
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Pharmacotherapeutics is the study of the use of drugs in the prevention and treatment of disease. This course focuses on the principles of selecting, administering, and monitoring medications in clinical practice. Students will learn about drug mechanisms of action, therapeutic indications, dosing regimens, adverse effects, drug interactions, and strategies for optimizing patient outcomes. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based decision making and individualized patient care, with exploration of pharmacotherapeutics across a variety of disease states and patient populations.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Clinical Pharmacology 8th Edition by Edmunds
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Q1) After drug administration,the nurse should monitor for which responses to drug therapy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Expected outcomes
B) Premedication teaching
C) Allergic responses
D) Adverse reactions
E) Side effects
Answer: A,C,D,E
Q2) Which is never administered if prepared by another nurse?
A) Written orders
B) Daily reports
C) Diet selections
D) Medications
Answer: D
Q3) A medication should be withheld when which is true?
A) The physician omits the trade name in the order.
B) There has been a change in the patient's condition.
C) The medication improves the patient's symptoms.
D) The patient is asleep.
Answer: B

Page 3
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Q1) A patient comes into the clinic and is started on a new antihypertensive medication.In the past,this patient has not been taking the medication on a daily basis as per the drug treatment plan.Which strategy should the nurse use to get the patient to take the prescribed medication?
A) Tell the patient to follow the plan of care.
B) Tell the patient he will have a stroke if he does not take his medication.
C) Discuss with the patient the reasons that he is not taking his medication.
D) Tell the patient he will have to see a doctor to get more medication.
Answer: C
Q2) When teaching a patient about her plan of care,which action will confirm for the nurse that learning has taken place?
A) Ask the patient if she understands the information.
B) Have the patient repeat the information learned.
C) Allow the patient to take the lead.
D) Let the patient evaluate her own level of learning.
Answer: B
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Q1) At change of shift,two nurses (one from each shift)discover a discrepancy in the narcotics inventory for morphine 5 mg/mL vials.The count is short by one vial.Which of the following steps should be taken to reconcile the count? (Select all that apply.)
A) Only nurses on the off-going shift that actually used the automated dispensing system or the narcotics cabinet should be asked about medication they have given. B) Steps must be retraced to identify whether someone forgot to record any medication removed.
C) Check patient charts (MAR) to see if medication was given that was not signed for on the inventory report.
D) Notify security for large errors.
E) Notify the nursing supervisor (charge nurse) and the pharmacy department of any undocumented (unreconciled) discrepancy.
Answer: B,C,D,E
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Q1) Which medication is absorbed most rapidly?
A) Subcutaneous insulin
B) Intravenous antibiotic
C) Rectal suppository
D) Sublingual nitroglycerin
Q2) Probenecid is sometimes given to patients taking penicillin to prolong the penicillin half-life and thus enhance plasma levels of penicillin.This is a desirable example of which effect?
A) Additive effect
B) Antagonistic effect
C) Synergistic effect
D) Drug interaction
Q3) The nurse is explaining to a patient the difference between a side effect and an adverse reaction.What response should the explanation involve?
A) Both side effects and adverse reactions are severe.
B) Side effects are mild, and adverse effects are severe.
C) Both side effects and adverse reactions are mild.
D) Side effects are severe, and adverse reactions are mild.
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Q1) Nurses working with older adult patients must remember which factors about their kidney function and administration of their medications? (Select all that apply.)
A) Older adult patients are all alike with regard to kidney function and medications.
B) Drugs excreted by the kidney must be assessed individually in older adults.
C) The nurse should remember factors about liver function only and not kidney function in older adults.
D) Longer dosage intervals and lower doses are generally appropriate for older adults with kidney damage.
E) With older adults, creatinine clearance values help measure kidney function.
Q2) Which individual would be at the highest risk for drug noncompliance?
