Pharmacotherapeutics
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Pharmacotherapeutics is a comprehensive course that explores the principles and applications of drug therapy in the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of diseases. Students will examine how different classes of medications interact with physiological systems, consider factors influencing drug selection and dosing, and analyze therapeutic outcomes. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based decision-making, evaluating the risk-benefit profile of medications, managing adverse effects, and promoting patient safety. Through case studies and clinical scenarios, learners will develop critical thinking skills essential for the rational use of pharmacologic agents in diverse patient populations.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Pharmacology 8th Edition by Shane Bullock
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773 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Sociocultural Aspects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is once-daily dosing preferred for Australian Indigenous peoples?
A) Because Indigenous people generally have a poor memory.
B) Indigenous people have a culturally different concept of time, therefore minimising the number of doses is aimed at promoting compliance.
C) Because once-daily dosing is less likely to cause side effects such as renal disease.
D) All of the above.
Answer: B
Q2) It is best to learn about pharmacology with reference to what particular type of medication names?
A) Chemical names
B) Brand names
C) Generic names
D) Proprietary names
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Health Professionals and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) After giving a verbal order,the health professional must:
A) confirm the verbal order in writing within 48 hours.
B) confirm the verbal order in writing within 24 hours.
C) ensure that the medication is administered by the health professional.
D) ensure that a health professional has co-signed the verbal order.
Answer: B
Q2) Pharmacy medicines are substances that:
A) are available for use but require restriction of manufacture, supply, distribution, possession and use to reduce abuse, misuse and physical or psychological dependence.
B) require professional advice from a pharmacist and should be available from a pharmacy or, where a pharmacy service is not available, from a licensed person.
C) are provided on the order of persons permitted by legislation to prescribe and should be available from a pharmacist on prescription.
D) have a 2 potential for causing harm, the extent of which can be reduced through the use of distinctive packaging with strong warnings and safety directions.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the meaning of the term 'not for resuscitation (NFR)order'?
A) The client will not be resuscitated by health care professionals if they suffer a cardiac or respiratory arrest.
B) The client will not receive admission to the intensive care unit.
C) The client will not receive full nursing care.
D) The client will not receive ventilatory and inotropic support.
Answer: A
Q2) Macroallocation and microallocation of resources are principles related to what aspect of ethical conduct?
A) Autonomy
B) Beneficence
C) Veracity
D) Justice
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
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Q1) In their role as client advocate,health professionals inform people about their rights in relation to drug therapy,other health care-related matters,or when confronted by adversaries,to empower them to make informed decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A client is recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.Her mother has also been diagnosed some years ago.Which of the following teaching principles will be most helpful in client teaching?
A) Passive participation
B) Prior knowledge and experience
C) Repetition will not be required.
D) The patient is genetically predisposed to be prepared for accompanying pain.
Q3) Which of the following factors has an effect on medication adherence? Select all that apply.
A) Age extremes
B) Communication barriers
C) Polypharmacy
D) Single illness with uncomplicated treatment regimen
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Chapter 5: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
Professionals in Medicine Management
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Q1) The target group for a medication review by pharmacists are individuals who:
A) are at risk of medication misuse due to age, social circumstances, complexity of their medication regimen, their health care status, and knowledge about their medicines.
B) are recommended to have a review by their general practitioner.
C) live in a nursing home.
D) live at home alone.
Q2) Dietitians are legally allowed to administer medications to clients.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Naturopaths may:
A) prescribe any medicines that will have a holistic effect on their client.
B) recommend and dispense doses of herbal, mineral and animal-based products.
C) prescribe Schedule 1--3 medications only.
D) none of the above.
Q4) The evolution of nurses into practitioners with prescribing abilities is an example of how roles have changed in relation to drug therapy.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Medicine Formulations, Storage and Routes of Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs of biological origin such as vaccine preparations need to be stored
A) between 25°C and 37°C.
B) at room temperature.
C) between 10°C and 20°C.
D) between 0°C and 4°C.
Q2) Is it problematic to administer heparin via intramuscular injection?
A) No, intramuscular and subcutaneous administration are both safe and effective.
B) No, as long as the dose is appropriate.
C) Yes, it can cause a haematoma to form.
D) Yes, limited blood flow to skeletal muscles causes reduced bioavailability of the drug.
Q3) Which is true of a linctus?
A) It needs to be stored at or below 25°C.
B) It is administered without water.
C) It is a viscous liquid with expectorant, sedating and cough-suppressing properties.
D) All of the above.
Q4) What effect does exercise have on absorption of a drug that is administered by intramuscular injection?
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Chapter 7: the Clinical Decision-making Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nursing clinical decision-making process involves the following steps:
A) assessment, planning and implementation.
B) assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.
C) assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation.
D) assessment and evaluation.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Australia's National Medicines Policy?
A) Timely access to the medicines that Australians need, at a cost individuals and the community can afford
B) Medicines meeting appropriate standards of quality, safety and efficacy
C) Quality use of medicines
D) Consumers and health professionals communicating effectively about medicines management
Q3) New Zealand is the only country worldwide that has a comprehensive medicinal policy at the Commonwealth level.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Medicine Administration Strategies and Documentation
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Q1) How many registered nurses are needed to check information for administration of drugs such as narcotic analgesics,digoxin and warfarin?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) More than five
Q2) Only one registered nurse's signature is sufficient for checking of documentation procedures of the following EXCEPT for:
A) blood transfusions.
B) orally administered drugs and intermittent intravenous drugs.
C) intravenous fluids.
D) once-only or nurse-initiated drugs.
Q3) A health professional is required to practice within the policies and procedures of the health care agency and to follow the legal framework of government legislation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Medication Errors
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to avoid medication errors,it is a good strategy to have two patients with the same name positioned:
A) next to each other.
B) opposite each other.
C) next to the central office area.
D) at opposite ends of the hospital ward.
Q2) Which of the following are potential sources of medical errors? Select all that apply.
A) The wrong dose of a medication is given.
B) The person's identity is not checked.
C) The manufacturer changes inert ingredients.
D) The person takes all of their medicines at the same time every day.
Q3) Following the five rights"will help reduce medication errors.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Management of Common Adverse Drug
Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Postural hypotension is an adverse effect often associated with drugs that:
A) block \(\alpha\)-adrenoceptors.
