Pharmacotherapeutics for Nurses
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Pharmacotherapeutics for Nurses is a comprehensive course designed to equip nursing students with a foundational understanding of the principles of drug therapy and medication management. The course covers the mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, adverse effects, and nursing considerations for major classes of medications used in the treatment of various health conditions. Emphasis is placed on clinical decision-making, patient safety, medication administration, dosage calculations, and effective patient teaching. By integrating theoretical knowledge with case studies and real-world nursing scenarios, students develop the skills necessary to ensure optimal pharmacological care across diverse patient populations.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition by Lilley
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58 Chapters
791 Verified Questions
791 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Nursing Process and Drug Therapy
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is to receive oral guaifenesin (Mucinex) twice a day. Today, the nurse was busy and gave the medication 2 hours after the scheduled dose was due. What type of problem does this represent?
A) "Right time"
B) "Right dose"
C) "Right route"
D) "Right medication"
Answer: A
Q2) The medication order reads, "Give ondansetron (Zofran) 4 mg, 30 minutes before beginning chemotherapy to prevent nausea." The nurse notes that the route is missing from the order. What is the nurse's best action?
A) Give the medication intravenously because the patient might vomit.
B) Give the medication orally because the tablets are available in 4-mg doses.
C) Contact the prescriber to clarify the route of the medication ordered.
D) Hold the medication until the prescriber returns to make rounds.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Pharmacologic Principles
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Sample Questions
Q1) When administering drugs, the nurse remembers that the duration of action of a drug is defined as which of these?
A) The time it takes for a drug to elicit a therapeutic response
B) The amount of time needed to remove a drug from circulation
C) The time it takes for a drug to achieve its maximum therapeutic response
D) The time period at which a drug's concentration is sufficient to cause a therapeutic response
Answer: D
Q2) A drug dose that delivers 800 mg has a half-life of 5 hours. Identify how much drug will remain in the body after one half-life. _______
Answer: 400 mg
A drug's half-life is the time required for one half of an administered dose of a drug to be eliminated by the body, or the time it takes for the blood level of a drug to be reduced by 50%. Therefore, one half of 800 mg equals 400 mg.
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Chapter 3: Lifespan Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 7-year-old child will be receiving amoxicillin (Amoxil) 50 mg/kg/day in two divided doses. The child weighs 55 pounds. The medication, once reconstituted, is available as an oral suspension of 125 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters will the child receive per dose. _______
Answer: 25 mL per dose
Convert pounds to kilograms: 55 pounds = 25 kg.
25 kg × 50 mg/kg/day = 1250 mg/day
To get the amount per dose, divide 1250 by 2, which equals 625 mg/dose.
To calculate the milliliters:
125 mg:5 mL :: 625 mg:x mL
(125 × x) = (5 × 625); 125x = 3125; x = 25 mL/dose
Q2) Drug transfer to the fetus is more likely during the last trimester of pregnancy for which reason?
A) Decreased fetal surface area
B) Increased placental surface area
C) Enhanced blood flow to the fetus
D) Increased amount of protein-bound drug in maternal circulation
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cultural, Legal, and Ethical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) During discharge patient teaching, the nurse reviews prescriptions with a patient. Which statement is correct about refills for an analgesic that is classified as Schedule C-III?
A) No prescription refills are permitted.
B) Refills are allowed only by written prescription.
C) The patient may have no more than five refills in a 6-month period.
D) Written prescriptions expire in 12 months.
Q2) For which cultural group must the health care provider respect the value placed on preserving harmony with nature and the belief that disease is a result of ill spirits?
A) Hispanics
B) Asian Americans
C) Native Americans
D) African Americans
Q3) Nurses have the ethical responsibility to tell the truth to their patients. What is this principle known as?
A) Justice
B) Veracity
C) Beneficence
D) Autonomy
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Medication Errors: Preventing and Responding
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse can prevent medication errors by following which principles?
A) Assess for allergies after giving medications.
B) Use two patient identifiers before giving medications.
C) Always following the rights of medication administration.
D) Minimize the use of verbal and telephone orders.
E) Use trade names instead of generic names to avoid confusion.
