibin
Q2) What is the efficacy rate for emergency contraception when used within 72 hours?
A) 70 per cent
B) 80 per cent
C) 90 per cent
D) 100 per cent
Q3) An adverse effect NOT associated with androgenic drug use is:
A) increased libido.
B) increased aggressiveness.
C) testicular hypertrophy.
D) liver disorders.
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Chapter 64: Medicines and Bone Metabolism
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Q1) Describe the role of parathyroid hormone with regards to regulation of blood calcium levels.
Q2) Osteonecrosis of the jaw is a serious adverse effect of which drug class?
A) Bisphosphonates
B) Calcimimetic agents
C) Monoclonal antibodies
D) Calcitonin
Q3) Which finding would you expect to see with Paget's disease?
A)Hypocalcaemia
B)Hypercalcaemia
C) Decrease in osteoclasts
D)Hypervitaminosis D
Q4) Which of the following is NOT true about vitamin D?
A) Deficiency in the vitamin leads to an increase in bone mineralisation.
B) It is absorbed via the gastrointestinal system from vegetable products and some fish.
C) It is essential in the regulation of calcium and phosphorous in the body.
D) It can be made as long as the skin has enough exposure to UV rays.
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Chapter 65: Hyperuricaemia and Gout
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Q1) Which of the following statements about uric acid is true?
A) It is a product of pyrimidine-based nucleic acid metabolism.
B) It tends to crystallise at relatively low physiological temperatures.
C) Hyperuricaemia always results in gout.
D) Uric acid is very water-soluble in kidney filtrate.
Q2) Which of the following tests is undertaken before using colchicine for gout prophylaxis?
A) A complete blood count
B) A liver function test
C) An electrocardiogram
D) An exercise tolerance test
Q3) A characteristic of gout is that:
A) it manifests as a form of arthritis.
B) it is more prevalent in women.
C) the risk of developing it can be reduced by eating foods such as sardines or offal.
D) it is not associated with any genetic predisposition.
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Chapter 66: Obesity and Its Treatment
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Q1) Which of the following adverse effects would NOT be expected during treatment with a stimulant anorectic?
A) Bradycardia
B) Elevated blood pressure
C) Euphoria
D) Psychological dependence
Q2) Which of the following medications should not be used with the stimulant anorectic phentermine?
A) Amoxycillin
B) Tramadol
C) Paracetamol
D) Metformin
Q3) For maximum benefit from the anorectic agent orlistat,the dose should be taken:
A) with three main meals daily.
B) with the morning meal.
C) with the evening meal.
D) at bedtime.
Q4) Describe some nonpharmacological strategies for weight loss.
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Chapter 67: Introduction to Chemotherapy
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a likely cause of antimicrobial resistance?
A) Using narrow-spectrum antibiotics instead of broad-spectrum antibiotics
B) Excessive use of antibiotics in animals bred for human consumption
C) Failure to conform to the dosing regime
D) Spraying excess antibiotic in the air after drawing it up for injection
Q2) Which of the following antimicrobial agents has a dose-dependent activity on microorganisms?
A) The glycoprotein vancomycin
B) The glycoprotein teicoplanin
C) The penicillin amoxycillin
D) The aminoglycoside gentamicin
Q3) The actions of streptomycin and amikacin:
A) are considered first-line agents for tuberculosis.
B) are ineffective for the bactericidal phase.
C) interfere with protein synthesis.
D) are best mediated by the oral route.
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Chapter 68: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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Q1) The actions of the sulfonamides and trimethoprim:
A) are considered bactericidal.
B) are identical, as they interrupt the process at the same point.
C) interfere with nucleic acid synthesis.
D) are not influenced by folic acid stores.
Q2) A premixed combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is called:
A) trimethoxazole.
B) co-trimoxazole.
C) sulphaprim.
D) blephamide.
Q3) What should a person be advised to do when taking sulfonamide therapy?
A) Ensure an adequate fluid intake.
B) Monitor folate status during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
C) Have a full blood examination during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
D) All of the above.
Q4) Trimethoprim is best taken as a single daily dose:
A) in the morning.
B) at midday.
C) in the mid-afternoon.
D) at bedtime.
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Chapter 69: Antibacterial Agents
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Q1) Colistin is available for delivery by which routes of administration?
A) Intramuscular
B) Intravenous
C) Inhalation
D) All of the above
Q2) What medication regimen is ineffective in treating microorganisms that are part of the ESCAAPPM group?
A) A carbapenem agent
B) A penicillin agent
C) An aminoglycoside agent
D) A fluoroquinolone agent
Q3) Administration of the antibacterial agent ________ may cause prolongation of the QT interval and development of serious ventricular dysrhythmias.
A) erythromycin or clarithromycin
B) benzylpenicillin or amoxycillin
C) tetracycline or doxycycline
D) gentamicin or tobramycin
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Chapter 70: Antituberculotic and Antileprotic Agents
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Q1) An antituberculotic drug with a sterilising action is:
A) isoniazid.
B) ethambutol.
C) rifampicin.
D) gentamicin.
Q2) In the context of antituberculotic drug action,a bactericidal drug:
A) kills all tuberculosis bacteria.
B) targets dividing bacteria.
C) kills persistent dormant bacteria.
D) targets bacteria in the lungs.
Q3) The most active agent for leprosy is:
A) dapsone.
B) rifampicin.
C) thalidomide.
D) streptomycin.
Q4) Which tests should be regularly undertaken during rifampicin therapy?
A) Monitor the full blood count and liver function during the course of therapy.
B) Monitor electrolyte levels and cardiac function during the course of therapy.
C) Monitor renal function and exercise tolerance during the course of therapy.
D) Monitor hearing and eye function during the course of therapy.