B) stimulate \(\alpha\)-adrenoreceptors.
C) block \(\beta\)-adrenoreceptors
D) stimulate \(\beta\)-adrenoreceptors
Q2) Which drug is the most common cause of an anaphylactic reaction?
A) Aspirin
B) Contrast media
C) Penicillin
D) Transfused blood
Q3) Aplastic anaemia caused by chloramphenicol is an example of type B adverse drug reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A conscious client with respiratory depression should be placed in a:
A) flat position.
B) semi-upright position.
C) side position.
D) prone position.
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Chapter 11: Risk Communication: Balancing the Benefits and Risks of Drug Treatment
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Q1) The ratio of the incidence of the adverse event in those individuals who take the medicine to the incidence of those who do not take the medicine is known as:
A) presumptive risk.
B) relative risk.
C) absolute risk.
D) implied risk.
Q2) Although few,there are risk-free medications in use.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following strategies would NOT be beneficial in communicating risks and benefits to individuals?
A) Offer balanced information.
B) Use specific, descriptive terms for risk.
C) Use a consistent denominator.
D) Use visual aids.
Q4) Another name for absolute risk is risk difference.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Drug Nomenclature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individual drugs can be classified according to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) therapeutic use.
B) mode of action.
C) molecular structure.
D) adverse drug reaction.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a generic drug name used in Australia and New Zealand?
A) Frusemide
B) Furomide
C) Furosemide
D) Lasix
Q3) Drugs with generic names that end in the suffix -pril are members of the drug group called:
A) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) serotonin receptor antagonists.
D) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
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Chapter 13: Pharmacokinetics: Absorption and Distribution
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Q1) Drugs are best absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract if they are:
A) hydrophilic.
B) amphipathic.
C) lipophobic.
D) lipophilic.
Q2) Drugs that are liver enzyme inducers may:
A) increase a drug's half-life.
B) increase a drug's metabolism.
C) inhibit a drug's therapeutic effect.
D) increase tissue distribution of another drug.
Q3) If a drug accumulates in one tissue (that is,the drug is extensively bound to a tissue),its volume of distribution is low.
A)True
B)False
Q4) By which route are drugs not subject to the physiological process of absorption through a blood vessel wall?
A) Intramuscularly
B) Intradermally
C) Intravenously
D) Subcutaneously
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Chapter 14: Pharmacokinetics Metabolism and Excretion
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Q1) To elicit a rapid systemic effect,the route that will enable the maximum bioavailability is:
A) intramuscular.
B) oral.
C) intravenous.
D) intradermal.
Q2) Phase 1 metabolism of a drug can involve:
A) glucuronidation.
B) sulphation.
C) conjugation.
D) oxidation.
Q3) Glyceryl trinitrate is almost 96 per cent destroyed by the liver on its first journey through.It is therefore referred to as having a:
A) low hepatic first-pass effect.
B) medium hepatic first-pass effect
C) high hepatic first-pass effect.
D) high metabolic first-pass effect.
Q4) Explain what is meant by drug clearance.
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Chapter 15: Drug Interactions
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Q1) The drug interactions that occur with cimetidine are usually due to:
A) enzyme inhibition.
B) enzyme induction.
C) protein binding.
D) summation.
Q2) When suxamethonium and thiopentone are mixed in the same syringe,the drug-drug interaction that results is:
A) summation.
B) chemical drug incompatibility.
C) potentiation.
D) augmentation.
Q3) A common drug-food interaction is between grapefruit juice and: A) aspirin.
B) paracetamol.
C) felodipine.
D) ibuprofen.
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Chapter 16: Pharmacodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pharmacodynamics describes the physiological processes that act on a drug once it enters the body,or how the body handles the drug.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which one of the following statements about pharmacodynamics is true?
A) A partial agonist can be as effective as an antagonist.
B) Ion channels do not have receptors.
C) Second messenger systems always involve G-proteins.
D) The antiasthma agent theophylline acts via a tyrosine kinase-linked receptor.
Q3) When a drug acts through non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme,it:
A) can be overcome by giving more of the enzyme substrate.
B) is usually reversible.
C) binds to a distinct site away from the active site.
D) is lethal to the person receiving treatment.
Q4) In disrupting the synthesis of folic acid in bacteria,sulfonamides act:
A) as competitive inhibitors.
B) as non-competitive inhibitors.
C) by physical action.
D) by none of the above.
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Chapter 17: Drug Development, Evaluation and Safety
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Q1) Only a few medicines are excreted in breast milk.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The transfer of drugs from the maternal circulation into fetal circulation depends on the dose and physicochemical properties of the drug,and transplacental transport systems.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following tests characterises the drug screening process?
A) Testing for drug potency in humans
B) The monitoring of adverse effects after the drug is released into the marketplace
C) The identification of a chemical with potential therapeutic action
D) The assessment of drug toxicity in animals
Q4) A protein-bound drug may get displaced by another drug through competition for binding sites on plasma proteins.The displaced drug may then exert toxicity if it has a lower margin of safety.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Genetic Considerations in Pharmacology
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Q1) A client that you are caring for has advanced kidney disease and is about to commence drug therapy.In order to maintain safe plasma drug levels,the prescriber might have to consider:
A) increasing the dosage.
B) decreasing the dosage.
C) increasing the frequency of dosing.
D) increasing the dose and frequency of administration.
Q2) Which one of the following factors is likely to result in higher plasma drug levels?
A) Taking a water-soluble drug during a meal
B) Administering a drug orally when a client is experiencing an episode of severe diarrhoea
C) Administering the narcotic analgesic morphine to a person with cirrhosis of the liver
D) Administering a drug that is subject to significant metabolism to a person whose occupation involves handling chemicals that induce microsomal enzymes.
Q3) Cost-effectiveness is a potential barrier to genetic-based therapies.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Pharmacokinetic Factors That Modify Drug Action
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Q1) Which one of the following factors would not be expected to increase the rate of drug absorption from the small intestines?
A) A small-sized drug molecule
B) Delayed gastric emptying
C) An increase in gut blood flow
D) The majority of drug molecules in an un-ionised state
Q2) During pregnancy,drug absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is variable and unpredictable due to slowed peristalsis and gastric emptying.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Paediatric and Geriatric Pharmacology
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Q1) Compared to a young adult,which of the following tends to increase in the elderly?