A) A 2-year-old in a day care center
B) A 10-year-old receiving antibiotics for an ear infection
C) A 65-year-old on a fixed income taking multiple medications
D) A 95-year-old in a long-term care facility taking multiple medications
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Q1) Which over-the-counter supplement would the nurse recommend for a postmenopausal woman?
A) Selenium
B) Calcium
C) Vitamin C
D) Folic acid
Q2) Which ingredient is often hidden in cough and cold syrups?
A) Potassium
B) Alcohol
C) Steroids
D) Benzocaine
Q3) Antioxidants are popular among the nutritional supplements.Which vitamins are considered antioxidants? (Select all that apply.)
A) Vitamins B<sub>12</sub>, B<sub>6</sub>, and B<sub>4</sub>
B) Vitamin E
C) Beta carotene
D) Ascorbic acid
E) Vitamin A
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Q1) When giving an IM injection to an HIV-positive patient,the nurse recognizes that the HIV infection is spread in which body fluids? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sputum
B) Vaginal fluid
C) Breast milk
D) Blood
E) Semen
Q2) A nurse is observing another nurse prepare insulin for administration to a diabetic patient.Which observation is considered unsafe?
A) The nurse draws up the Regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin.
B) The nurse draws up both the Regular and NPH insulin in the same syringe.
C) The nurse draws up the insulin in a syringe calibrated in milligrams (mg).
D) The nurse draws up 30 units of NPH insulin as ordered by the physician.
Q3) Which is the correct needle for an intramuscular (IM)injection?
A) 18 G, 1-inch
B) 20 G, 1/2 -inch
C) 25 G, 2-inch
D) 21 G, 1 1/2-inch
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Q1) Which is an important concept to teach patients who take expectorants,antitussives,decongestants,or bronchodilators?
A) These are all over-the-counter medications that must be used with caution.
B) Medication effectiveness will be enhanced with adequate patient hydration of more than 2 quarts of water per day.
C) These preparations frequently cause adverse effects, and the patient should not take them without consulting a physician.
D) Patients may expect to develop fever, swollen lymph nodes, and tightness in the chest when taking these products.
Q2) A patient has recently recovered from pneumonia.She is on an expectorant for a cough she developed with her pneumonia.She discovers that she now wheezes after jogging in the morning.What might the nurse expect the physician to suggest?
A) Taking an oral bronchodilator before running
B) Using an intranasal steroid nebulizer before running
C) Taking a spray decongestant before running
D) Drinking 2 quarts of water daily
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Q1) A patient is being treated for pinworms with anthelmintics.In addition to taking the medication,what should the nurse be sure to cover during the teaching session?
A) Wash the toilet seat weekly.
B) There are special diet requirements before taking this medication.
C) There is no need to test other family members for this condition.
D) You may have diarrhea and abdominal pain while taking this medication.
Q2) Which treatment is used for treating active tuberculosis?
A) Long-term treatment with more than one drug
B) Developing drug-resistant organisms
C) Chemoprophylaxis with bacteriostatic medications
D) Chemotherapy in patients at high risk for developing infection
Q3) The nurse is providing education for a patient prescribed a fluoroquinolone.Which response made by the patient assures the nurse that teaching has been effective?
A) "I can discontinue this medication once I feel better."
B) "There are no drug interactions associated with this medication."
C) "I should take this medication with food to decrease GI upset."
D) "I can take this medication with caffeine such as a cup of coffee."
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Q1) A patient asks a nurse what an AIDS-related opportunistic infection is.Which should be the nurse's reply?
A) "This infection is a first-generation metabolic infection."
B) "This infection is a toxic effect of the virus."
C) "This infection is from damage to the body's immune system."
D) "This infection is from an enlarged gallbladder."
Q2) Which group of drugs limits the progression of HIV?
A) Antiretrovirals
B) Antivirals
C) Antibiotics
D) Antifungals
Q3) A patient infected with AIDS tells the nurse that she has been only partially compliant with the medications because of the side effect of nausea.Which is the best response made by the nurse?