Q2) Digoxin is available in 0.125-mg tablet form. Convert this dose to microgram strength. (do not round) _______
Q3) When given a scheduled morning medication, the patient states, "I haven't seen that pill before. Are you sure it's correct?" The nurse checks the medication administration record and verifies that it is listed. Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "It's listed here on the medication sheet, so you should take it."
B) "Go ahead and take it, and then I'll check with your doctor about it."
C) "It wouldn't be listed here if it were not ordered for you!"
D) "Let me check on the order first before you take it."
Q4) Levothyroxine is available in 75-mcg tablet form. Convert this dose to milligram strength. (do not round) _______
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Chapter 6: Patient Education and Drug Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is setting up a teaching session with an 85-year-old patient who will be going home on anticoagulant therapy. Which educational strategy would reflect consideration of the age-related changes that may exist with this patient?
A) Show a video about anticoagulation therapy.
B) Present all the information in one session just before discharge.
C) Give the patient pamphlets about the medications to read at home.
D) Develop large-print handouts that reflect the verbal information presented.
Q2) A patient is to receive prednisone 7.5 mg PO daily. The tablets are available in a 2.5-mg strength. Identify how many tablets will the patient receive. _______
Q3) Which are appropriate considerations when the nurse is assessing the learning needs of a patient?
A) Cultural background
B) Family history
C) Level of education
D) Readiness to learn
E) Health beliefs
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Chapter 7: Over-The-Counter Drugs and Herbal and Dietary Supplements
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the criteria for over-the-counter drugs. Which criteria for over-the-counter status in the United States are accurate?
A) The drug must be easy to use.
B) The drug must have a low therapeutic index.
C) The consumer must be able to monitor the drug's effectiveness.
D) The drug must have a low potential for abuse.
E) The drug must not have any interactions with other drugs.
Q2) A patient wants to take the herb gingko to help his memory. The nurse reviews his current medication list and would be concerned about potential interactions if he is taking a medication from which class of drugs?
A) Digitalis
B) Antiplatelet drugs
C) Sedatives
D) Immunosuppressants
Q3) A patient with a PEG tube is to receive ferrous sulfate, 65 mg per the tube, daily. The medication is available as an elixir, 220 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive per dose? Record your answer using one decimal place.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Gene Therapy and Pharmacogenomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is performing an assessment of a patient. Which assessment findings may indicate a higher risk for genetic disorders?
A) The patient's father was diagnosed with heart disease at 60 years of age.
B) The patient's mother was diagnosed with breast cancer at 33 years of age.
C) The patient's grandfather died of a cerebral vascular accident at 78 years of age.
D) The patient's sister has a history of both renal and lung cancer.
E) The patient has two uncles and a grandparent who have been diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease.
Q2) The nurse is asking a patient about his drug history, and the patient states, "Whenever I take any strong pain medications, I usually sleep for hours. I have no idea why that happens!" The nurse considers that which of these is true about this patient's statement?
A) The patient is exaggerating about a normal side effect of pain medications.
B) The patient's reaction to pain medications may point to a difference in his ability to metabolize certain drugs.
C) The patient will need higher doses of medication for pain control.
D) The patient should never receive strong pain medications.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Photo Atlas of Drug Administration
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to give an aqueous intramuscular (IM) injection to an average-sized adult. Which actions are appropriate?
A) Choose a 26- or 27-gauge, 1/4- to 1/2-inch needle.
B) Choose a 20- to 25-gauge, 1- to 1 1/2-inch needle.
C) Choose the dorsogluteal site, the preferred site for IM injections for adults.
D) Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle.
E) Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
F) Before injecting the medication, withdraw the plunger to check for blood return.
Q2) The nurse is about to give a rectal suppository to a patient. Which technique would facilitate the administration and absorption of the rectal suppository?
A) Having the patient lie on his or her right side, unless contraindicated
B) Having the patient hold his or her breath during insertion of the medication
C) Lubricating the suppository with a small amount of petroleum-based lubricant before insertion
D) Encouraging the patient to lie on his or her left side for 15 to 20 minutes after insertion
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11
Chapter 10: Analgesic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is to receive methadone (Dolophine) 2.5 mg intramuscularly (IM) now. The medication is available in a concentration of 10 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of methadone will be drawn up for this dose. ______
Q2) A patient arrives at the urgent care center complaining of leg pain after a fall when rock climbing. The radiographs show no broken bones, but he has a large bruise on his thigh. The patient says he drives a truck and does not want to take anything strong because he needs to stay awake. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "It would be best for you not to take anything if you are planning to drive your truck."