A) The rate of gastric emptying
B) Plasma protein concentration
C) Metabolic processes
D) Adipose tissue levels
Q2) Paediatric drug dosage can be calculated by using the body surface area,age and bodyweight.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following would assist in medication adherence for the older person?
A) Simple medicine regimens
B) Use of medication aids
C) Improved communication
D) All of the above
Q4) Compared to neonates,do the elderly have greater or diminished drug effects due to variation in the volume of body fluid?
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Chapter 21: Poisoning and Envenomation
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Q1) AZ is a 62-year-old farmer who is brought in to the emergency department for the management of organophosphate poisoning.How should this be managed?
A) Administration of vitamin K
B) Administration of atropine
C) Administration of diphenhydramine
D) Administration of dicobalt edetate
Q2) Which of the following best characterizes the mode of action of cyanide poisoning?
A) Central nervous system depressant
B) Displaces essential trace elements and accumulates in tissues
C) Permanently disables the enzyme cholinesterase
D) Diminishes cellular energy
Q3) Which of the following is an iron chelating agent?
A) Disodium edetate
B) Deferasirox
C) d-penicillamine
D) Calcium gluconate
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Chapter 22: the Management of Acute Clinical Overdose
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Q1) In order to facilitate the pooling of stomach contents and hinder their movement into the duodenum,an unconscious person undergoing gastric lavage needs to be positioned:
A) on their back.
B) on their right side.
C) on their left side.
D) in a semi-recumbent position
Q2) Which one of the following is NOT a component of patient assessment in the management of clinical drug overdose?
A) Determining the time that poisoning occurred
B) Determining if the client had any previous episodes of drug overdose
C) Recognising the clinical manifestations of the overdose
D) Ordering laboratory tests of the patient's blood
Q3) For which principle associated with the management of clinical drug overdose is gastric lavage a component?
A) Client assessment
B) Life support
C) Drug decontamination and detoxification
D) Drug neutralisation and elimination
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24
Chapter 23: Contemporary Drugs of Abuse
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Q1) Which of the following medications can be used to treat alcohol addiction?
A) Metronidazole
B) Disulfiram
C) Acamprosate
D) Both B and C
Q2) Therapeutic uses of marijuana include:
A) glaucoma.
B) emesis control.
C) hypertension.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is a symptom of caffeine withdrawal?
A) Hallucinations
B) Palpitations
C) Headaches
D) Muscle tremors
Q4) Nicotine can have the following effect EXCEPT:
A) weight gain.
B) stimulation.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) appetite suppression.
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Chapter 24: Drug Abuse in Sport
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Q1) Which one of the following could be perceived as a benefit associated with anabolic-androgenic steroid use?
A) Mood swings
B) Premature completion of long bone growth
C) Increased skeletal muscle mass
D) An altered blood lipid profile
Q2) Which one of the following is considered a banned substance by WADA?
A) Caffeine
B) Alcohol
C) Pseudoephedrine
D) Diuretics
Q3) One rationale given for misuse of narcotic agents by sportspeople is to:
A) induce anabolic effects.
B) produce euphoria.
C) promote aggression.
D) increase blood oxygen-carrying capacity.
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Chapter 25: General Aspects of Neuropharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in autonomic nervous system (ANS)function?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Vasopressin
C) Acetylcholine
D) Dobutamine
Q2) What effect does the parasympathetic system have on the heart?
A) Increases heart rate
B) Decreases heart rate
C) Causes vasodilation
D) Increases the force of the heart
Q3) Sympathetic stimulation would result in which one of the following sets of responses?
A) Increased gastric juice secretion and increased heart rate
B) Sweating, urinary retention, salivation and pupil dilation
C) Increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, defecation and erection of genitalia
D) Slowed heart rate, increased blood pressure, pupil constriction and pallor
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Chapter 26: Adrenergic Pharmacology
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Q1) The second messenger system associated with \(\beta\) -adrenergic receptor stimulation involves the:
A) activation of inositol triphosphate production.
B) inhibition of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production.
C) inhibition of inositol triphosphate production.
D) activation of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production.
Q2) A clinical use for \(\beta_{1} \) antagonists is in the treatment of:
A) tachycardia.
B) hypertension.
C) COPD.
D) Both A and B.
Q3) Which of the following adrenergic receptors are found abundantly in the myocardium?
A) <sub>1</sub>
B) <sub>2</sub>
C) <sub>1</sub>
D <sub>2</sub>
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28
Chapter 27: Cholinergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Muscarinic antagonists have been used as:
A) antispasmodics.
B) antiulcerants.
C) antiemetics.
D) All of the above
Q2) Acetylcholinesterase breaks acetylcholine into choline and acetate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Following the administration of muscarinic agonist eyedrops,the client should be instructed to:
A) lie down.
B) rinse the eye with saline solution.
C) perform eye muscle exercises.
D) avoid driving and working with dangerous tools.
Q4) Where are nicotinic receptors located?
A) Sweat glands
B) Lacrimal glands
C) Neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscles
D) Digestive glands
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Chapter 28: An Introduction to Chemical Mediators
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Q1) Mediators that induce their effect without entering the circulation are referred to as:
A) hormones.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) autacoids.
D) second messengers.
Q2) Which of the following mediators acts on a distant target?
A) Neurotransmitter
B) Classic hormone
C) Local hormone
D) Autacoid
Q3) Which of the following mediators is released directly into the bloodstream?
A) Hormones
B) Neurotransmitters
C) Autacoids
D) None of the above
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Chapter 29: Histamine and Antihistamines
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Q1) How many subtypes of H<sub>1</sub> receptors have been identified?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Q2) Which of the following mediators plays a role in modulating allergic reactions?
A) Serotonin
B) Histamine
C) Pepsin
D) None of the above
Q3) Antihistamines are used for the treatment of:
A) allergies.
B) anaphylactic reactions.
C) depression.
D) both A and B.
Q4) First-generation antihistamines have a longer duration of action.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Prostaglandins and Serotonin
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Q1) Common eicosanoids include:
A) thromboxanes.
B) leukotrienes.
C) hydroperoxyeicosatrienoic acids.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Drugs that inhibit the synaptic serotonin reuptake are used for:
A) autism.
B) depression.
C) glaucoma.
D) termination of pregnancy.