A) "When the nausea decreases, you can take the dosage."
B) "You should stop all medicine when nauseated and call your doctor."
C) "You should always take your medicine as prescribed, or it may not be effective."
D) "Didn't you know that nausea is expected with this therapy?"
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Q1) Onxol (paclitaxel)is used to treat testicular cancer.This drug directly interferes with or stops cell division.The nurse knows that this medication is which preparation?
A) Mitotic agent
B) Chemotherapy agent
C) Hormone
D) Neoplasm
Q2) A patient taking Mustargen is suffering from alopecia.The nurse should include which intervention in the care plan?
A) Provide ice chips.
B) Maintain IV hydration.
C) Use emollients on the affected area.
D) Offer the use of a scarf.
Q3) For which organ may a patient with cancer be prescribed hormones?
A) Bone
B) Prostate
C) Brain
D) Liver
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Q1) Which is a life-threatening dysrhythmia that is often treated with lidocaine (Xylocaine)?
A) Atrial flutter
B) Ventricular fibrillation
C) Atrial tachycardia
D) Ventricular bradycardia
Q2) The physician tells the nurse that a patient is hypokalemic.He has been taking a thiazide medication for treatment of his high blood pressure.Which should the nurse instruct him to increase his dietary intake of?
A) Green leafy vegetables
B) Sodium
C) Bananas and citrus fruits
D) Low-fat products
Q3) When giving patients a thiazide,which electrolyte replacement should be supplemented?
A) Vitamins
B) Minerals
C) Calcium
D) Potassium
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Q1) A sedative-hypnotic drug may be prescribed for a patient with which condition?
A) Vertigo
B) Schizophrenia
C) Acute mania
D) A sleep disorder
Q2) CNS depression,decreased respiratory rate,constricted pupils,tachycardia,and areflexia are symptoms of overdose with which drugs?
A) Barbiturates
B) Serotonin (5HT) receptor agonists
C) Dopaminergic agents
D) Anticholinergic drugs
Q3) Antipsychotic drugs are listed in which similar broad categories? (Select all that apply.)
A) Serotonin receptor agonists
B) Phenothiazines
C) Anticholinergics
D) Thioxanthenes
E) Benzodiazepines
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Q1) The LVN/LPN is assisting the physician with a bedside procedure that requires anesthesia.While assisting,which tasks may be delegated to the LPN/LVN ?
A) Locate the anesthetic for the physician.
B) Explain the procedure to the patient.
C) Administer IM preoperative medication.
D) Inject the local anesthetic into the patient.
E) Prepare IV medication.
Q2) A patient with a head injury should not receive a narcotic agonist for which reason?
A) The patient will not be able to talk.
B) The drug makes the patient too hyperactive.
C) Addiction is easy at this point.
D) The drug causes a confusing effect.
Q3) After naloxone (Narcan)is administered to a patient,the nurse would expect to see which symptom?
A) Complete narcotic sleepiness
B) Rebound narcotic symptoms
C) Difficulty in urination
D) Increased temperature
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Q1) Antiinflammatory analgesics should be used with caution by patients with which of the following conditions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Liver disease
B) Transient ischemic attacks (TIAs)
C) Headaches
D) Weight loss
E) Heart disease
Q2) A gout patient's creatinine clearance is less than 80 mL/min.The nurse expects this patient to be started on which medication?
A) NSAID
B) Allopurinol
C) ASA
D) Salicylates
Q3) A patient is diagnosed with osteoarthritis.The nurse would expect the patient to be started on which medication?
A) NSAIDs
B) Salicylates
C) Acetaminophen
D) Mucomyst
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Q1) One of the nurse's older adult patients is abusing laxatives.Which would be an appropriate intervention for this patient to help reduce this chronic laxative use and dependency?
A) Advise the patient to take a laxative once weekly.