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Chapter 71: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Q1) Cetrimide inhibits bacterial growth because of its ________ properties.
A) detergent
B) oxidising
C) alkylating
D) reducing
Q2) What is the indication of topical silver preparations?
A) Burns
B) Acne
C) Eczema
D) Warts
Q3) An example of a disinfectant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
Q4) What is the main difference between antiseptics and disinfectants?
A) Antiseptics are for use on inanimate objects
B) Disinfectants are used on the human body
C) Antiseptics are used on the human body
D) Both can be used on either surface
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Chapter 72: Antiparasitic Agents
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Q1) It has been estimated that the carrier rate of Entamoeba hystolitica in poorly sanitised areas is:
A) 50 per cent.
B) 20 per cent.
C) 10 per cent.
D) 75 per cent.
Q2) ________ should be assessed before and following a long-term course of therapy using chloroquine or its derivatives.
A) Liver enzyme levels
B) Visual acuity
C) Cardiac enzyme levels
D) Urea and creatinine levels
Q3) With which of the following antiparasitic agents should alcohol be strictly avoided in order to prevent a disulfiram-like reaction?
A) Paromomycin
B) Nitazoxanide
C) Metronidazole
D) Quinine
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Chapter 73: Antiviral Agents
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Q1) Enteric-coated capsules of the reverse transcriptase inhibitor didanosine,which can inhibit the replication of the HIV virus,should be taken:
A) on an empty stomach about 30 minutes before food.
B) with the midday meal.
C) with a fatty meal.
D) with a glass of milk.
Q2) The antiviral agents called neuraminidase inhibitors are useful in treating _________ infection.
A) HIV/AIDS
B) respiratory syncytial virus
C) herpes
D) influenza
Q3) What is a key difference between the common cold and influenza?
A) Influenza is a respiratory tract infection.
B) There is a vaccine for influenza.
C) The symptom of a headache is typical of influenza only.
D) The common cold can be treated with antiviral medications.
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Chapter 74: Antifungal Agents
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Q1) Tinea barbae affects the:
A) nails.
B) beard.
C) groin.
D) head.
Q2) ________,which occur in about one-third of individuals on voriconazole,should be regularly monitored.Which changes are reversible when voriconazole therapy is completed?
A) Hearing and vestibular changes
B) Vision changes
C) Muscle strength changes
D) Taste changes
Q3) Tinea cruris is also known as:
A) athlete's foot.
B) ringworm.
C) onychomycosis.
D) jockstrap itch.
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Chapter 75: Immunomodulating Agents
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Q1) When administering non-human antisera to provide temporary immunity for viral or bacterial infection,make sure that ________ is available in case of anaphylaxis.
A) hydrocortisone
B) promethazine
C) noradrenaline
D) adrenaline
Q2) The current hepatitis A vaccine is:
A) an inactivated virus.
B) a recombinant virus.
C) a capsular antigen.
D) a surface antigen.
Q3) Which types of white blood cells are involved in allergic reactions? Select all that apply.
A) Monocytes
B) Eosinophils
C) Basophils
D) Neutrophils
Q4) Describe the difference between the terms vaccination and immunisation.
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Chapter 76: Cytotoxic Chemotherapeutic Agents
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Q1) The stage of the cell cycle characterised by RNA synthesis and rapid growth is called the ________ phase.
A) G1
B) S
C) G2
D) M
Q2) Tretinoin is closely related to which vitamin?
A) Vitamin D
B) Vitamin K
C) Vitamin B
D) Vitamin A
Q3) Antibiotic-type cytotoxic agents such as doxorubicin and dactinomycin should only be administered:
A) orally.
B) intrathecally.
C) subcutaneously.
D) intravenously.
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Chapter 77: Medicines Used in Diseases of the Skin
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Q1) Acne rosacea is best treated with topical:
A) erythromycin.
B) clindamycin.
C) metronidazole.
D) clotrimazole.
Q2) Women of childbearing age should take which precaution with isotretinoin treatment?
A) Avoid sunscreen use.
B) Monitor iron levels.
C) Supplement with folate.
D) Ensure adequate contraception.
Q3) Psoriasis is thought to involve:
A) an inflammatory response involving T cell activation.
B) an allergic reaction where skin mast cells degranulate.
C) immune complexes lodging in the skin and triggering a hypersensitivity reaction.
D) a viral infection of the skin and adjacent mucous membranes.
Q4) Discuss the effects of UV rays on the skin.
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Chapter 78: Medicines and the Eye
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Q1) The middle layer of the eye is called the:
A) fibrous tunic.
B) sclera.
C) vascular tunic.
D) choroid.
Q2) Which is NOT an effective antibiotic for ophthalmic use?
A)Ciprofloxacin
B)Amoxicillin
C)Gentamicin
D)Sulfacetamide
Q3) Which one of the following drug groups is NOT currently used in the management of glaucoma?
A)Anticholinesterases
B)Prostaglandins
C)Diuretics
D)Prostamides
Q4) Describe the pathophysiology of glaucoma.
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Chapter 79: Herbal Medicines
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Q1) Chamomile should be avoided in patients who:
A) have potential for anaphylaxis.
B) are on anticoagulant therapy.
C) are on prescription sleep aids.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Which patient should avoid consuming therapeutic amounts of garlic?
A) Pregnant patients
B) Patients with untreated hyperglycaemia
C) Patients taking paracetamol
D) Patient with hypertension
Q3) List some Common herbal medicines that are unsafe for use in pregnancy.
Q4) Which of the following statements about cranberry are true? Select all that apply.
A) It is safe in pregnancy.
B) Too much can cause renal calculi.
C) Patients should not drink more than 1 litre a day.
D) It is thought to acidify the urine.
Q5) Powdered ginger is less effective than ginger ale.
A)True
B)False
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