Q3) Prostaglandin analogues have been used for:
A) termination of pregnancy.
B) glaucoma.
C) treatment of impotence.
D) all of the above.
Q4) 5-HT<sub>3</sub> receptor antagonists have been used for: A) nausea.
B) somnolence.
C) REMS sleep disorder.
D) GERD.
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Chapter 31: Nitric Oxide and the Endothelins
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Q1) Which secondary messenger is associated with endothelin receptors?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D
Q2) Endothelin receptor antagonists have been used for the treatment of:
A) pulmonary hypertension.
B) ischemic valve disease.
C) peripheral vascular disease.
D) none of the above.
Q3) Endothelin receptor antagonists can be used safely in pregnant patients.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How many endothelin receptor subtypes have been identified?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
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Page 33
Chapter 32: General concepts of Psychopharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major inhibitory neurotransmitter is:
A) dopamine.
B) glutamate.
C) serotonin.
D) GABA.
Q2) The transmitter associated with emesis is:
A) dopamine.
B) serotonin.
C) noradrenaline.
D) acetylcholine.
Q3) Which description best matches the role of the thalamus?
A) A sorting area for sensory and motor impulses that relays the information to the most appropriate brain region
B) An area involved in appetite, body temperature, thirst and hormone release
C) The area involved in the primary perception and interpretation of sensation as well as the initiation of skeletal muscle movement
D) A region involved in equilibrium, postural control and coordinated movement
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34
Chapter 33: Antipsychotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cholestatic jaundice can occur with which phenothiazine antipsychotic agent,therefore requiring cessation of the agent?
A) Fluphenazine
B) Pericyazine
C) Chlorpromazine
D) Pipothiazine
Q2) Which dopamine receptor is most frequently associated with psychotic illness?
A) D1
B) D2
C) D3
D) D4
Q3) Akathisia,dystonic reactions and tardive dyskinesia are extrapyramidal symptoms associated with:
A) antipsychotic use of some agents.
B) anxiolytics.
C) hypnotics.
D) tetracyclic antidepressants.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Anxiolytics and Hypnotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why hypnotic agents should not be used for long-term therapy.
Q2) Which of the following benzodiazepine agents would be suitable for a plane journey where the traveller is having trouble getting to sleep?
A) Clobazam
B) Diazepam
C) Triazolam
D) Nitrazepam
Q3) Which benzodiazepine is sometimes useful in the treatment of endogenous depression?
A) Alprazolam
B) Triazolam
C) Diazepam
D) Flunitrazepam
Q4) More than how many weeks of continuous treatment with benzodiazepines results in dependence and tolerance?
A) One week
B) Two to four weeks
C) Four to six weeks
D) Six to eight weeks
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Chapter 35: Antidepressants and Mood Stabilisers
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adverse effect profile of antimuscarinic and antiadrenergic activity and potentially lethal cardiac dysrhythmias is characteristic of which antidepressant drug group?
A) Non-selective MAO inhibitors
B) Tricyclic antidepressants
C) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
D) Tetracyclic antidepressants
Q2) Which of the following practices is NOT associated with rational prescribing of antidepressants?
A) The use of a combination of antidepressant agents is the best way of treating depression.
B) When changing antidepressant agents, the patient should have a 'washout' period.
C) If one antidepressant does not work at therapeutic doses, the patient should be changed to another antidepressant.
D) Significant antidepressant benefit is not apparent immediately upon starting treatment. The prescriber should wait three to four weeks before assessing the benefit.
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Chapter 36: Medicines Used in Neurodegenerative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr Penson was being treated with drugs for Parkinson's disease and noted an increase in his libido.What drug may have caused this?
A) The dopamine precursor, levodopa
B) The antimuscarinic, benzhexol
C) Amantadine
D) The MAO-B inhibitor, selegiline
Q2) Which of the following is not an appropriate clinical management activity in relation to tetrabenazine therapy for Huntington's disease?
A) The client should avoid drinking alcohol with tetrabenazine.
B) Therapy is stopped if dysphagia or choking occurs.
C) If depression occurs, the dose of tetrabenazine is reduced or treatment is stopped.
D) The dose of tetrabenazine is reduced gradually over two days to prevent rebound involuntary movements.
Q3) Neuroleptic drug-induced Parkinsonian symptoms are often treated with:
A) an antimuscarinic agent.
B) a serotonin receptor agonist.
C) an antiemetic agent.
D) an increase in neuroleptic dose.
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Chapter 37: Antiseizure Agents and Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antiseizure medications is associated with severe skin reactions?
A) Valproic acid
B) Phenytoin
C) Vigabatrin
D) Lamotrigine
Q2) Which of the following drug mechanisms of action is desirable in the management of seizures?
A) The stabilisation of the nerve membrane
B) Inhibiting the action of glutamate
C) The enhancement of GABA activity
D) All of the above
Q3) As well as an antiseizure agent,phenytoin is also used for treating:
A) dysrhythmia.
B) ADHD.
C) migraine.
D) Parkinson's disease.
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Chapter 38: Central Nervous System Stimulants
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Sample Questions
Q1) 'Drug holidays' from dexamphetamine may be important to avoid:
A) addiction.
B) growth retardation.
C) insomnia.
D) cognitive impairment.
Q2) Behaviour associated with ADD in children includes: A) forgetfulness.
B) daydreaming.
C) lack of interest.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Modafinil is useful in the treatment of:
A) ADD.
B) ADHD.
C) narcolepsy.
D) amphetamine addiction.
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Chapter 39: Opioid Analgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of oxycodone?
A) It has less of a hepatic first pass than morphine.
B) It has a shorter half-life than morphine.
C) It comes as a suppository formulation, which is useful for overnight analgesia.
D) It comes as a scored tablet formulation, which can be crushed and given with water to clients who have difficulties in swallowing tablets whole.
Q2) Which of the following narcotics has a prolonged duration of action?
A) Pethidine
B) Methadone
C) Codeine
D) Fentanyl
Q3) The opioid tramadol should be avoided in clients with:
A) epilepsy.
B) a heart condition.
C) asthma.
D) liver disease.
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 10 Verified Questions 10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Extreme diligence should be exercised in administering the correct dose of paracetamol to children because overdose can lead to:
A) gastrointestinal bleeding.
B) renal failure.
C) inhibition of the hypothalamic control on temperature.
D) liver damage.