B) Stop the patient from taking any laxatives.
C) Have the patient take an enema instead of a laxative.
D) Have the patient drink 6 to 8 glasses of water each day.
Q2) A patient on disulfiram should be cautioned to avoid ingesting alcohol used as an ingredient in certain preparations.Which product has hidden alcohol?
A) Cough syrup
B) Chocolate candy
C) Fruit smoothies
D) Lifesavers
Q3) A patient is diagnosed as having a duodenal ulcer.Which medication does the nurse anticipate the physician will order?
A) Maalox
B) Gelusil
C) Milk of magnesia
D) Protonix
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Q1) Which tests will the nurse evaluate after the physician makes an adjustment in a patient's heparin dose in order to determine the effect of the change?
A) aPTT
B) PT
C) INR
D) DIC panel
Q2) Thrombolytic agents have which actions?
A) They prevent clot formation.
B) They lyse existing clots.
C) They increase the blood's viscosity.
D) They thin the blood.
Q3) Once anticoagulation therapy has ended,what should the nurse advise the patient to do?
A) Go back to using a razor for shaving as before therapy.
B) Use caution for a while after therapy has ended.
C) Remove the Medic-Alert bracelet at the end of therapy.
D) Resume alcohol consumption after therapy has ended.
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Q1) A patient is taking 36 units of glargine insulin (Lantus)each morning.This insulin's duration is in which range?
A) 1 to 3 hours
B) 6 to 8 hours
C) 20 to 24 hours
D) 24 to 48 hours
Q2) What should the intensity of uterine contractions be no more than when using drugs for labor?
A) 50 mm Hg
B) 20 mm Hg
C) 80 mm Hg
D) 10 mm Hg
Q3) Which is true about vasopressin?
A) It is an anterior pituitary hormone.
B) It is an antidiuretic hormone.
C) It is used in adrenal insufficiency.
D) It is used to increase smooth-muscle contraction in the digestive tract and vascular bed.
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Q1) Which is an example of artificially acquired active immunity?
A) Developing chickenpox as a child
B) Developing measles as an adult
C) Receiving a PPD yearly
D) Receiving prophylactic vaccines
Q2) The biologic agent purified protein derivative (PPD)is used to screen for exposure to which disease?
A) Tuberculosis
B) Yellow fever
C) Pneumonia
D) Cholera
Q3) Which circumstance indicates that a 5-year-old about to enter grade school should be screened for current illness before receiving her immunizations?
A) She will cry and hurt too much.
B) Her father is chronically ill at home.
C) She has another year before she needs them.
D) Her mother passed immunity to her at birth.
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Q1) A patient is instructed to take an oral troche by which means?
A) Dissolving it slowly in the mouth
B) Chewing and swallowing it
C) Holding it under the tongue for 1 minute
D) Swallowing it whole with 8 oz of water
Q2) How are vitamin E preparations used for treatment of the skin?
A) Add smoothness
B) Hydrate
C) Lighten
D) Remove marks
Q3) A patient comes to the outpatient eye clinic with a foreign body in the eye.Which medication does the nurse anticipate the physician is likely to use before removing it?
A) Proparacaine
B) Bacitracin
C) Ganciclovir
D) Dexamethasone
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Q1) Which vitamin turns urine yellow in color?
A) Vitamin B<sub>2</sub>
B) Vitamin B<sub>3</sub>
C) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
D) Vitamin B<sub>6</sub>
Q2) An older adult patient comes to the doctor's office with complaints of malaise,nervousness,and difficulty walking.Her blood work reveals a deficiency in pyridoxine.The nurse would know that the patient has a deficiency in which vitamin?
A) Vitamin C
B) Vitamin D
C) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
D) Vitamin B<sub>6</sub>
Q3) A patient taking an iron supplement may experience which side effect?
A) Headache
B) Circumoral cyanosis
C) Fatigue
D) Black stools
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