B) "We will discuss with your doctor about taking an opioid because that would work best for your pain."
C) "You can take acetaminophen, also known as Tylenol, for pain, but no more than 1000 mg per day."
D) "You can take acetaminophen, also known as Tylenol, for pain, but no more than 3000 mg/day."
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Chapter 11: General and Local Anesthetics
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10 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing patients in the preoperative area, the nurse knows that which patient is at a higher risk for an altered response to anesthesia?
A) The 21-year-old patient who has never had surgery before
B) The 35-year-old patient who stopped smoking 8 years ago
C) The 40-year-old patient who is to have a kidney stone removed
D) The 82-year-old patient who is to have gallbladder removal
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is on a ventilator for respiratory arrest. Which parenteral anesthetic is also used for sedation during mechanical ventilation in ICU settings?
A) Ketamine
B) Midazolam (Versed)
C) Propofol (Diprivan)
D) Sevoflurane (Ultane)
Q3) A patient is to receive midazolam (Versed) 2 mg IV push over 2 minutes just before an endoscopy procedure. The medication is available in a strength of 1 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of medication will the nurse draw up into the syringe for this dose.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Central Nervous System Depressants and Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The barbiturate phenobarbital is prescribed for a patient with epilepsy. While assessing the patient's current medications, the nurse recognizes that interactions may occur with which drugs?
A) Antihistamines
B) Opioids
C) Diuretics
D) Anticoagulants
E) Oral contraceptives
F) Insulin
Q2) Ramelteon (Rozerem) is prescribed for a patient with insomnia. The nurse checks the patient's medical history, knowing that this medication is contraindicated in which disorder?
A) Coronary artery disease
B) Renal insufficiency
C) Liver disease
D) Anemia
Q3) A patient is about to receive pentobarbital (Nembutal) 100 mg IV as preoperative sedation. The medication is available in a concentration of 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive for this dose?
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Central Nervous System Stimulants and Related Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 6-year-old boy has been started on an extended-release form of methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin) for the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). During a follow-up visit, his mother tells the nurse that she has been giving the medication at bedtime so that it will be "in his system" when he goes to school the next morning. What is the nurse's appropriate evaluation of the mother's actions?
A) She is giving him the medication dosage appropriately.
B) The medication should not be taken until he is at school.
C) The medication should be taken with meals for optimal absorption.
D) The medication should be given 4 to 6 hours before bedtime to diminish insomnia.
Q2) A 10-year-old patient will be started on methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin) therapy. The nurse will perform which essential baseline assessment before this drug is started?
A) Eye examination
B) Height and weight
C) Liver function studies
D) Hearing test
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Antiepileptic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phenytoin (Dilantin) has a narrow therapeutic index. The nurse recognizes that this characteristic indicates which of these?
A) The safe and the toxic plasma levels of the drug are very close to each other.
B) The phenytoin has a low chance of being effective.
C) There is no difference between safe and toxic plasma levels.
D) A very small dosage can result in the desired therapeutic effect.
Q2) The nurse is giving an intravenous dose of phenytoin (Dilantin). Which action is correct when administering this drug?
A) Give the dose as a fast intravenous (IV) bolus.
B) Mix the drug with normal saline, and give it as a slow IV push.
C) Mix the drug with dextrose (D5W), and give it as a slow IV push.
D) Mix the drug with any available solution as long as the administration rate is correct.
Q3) A 9-year-old child will be receiving carbamazepine (Tegretol) suspension, 200 mg twice daily. The medication is available in a strength of 100 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will give to the patient for each dose. _______
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Chapter 15: Antiparkinson Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking selegiline (Eldepryl) for a few months, and recently the prescriber increased his dose to 20 mg/day. Today, during his office visit, he tells the nurse that he forgot and had a beer with dinner last evening, and "felt awful." What did the patient most likely experience?