Q2) The combined use of salicylates and corticosteroids may lead to ________ and should therefore be avoided.
A) tinnitus
B) renal failure
C) peptic ulceration
D) liver failure
Q3) Controlled-release preparations of ketoprofen should be taken ________ to improve the symptoms of arthritic pain.
A) immediately after meals
B) 15 minutes before physical activity
C) at bedtime
D) upon rising in the morning
Q4) Describe the effects of prostaglandins on inflammation and pain.
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Chapter 41: Medicines Used to Treat Migraine
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Sample Questions
Q1) First-line therapy for an acute migraine attack includes:
A) triptans.
B) paracetamol.
C) ergotamine.
D) tricyclic antidepressants.
Q2) In treating an acute migraine attack,sumatriptan should not be given with ergotamine because the combination may lead to:
A) excessive bronchoconstriction.
B) excessive vasoconstriction.
C) gastrointestinal bleeding.
D) excessive diuresis.
Q3) Preventive therapies for migraine should be used for a period of:
A) three to six days.
B) three to six weeks.
C) three to six months.
D) six to twelve months.
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43
Chapter 42: General Anaesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rate of absorption of inhaled anaesthetic into the bloodstream is dependent on the ________ of the gas.
A) rate of osmosis
B) partial pressure
C) volume
D) surfactant levels
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of nitrous oxide as an inhalational anaesthetic?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Surgical procedures involving the middle ear
C) Tachycardia
D) Intestinal obstruction
Q3) Intrathecal administration of anaesthetic produces:
A) profound anaesthesia with a small dose.
B) a mild analgesic effect with a small dose.
C) analgesia via the nerve roots that communicate with the epidural space.
D) no analgesic effect; this route of administration is inappropriate to achieve analgesia.
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Chapter 43: Local Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following routes of administration has the highest rate of systemic absorption of local anaesthetic agents?
A) Epidural administration
B) Intercostal administration
C) Subcutaneous administration
D) Brachial plexus administration
Q2) The mechanism of action of the local anaesthetics is to impede the movement of which ion through its membrane channels?
A) Calcium
B) Potassium
C) Sodium
D) GABA
Q3) Which of the following local anaesthetics has a relatively long duration of action?
A) Procaine
B) Lignocaine
C) Bupivacaine
D) Mepivacaine
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Chapter 44: Medicines Used to Lower Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) When timing the dose for the fibrate gemfibrozil,the patient should be advised to take it:
A) at bedtime.
B) upon arising in the morning.
C) with food.
D) half an hour before food.
Q2) Which of the following are not considered good strategies to combat high cholesterol levels and reduce the need for medications?
A)Increasing salt intake
B)Using low- or no-fat dairy products
C)Exercising
D)Increasing consumption of fruits and vegetables
Q3) Long-term statin therapy has been linked to an increased incidence of:
A) stroke.
B) heart disease.
C) cataract development.
D) Alzheimer's disease.
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Chapter 45: Antihypertensive Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following chemical mediators can alter blood pressure via vasodilation?
A) Nitric oxide
B) Endothelin-1
C) ANF
D) Vasopressin
Q2) Which of the following medications used for hypertensive emergencies dilates both arteries and veins?
A)Hydralazine
B)Minoxidil
C)Sodium nitroprusside
D)Diazoxide
Q3) A hormone that affects blood pressure by facilitating an increased excretion of sodium and water is:
A) aldosterone.
B) ADH (vasopressin).
C) ANF.
D) oestrogen.
Q4) Describe the method of action of ACE inhibitors.
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Chapter 46: Medicines Used to Promote Tissue Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the treatment of erectile dysfunction,phosphodiesterase inhibitors:
A) act to trigger the release of nitric oxide.
B) are used when the cause is psychological.
C) may interact negatively with organic nitrate therapy.
D) must be administered directly into the penis.
Q2) To avoid tolerance associated with continuous use of nitrate patches,the patient should be advised to:
A) only apply the patches in the morning and evening.
B) only apply the patches when the angina symptoms become apparent.
C) have a nitrate-free period from the patches for about 12 hours each day.
D) only apply the patches at bedtime.
Q3) Which of the following nitrate formulations is not used to prevent angina symptoms?
A) Oral isosorbide dinitrate controlled-release tablets
B) Oral isosorbide mononitrate controlled-release tablets
C) Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate
D) Sublingual isosorbide dinitrate
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Chapter 47: Antithrombotic, Fibrinolytic and Haemostatic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a tissue is injured,the process of clotting begins.Which statement is true about that process?
A)Thrombin forms prothrombin.
B)The process is dependent on intrinsic and extrinsic pathways.
C)Potassium ions play a crucial role in clotting.
D)Fibrin forms fibrinogen.
Q2) Which one of the following is an endogenous substance known to inhibit coagulation?
A) cAMP
B) Thromboxane A<sub>2</sub>
C) ADP
D) von Willebrand factor
Q3) The antiplatelet agent abciximab is structurally related to A) calcium channel blockers.
B) a bacterial enzyme.
C) the ADP receptor.
D) a vaccine.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Diuretics and Other Renal Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hypokalaemia that may be induced by a loop diuretic can be lessened or prevented by concurrent use of:
A) potassium chloride.
B) an angiotensin II receptor antagonist.
C) an ACE inhibitor.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Urinary alkalisation is possible only if creatinine clearance is at what level?
A)At least 20 mL/min
B)At least 30 mL/min
C)No more than 30 mL/min
D)No more than 20 mL/min
Q3) Which of the following diuretic agents is not recommended to be given with an ACE inhibitor?
A) Chlorothiazide
B) Frusemide
C) Ethacrynic acid
D) Spironolactone
Q4) Explain why acidification of urine might be undertaken in individuals with urinary tract infections or urinary catheters.
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Chapter 49: Topic: Medicines Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) To use ivabradine,the patient's heart rate must be at least ________ beats per minute.
A)50
B)60
C)70
D)80
Q2) Milrinone is an example of what type of cardiac drug?
A) -blockers
B)Calcium channel blockers
C)ACE inhibitors
D)Inotropic vasodilators
Q3) When the left side of the heart fails,what symptoms result?
A)Splenic congestion
B)Peripheral oedema
C)Pulmonary congestion
D)Hepatic congestion
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Chapter 50: Medicines Used to Treat Cardiac Dysrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of a prodysrhythmic agent?
A)Fexofenadine
B)Clarithromycin
C)Haloperidol
D)All of the above
Q2) Which one of the following mechanisms describes the general action of antidysrhythmic agents?
A) Impeding the movement of ions across cardiac cell membranes
B) Enhancing cardiac automaticity
C) Shortening the cardiac action potential
D) Enhancing impulse conduction in the heart
Q3) Which phase of the cardiac action potential is characterised by the opening of the sodium channel activation gate?
A) Phase 0
B) Phase 1
C) Phase 2
D) Phase 3
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52
Chapter 51: Fluid and Potassium Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intravenous potassium should never be administered:
A) through a peripheral line.
B) through the subclavian vein.
C) as a bolus through the side arm of the intravenous line.
D) through the jugular vein.
Q2) Which patient would likely have the greatest amount of body fluid?
A)A middle-aged man
B)A teenage girl
C)A toddler
D)A premature infant
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a potential treatment of severe hyperkalaemia?
A)Peritoneal dialysis
B)Intravenous frusemide
C)Oral ion exchange resin
D)Intravenous glucose with insulin given concurrently
Q4) Which of the following is an example of an isotonic solution?
A) 4% glucose with 0.18% sodium chloride
B) 0.45% sodium chloride
C) 10% glucose
D) 25% mannitol
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Chapter 52: Antianaemic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The form of erythropoietin for clinical use:
A) may induce a hypertensive state during therapy.
B) is extracted from human urine.
C) induces a rise in haemoglobin levels within two days of starting therapy.
D) contains iron supplements in order to facilitate haemoglobin production.
Q2) The absorption of iron in the gut may be enhanced by :
A) vitamin A.
B) vitamin E.
C) vitamin C.
D) folate.
Q3) Which of the follow is standard therapy in non-myeloid anaemia?
A) Ferrous sulfate
B) Folic acid
C) Erythropoietin
D) Parenteral B<sub>12</sub>
Q4) Which one of the following is considered a cause of anaemia?
A) Vitamin D<sub>3</sub> deficiency
B) Exposure to anabolic steroids
C) Chronic renal failure
D) Elemental iron overload
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Chapter 53: Medicines Used to Maintain Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mechanism of action of the respiratory stimulant doxapram?
A)It acts on the medulla.
B)It acts on the cerebellum.
C)It acts in the midbrain.
D)It acts in the cerebral cortex.
Q2) Which one of the following antiasthma agents acts directly on intracellular cAMP levels?
A) Muscarinic antagonists
B) Methylxanthines
C) agonists
D) Leukotriene receptor antagonists
Q3) Which of the following actions will NOT reduce the effectiveness of acetylcysteine nebuliser solution used for the treatment of cystic fibrosis?
A) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and rubber
B) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and iron
C) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and copper
D) Diluting the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution with equal volumes of sodium chloride
0.9%
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55
Chapter 54: Medicines for Upper Respiratory Tract
Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nasal decongestants are contraindicated in patients taking:
A) antihistamines.
B) certain types of antidepressants.
C) antitussive agents.
D) salicylate preparations.
Q2) Which substances are responsible for the symptoms of upper respiratory illnesses?
A)Prostaglandins and mast cells
B)Prostaglandins and histamine
C)Antihistamines and mast cells
D)Antihistamines and leukotrienes
Q3) Cough suppressants should not be given to children under ________ years of age.
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2
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56
Chapter 55: Upper Gastrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how a hiatus hernia can cause gastric reflux.
Q2) Ranitidine is an example of which class of medicines?
A) Proton pump inhibitor
B) H<sub>2</sub> antagonist
C) Antacid
D) Prostaglandin
Q3) Which of the following are considered adjuncts to peptic ulcer therapy? Select all that apply.
A) Belladonna alkaloids
B) Glycopyrrolate
C) Alginates
D) Ibuprofen
Q4) Omeprazole is an example of a:
A) proton pump inhibitor.
B) H<sub>2</sub> antagonist.
C) prostaglandin analogue.
D) cytoprotective.
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Chapter 56: Lower Castrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) In perianal disease,________ laxatives should be used to prevent straining.
A) stimulant
B) lubricant
C) bulk
D) softener
Q2) Constipation may be best avoided in many cases by increasing dietary levels of:
A) alcohol.
B) lipids.
C) fibre.
D) meat.
Q3) Tumour necrosis factor-\(\alpha\) antagonists are used as a treatment for which disorder?
A) Haemorrhoids
B) Constipation
C) Crohn's disease
D) GORD
Q4) Outline the potential benefits of peppermint oil in the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome.
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Chapter 57: Antiemetic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is important to advise a person who is pregnant about the possible teratogenetic effects of antiemetics during the:
A) first trimester of pregnancy.
B) second trimester of pregnancy.
C) third trimester of pregnancy.
D) labour period.
Q2) Which is true of the chemoreceptor trigger zone?
A) It is situated inside the blood-brain barrier.
B) It resides within the medulla.
C) It is a sensory relay area.
D) It controls vomiting but not nausea.
Q3) Which of the following antiemetics is a serotonin antagonist?
A) Dimenhydrinate
B) Metoclopramide
C) Ondansetron
D) Hyoscine
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Chapter 58: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what rate are enteral feeds usually commenced?
A) 100 mL per hour.
B) 30 mL per hour.
C) 10 mL per hour.
D) 60 mL per hour.
Q2) A complication of bolus feeds compared to continuous infusion in individuals with a nasogastric tube is:
A) diarrhoea.
B) feed contamination.
C) ileus.
D) gastric bleeding.
Q3) Which of the following measures would not improve the management of diarrhoea during enteral feeding?
A) Select a feed with a high fat content.
B) Decrease the rate of feed.
C) Remove the feed from the refrigerator about half an hour before administration.
D) Administer an iso-osmolar feed rather than a hyperosmolar feed.
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Chapter 59: Medicines and the Pituitary Gland
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group of drugs that act on the pituitary are given to prevent premature ovulation associated with assisted reproduction?
A) Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone antagonists
B) Partial oestrogen agonists
C) Dopamine agonists
D) Gonadotrophins
Q2) What is the indication for clomiphene?
A) Contraception
B) Ovulatory failure
C) Treatment of ovarian cancers
D) Treatment of growth disorders
Q3) When administering somatropin produced from recombinant DNA technology in a young child,it is important to monitor:
A) urinary levels of potassium and sodium.