A) Hypotension
B) Hypertension
C) Urinary discomfort
D) Gastrointestinal upset
Q2) The nurse is developing a care plan for a patient who is taking an anticholinergic drug. Which human needs statement would be appropriate for this patient?
A) Altered gastrointestinal elimination (diarrhea)
B) Altered urinary elimination
C) Altered safety needs, risk for infection
D) Altered sleep needs
Q3) The prescriber writes this order, "Give amantadine (Symmetrel) 100 mg per PEG tube twice a day." The medication is available in a liquid form with a concentration 50 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will give with each dose. _______
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Psychotherapeutic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking the monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) phenelzine (Nardil) for 6 months. The patient wants to go to a party and asks the nurse, "Will just one beer be a problem?" Which advice from the nurse is correct?
A) "You can drink beer as long as you have a designated driver."
B) "Now that you've been on the drug for 6 months, there will be no further dietary restrictions."
C) "If you begin to experience a throbbing headache, rapid pulse, or nausea, you'll need to stop drinking."
D) "You need to avoid all foods that contain tyramine, including beer, while taking this medication."
Q2) Clozapine (Clozaril), an atypical antipsychotic, is prescribed for a patient. The nurse will monitor for which adverse effect during this drug therapy?
A) Edema
B) Photosensitivity
C) Hypotension
D) Severe neutropenia
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18
Chapter 17: Substance Use Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is providing teaching for a patient who will be taking varenicline (Chantix) as part of a smoking-cessation program. Which teaching points are appropriate for a patient taking this medication?
A) This drug is available as a chewing gum that can be taken to reduce cravings.
B) Use caution when driving because drowsiness may be a problem.
C) There have been very few adverse effects reported for this drug.
D) Notify the prescriber immediately if feelings of sadness or thoughts of suicide occur.
E) Avoid caffeine while on this drug.
Q2) A 29-year-old patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with the following symptoms: restlessness, hyperactive reflexes, talkativeness, confusion and periods of panic, and tachycardia. The nurse suspects that he may be experiencing the effects of taking which substance?
A) Opioids
B) Alcohol
C) Stimulants
D) Depressants
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19
Chapter 18: Adrenergic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is administering a stat dose of epinephrine. Epinephrine is appropriate for which situation?
A) Severe hypertension
B) Angina
C) Cardiac arrest
D) Tachycardia
Q2) The nurse is presenting information to a class of students about adrenergic drugs. Which are the effects of drugs that stimulate the sympathetic nervous system?
A) Dilation of bronchioles
B) Constriction of bronchioles
C) Decreased heart rate
D) Increased heart rate
E) Dilated pupils
F) Constricted pupils
G) Glycogenolysis
Q3) The nurse is to administer epinephrine 0.3 mg subcutaneously. The ampule contains 1 mL of medication and is labeled 1 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of epinephrine the nurse will give. _______
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20
Chapter 19: Adrenergic-Blocking Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a teaching session about self-monitoring while taking a beta blocker at home, the nurse has taught the patient to take his apical pulse daily for 1 minute. If the pulse rate decreases to less than 60 beats/min, the nurse will instruct the patient to do which of these?
A) Notify his prescriber.
B) Reduce the dose of his beta blocker by half.
C) Continue the medication because this is an expected effect.
D) Skip the medication dose that day, and check his pulse again the next day.
Q2) A patient has a new prescription for tamsulosin (Flomax) as treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia. The nurse is checking his current medication list and will contact the prescriber regarding a potential interaction if the patient is also taking which drug?
A) Levothyroxine (Synthroid) for hypothyroidism
B) Sildenafil (Viagra), an erectile dysfunction medication
C) Omeprazole (Prilosec), a proton pump inhibitor
D) Low-dose aspirin for stroke prevention
Q3) A patient has an order for carvedilol (Coreg) 9.375 mg twice a day PO. The tablets are 3.125 mg each. Identify how many tablets will the nurse administer per dose.
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21
Chapter 20: Cholinergic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the mechanism of action of cholinergic drugs. The undesired effects of cholinergic drugs come from the stimulation of which receptors?
A) Muscarinic
B) Nicotinic
C) Cholinergic
D) Ganglionic
Q2) A patient has been taking donepezil (Aricept) for 2 weeks as part of the treatment for early stages of Alzheimer's disease. Her daughter calls the prescriber's office and is upset because "Mother has not improved one bit!" Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
A) "Increase the dosage to twice daily."