B) for limping.
C) serum levels of potassium and sodium.
D) for Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
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Chapter 60: Medicines and the Thyroid
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following physiological responses is not associated with thyroid hormones?
A) The facilitation of normal musculoskeletal growth
B) Glucose storage in the liver
C) The normal development of the nervous system
D) Normal lactation
Q2) Generally,L-thyroxine is preferable to liothyronine as therapy in hypothyroid states because:
A) it has a longer duration of action.
B) it is less cardiotoxic.
C) levels are easier to monitor.
D) all of the above.
Q3) The clinical effects of thionamides for hyperthyroid states do not become apparent until stores of thyroid hormones become depleted,which takes about ________ days after the start of therapy.
A) 2 to 3
B) 5 to 7
C) 7 to 14
D) 21 to 28
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Chapter 61: Medicines and the Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drug group that tends to raise blood glucose levels is the:
A) anabolic steroids.
B) oral contraceptives.
C) NSAIDs in high dosage.
D) monoamine oxidase inhibitors.
Q2) Another medication besides insulin that is injected for treatment of types 2 diabetes is from the group of:
A) thiazolidinediones.
B) biguanides.
C) sulfonylureas.
D) incretin-enhancing agents.
Q3) A patient is newly diagnosed with borderline type 2 diabetes.Which steps would be appropriate?
A) A focus on diet and exercise
B) Starting insulin
C) Considering metformin
D) Both A and C
Q4) The majority of cases of diabetes mellitus are type 1.
A)True
B)False
Page 63
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Chapter 62: Medicines Affecting the Adrenal Cortex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following corticosteroids is classified as an intermediate-acting agent?
A) Hydrocortisone
B) Dexamethasone
C) Prednisolone
D) Betamethasone
Q2) During spironolactone therapy,the blood levels of ________ should be monitored.
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) urea
D) calcium
Q3) A specific immune-related effect associated with glucocorticoid action is:
A) destabilisation of T lymphocytes.
B) increased protein synthesis.
C) increase in neutrophil and macrophage response.
D) reduction in the size and substance of the lymph nodes and spleen.
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64
Chapter 63: Medicines and the Gonads
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Sample Questions
Q1) A major consideration associated with the progestogen-only contraceptive pill is:
A) that it cannot be used in women who are breastfeeding.
B) it increases the risk of breast cancer.
C) it has an increased failure rate compared to the oestrogen-progestogen combinations.
D) if you are intolerant to an oestrogen-progestogen combination, you cannot use this preparation either.
Q2) An adverse effect NOT associated with androgenic drug use is:
A) increased libido.
B) increased aggressiveness.
C) testicular hypertrophy.
D) liver disorders.
Q3) To ensure maximum efficacy for postcoital contraception,it needs to be administered within 12 hours of sexual intercourse.
A)True
B)False
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65
Chapter 64: Medicines and Bone Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factors play a role in calcium absorption in women? Select all that apply.
A) Minimal dietary calcium
B) Menopause
C) Vitamin D deficiency
D) Chronic kidney disease
E) Diabetes
Q2) Which finding would you expect to see with Paget's disease?
A)Hypocalcaemia
B)Hypercalcaemia
C) Decrease in osteoclasts
D)Hypervitaminosis D
Q3) Which of the following foods inhibit absorption of calcium due to high phytic acid content?
A) Unrefined cereals
B) Green vegetables
C) Strawberries
D) Cow's milk
Q4) Describe the role of parathyroid hormone with regards to regulation of blood calcium levels.
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Chapter 65: Hyperuricaemia and Gout
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tests is undertaken before using colchicine for gout prophylaxis?
A) A complete blood count
B) A liver function test
C) An electrocardiogram
D) An exercise tolerance test
Q2) Which one of the following drugs or drug groups acts to increase the excretion of uric acid?
A) The corticosteroids
B) Colchicine
C) Probenecid
D) Allopurinol
Q3) A characteristic of gout is that:
A) it manifests as a form of arthritis.
B) it is more prevalent in women.
C) the risk of developing it can be reduced by eating foods such as sardines or offal.
D) it is not associated with any genetic predisposition.
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Chapter 66: Obesity and Its Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) An overweight individual will have a BMI of:
A) 20-25.
B) 25-30.
C) 30-35
D) 35-40.
Q2) Which of the following chemical mediators stimulates feeding?
A) Serotonin
B) Noradrenaline
C) Peptide YY
D) Neuropeptide Y
Q3) For maximum benefit from the anorectic agent orlistat,the dose should be taken:
A) with three main meals daily.
B) with the morning meal.
C) with the evening meal.
D) at bedtime.
Q4) In humans,there are two feeding centres located in the:
A) brain stem.
B) thalamus.
C) hypothalamus.
D) pons.
Page 68
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Chapter 67: Introduction to Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is recommended that surgical prophylaxis with antibiotics is not undertaken with a: A) mastectomy.
B) coronary bypass surgery.
C) splenectomy.
D) large bowel resection.
Q2) The actions of streptomycin and amikacin:
A) are considered first-line agents for tuberculosis.
B) are ineffective for the bactericidal phase.
C) interfere with protein synthesis.
D) are best mediated by the oral route.
Q3) Which one of the following statements is relevant regarding antimicrobial drugs that are time-dependent?
A) It is important to measure peak and trough plasma concentrations.
B) The plasma drug concentration must be 60% of the maximum effective concentration for it to be effective.
C) An increase in dose will result in an increased effect.
D) The period above the minimum effective concentration determines the effectiveness of treatment.
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Chapter 68: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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Q1) A premixed combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is called:
A) trimethoxazole.
B) co-trimoxazole.
C) sulphaprim.
D) blephamide.
Q2) Trimethoprim is best taken as a single daily dose:
A) in the morning.
B) at midday.
C) in the mid-afternoon.
D) at bedtime.
Q3) During treatment with selected sulfonamides,a client may experience diarrhoea.This usually indicates:
A) a change in the balance of gut flora.
B) gastrointestinal tract bleeding.
C) drug crystallisation.
D) an allergic reaction.
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Chapter 69: Antibacterial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main monobactam in use is:
A) imipenem.
B) aztreonam.
C) ertapenem.
D) doripenem.
Q2) What medication regimen is ineffective in treating microorganisms that are part of the ESCAAPPM group?
A) A carbapenem agent
B) A penicillin agent
C) An aminoglycoside agent
D) A fluoroquinolone agent
Q3) Which one of the following antibacterial drug groups acts by inhibiting microbial cell wall synthesis?
A) Quinolones
B) Macrolides
C) Nitroimidazoles
D) Glycopeptide antibacterials
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71
Chapter 70: Antituberculotic and Antileprotic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient with Hansen's disease can be safely treated with thalidomide.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most active agent for leprosy is:
A) dapsone.
B) rifampicin.
C) thalidomide.
D) streptomycin.
Q3) Which of the following factors would cause favourable conditions for tuberculosis to spread?
A) Social inequity
B) Overcrowding
C) Exposure to livestock/wildlife that may be infected
D) All of the above
Q4) In the context of antituberculotic drug action,a bactericidal drug:
A) kills all tuberculosis bacteria.
B) targets dividing bacteria.
C) kills persistent dormant bacteria.
D) targets bacteria in the lungs.
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Chapter 71: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the indication of topical silver preparations?
A) Burns
B) Acne
C) Eczema
D) Warts
Q2) Cetrimide inhibits bacterial growth because of its ________ properties.
A) detergent
B) oxidising
C) alkylating
D) reducing
Q3) An example of an antiseptic is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
Q4) An example of a disinfectant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
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Chapter 72: Antiparasitic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of an antimalarial agent that alters mitochondrial function is:
A) chloroquine.
B) mefloquine.
C) primaquine.
D) proguanil.
Q2) What should a woman who is pregnant be advised to do when taking atovaquone therapy?
A) Supplement with vitamin D.
B) Supplement with calcium.
C) Supplement with vitamin A.
D) Supplement with folic acid.
Q3) When using the anthelmintic albendazole to treat intestinal parasites,the person should be advised to take it:
A) with meals.
B) after meals.
C) with milk.
D) before meals.
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Chapter 73: Antiviral Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viruses are best defined as:
A) infectious agents.
B) primitive bacteria.
C) microorganisms.
D) mycoplasma.
Q2) Which one of the following are adverse effects of the influenza drug zanamivir?
A) Nausea.
B) Bronchospasm.
C) Dyspnoea.
D) All of the above.
Q3) Which illnesses can be treated with acyclovir?
A) Herpes simplex I
B) Herpes zoster
C) Varicella
D) All of the above
Q4) The antiretroviral drug zidovudine belongs to the following group:
A) protease inhibitors.
B) fusion inhibitors.
C) non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors.
D) nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors.
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Chapter 74: Antifungal Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the antifungal terbinafine is administered orally for more than six weeks for a fungal nail infection,the person should be advised to have:
A) blood cholesterol levels monitored.
B) liver enzyme levels and blood count monitored.
C) respiratory function monitored.
D) aural function monitored.
Q2) Systemic candidiasis can be treated with parenteral:
A) amphotericin.
B) griseofulvin.
C) itraconazole.
D) terbinafine.
Q3) Tinea barbae affects the:
A) nails.
B) beard.
C) groin.
D) head.
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Chapter 75: Immunomodulating Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals need to remain within a medical facility for about ________ minutes after vaccination.
A) 5
B) 15
C) 60
D) 90
Q2) Which medication would NOT be used to prevent organ rejection?
A) Mycophenolate
B) Leflunomide
C) Cyclosporine
D) Tacrolimus
Q3) A clinical use of colony stimulating factors is to treat:
A) neutropenia.
B) some forms of leukaemia.
C) renal cell carcinoma.
D) chronic hepatitis.
Q4) Describe the difference between the terms vaccination and immunisation.
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Chapter 76: Cytotoxic Chemotherapeutic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is NOT an expected adverse effect of cytotoxic agents?
A) Alopecia
B) Weight gain
C) Nausea
D) Mucositis
Q2) Which of the following are NOT Classic cytotoxic chemotherapeutic agents?
A) Alkylating agents
B) Colony stimulating factors
C) Antibiotic-type cytotoxic agents
D) Cell cycle-specific agents
Q3) All vinca alkaloids are administered:
A) orally.
B) intravenously.
C) intrathecally.
D) intramuscularly.
Q4) Which of the following is a cell cycle specific cytotoxic drug group?
A) Alkylating agents
B) Vinca alkaloids
C) Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone analogues
D) Cytotoxic antibiotics
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Chapter 77: Medicines Used in Diseases of the Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following sunscreens blocks almost 97 per cent of UVB light?
A) SPF 6
B) SPF 15
C) SPF 30
D) SPF 50
Q2) The epidermal layer that is also known as the grainy layer is called the stratum:
A) basale.
B) granulosum.
C) corneum.
D) spinosum.
Q3) Which of the following statements about the skin are true? Select all that apply.
A) It has three main layers.
B) The subcutaneous layer is the second layer.
C) It is the largest organ.
D) It helps regulate body temperature.
E) Melanocytes in the skin cause pigmentation.
Q4) Discuss the effects of UV rays on the skin.
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Chapter 78: Medicines and the Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following drugs is used as an ocular astringent?
A) Polyvinyl alcohol
B) Zinc sulfate
C) Chlorhexidine acetate
D) Rose bengal
Q2) Which of the following drug groups can be used as mydriatic agents?
A) -blockers
B) Prostaglandin analogues
C) Muscarinic agonists
D) -adrenergic agonists
Q3) The first-choice treatment for glaucoma is:
A) miotics.
B) -blockers.
C) sympathomimetic agents.
D) diuretics
Q4) Describe the pathophysiology of glaucoma.
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Chapter 79: Herbal Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) St John's wort has proved to be effective,according to some studies,in the treatment of:
A) anxiety.
B) paranoia.
C) depression.
D) mania.
Q2) Tea tree oil has been proven to have a therapeutic effect for people suffering from: A) acne.
B) vaginitis.
C) migraine headache.
D) osteoarthritis.
E) Breast cancer
Q3) If a woman is using evening primrose oil for premenstrual syndrome,it should be consumed:
A) a few days before menstruation.
B) during menstruation.
C) all throughout the menstrual cycle.
D) the first four days following the onset of menstruation.
Q4) List some Common herbal medicines that are unsafe for use in pregnancy.
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