B) "It takes time for the cure to take effect."
C) "It may take up to 6 weeks to see an improvement."
D) "Take the medication on an empty stomach for improved absorption."
Q3) A patient is receiving memantine (Namenda) 10 mg PO daily. The patient is unable to swallow pills, so an oral solution that contains 2 mg/mL is ordered. Identify how much will the patient receive per dose. _______
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Chapter 21: Cholinergic-Blocking Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a prescription for oxybutynin (Ditropan), an anticholinergic drug. When reviewing the patient's medical history, which condition, if present, would be considered a contraindication to therapy with this drug?
A) Diarrhea
B) Hypertension
C) Neurogenic bladder
D) Uncontrolled angle-closure glaucoma
Q2) In preparation for eye surgery, the nurse monitors for which desired drug effect in a patient who is receiving a cholinergic-blocking eyedrop medication?
A) Miosis
B) Mydriasis
C) Increased intraocular fluid production
D) Enhanced tear production
Q3) A patient is to receive glycopyrrolate (Robinul) 4 mcg/kg IM 30 minutes before a procedure. The patient weighs 110 pounds; the medication is available in a strength of 0.2 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of medication the nurse will draw up into the syringe. _______
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Chapter 22: Antihypertensive Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a new order for the adrenergic drug doxazosin (Cardura). When providing education about this drug, the nurse will include which instructions?
A) "Weigh yourself daily, and report any weight loss to your prescriber."
B) "Increase your potassium intake by eating more bananas and apricots."
C) "The impaired taste associated with this medication usually goes away in 2 to 3 weeks."
D) "Be sure to lie down after taking the first dose, because first-dose hypotension may make you dizzy."
Q2) The nurse is preparing for a community education program on hypertension. Which of these parameters determine the regulation of arterial blood pressure?
A) Cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance
B) Heart rate and peripheral resistance
C) Blood volume and renal blood flow
D) Myocardial contractility and arteriolar constriction
Q3) A patient is to receive enalapril (Vasotec) 5 mg IV every 6 hours. Each dose is given over 5 minutes. The medication is available in an injectable form, 1.25 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of medication will the nurse draw up for each dose. _______
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Antianginal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing education about the use of sublingual nitroglycerin tablets. She asks the patient, "What would you do if you experienced chest pain while mowing your yard? You have your bottle of sublingual nitroglycerin with you." Which actions by the patient are appropriate in this situation?
A) Stop the activity, and lie down or sit down.
B) Call 911 immediately.
C) Call 911 if the pain is not relieved after taking one sublingual tablet.
D) Call 911 if the pain is not relieved after taking three sublingual tablets in 15 minutes.
E) Place a tablet under the tongue.
F) Place a tablet in the space between the gum and cheek.
G) Take another sublingual tablet if chest pain is not relieved after 5 minutes, up to three total.
Q2) When applying transdermal nitroglycerin patches, which instruction by the nurse is correct?
A) "Rotate application sites with each dose."
B) "Use only the chest area for application sites."
C) "Temporarily remove the patch if you go swimming."
D) "Apply the patch to the same site each time."
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25
Chapter 24: Heart Failure Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) While assessing a patient who is receiving intravenous digitalis, the nurse recognizes that the drug has a negative chronotropic effect. How would this drug effect be evident in the patient?
A) Decreased blood pressure
B) Decreased heart rate
C) Decreased conduction
D) Decreased ectopic beats
Q2) The medication order for a 5-year-old child reads, "Give digoxin elixir, 15 mcg/kg, PO now." Convert the 15 micrograms to milligrams. _______
Q3) The nurse is reviewing discharge teaching for a patient who will be taking digoxin (Lanoxin) therapy. The nurse will teach the patient to avoid which foods when taking the digoxin?
A) Leafy green vegetables
B) Dairy products
C) Grapefruit juice
D) Bran muffins
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Chapter 25: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is in the emergency department with a new onset of rapid-rate atrial fibrillation, and the nurse is preparing a continuous infusion. Which drug is most appropriate for this dysrhythmia?
A) Diltiazem (Cardizem)
B) Atenolol (Tenormin)
C) Lidocaine
D) Adenosine (Adenocard)
Q2) A patient is in the intensive care unit because of an acute myocardial infarction. He is experiencing severe ventricular dysrhythmias. The nurse will prepare to give which drug of choice for this dysrhythmia?
A) Diltiazem (Cardizem)
B) Verapamil (Calan)
C) Amiodarone (Cordarone)
D) Adenosine (Adenocard)
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Chapter 26: Coagulation Modifier Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will be receiving a thrombolytic drug as part of the treatment for acute myocardial infarction. The nurse explains to the patient that this drug is used for which purpose?
A) To relieve chest pain
B) To prevent further clot formation
C) To dissolve the clot in the coronary artery
D) To control bleeding in the coronary vessels
Q2) The nurse is reviewing new medication orders for a patient who has an epidural catheter for administration of pain medications. One of the orders is for enoxaparin (Lovenox), a low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH). What is the nurse's priority action?
A) Give the LMWH as ordered.
B) Double-check the LMWH order with another nurse, and then administer as ordered.
C) Stop the epidural pain medication, and then administer the LMWH.
D) Contact the prescriber because the LMWH cannot be given if the patient has an epidural catheter.
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Chapter 27: Antilipemic Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medication order reads, "Give simvastatin (Zocor) 30 mg daily at bedtime, PO." The medication is available in 20-mg tablets. Identify how many tablets the nurse will administer to the patient. _______
Q2) A patient tells the nurse that he likes to eat large amounts of garlic "to help lower his cholesterol levels naturally." The nurse reviews his medication history and notes that which drug has a potential interaction with the garlic?
A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B) Warfarin (Coumadin)
C) Digoxin (Lanoxin)
D) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
Q3) A patient with elevated lipid levels has a new prescription for nicotinic acid (niacin). The nurse informs the patient that which adverse effects may occur with this medication?
A) Pruritus, cutaneous flushing
B) Tinnitus, urine with a burnt odor
C) Myalgia, fatigue
D) Blurred vision, headaches
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Chapter 28: Diuretic Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48009
Sample Questions
Q1) The order for a child reads, "Give furosemide (Lasix) 2 mg/kg IV STAT." The child weighs 33 pounds. Identify how many milligrams the child will receive for this dose.
Q2) When monitoring a patient who has diabetes and is receiving a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor for edema, the nurse will monitor for which possible adverse effect?
A) Metabolic alkalosis
B) Elevated blood glucose
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Mental alertness
Q3) When assessing a patient who is receiving a loop diuretic, the nurse looks for the manifestations of potassium deficiency, which would include what symptoms?
A) Dyspnea
B) Constipation
C) Tinnitus
D) Muscle weakness
E) Anorexia
F) Lethargy
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Chapter 29: Fluids and Electrolytes
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During diuretic therapy, the nurse monitors the fluid and electrolyte status of the patient. Which assessment findings are symptoms of hyponatremia?
A) Red, flushed skin
B) Lethargy
C) Decreased urination
D) Hypotension
E) Stomach cramps
F) Elevated temperature
Q2) A patient is in an urgent care center and is receiving treatment for mild hyponatremia after spending several hours doing gardening work in the heat of the day. The nurse expects that which drug therapy will be used to treat this condition?
A) Oral supplementation of fluids
B) Intravenous bolus of lactated Ringer's solution
C) Normal saline infusion, administered slowly
D) Oral administration of sodium chloride tablets
Q3) The order reads, "Give 1500 mL of normal saline over 12 hours. The tubing drop factor is 15 gtt/mL." The nurse will set the gravity drip infusion at how many drops per minute (gtt/min). _______
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Chapter 30: Pituitary Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 16-year-old boy who is taking somatropin comes into the office because he had an asthma attack during a race at school. Because of this new development, the nurse expects which intervention to occur next?
A) He will need to stop participating in school physical education classes.
B) The somatropin must be discontinued immediately.
C) The somatropin dosage may be adjusted.
D) His growth will be documented and monitored for changes.
Q2) An 8-year-old child has been diagnosed with true pituitary dwarfism and is being treated with somatropin. In follow-up visits, the nurse will monitor for which expected outcome?
A) Increased growth
B) Decreased urinary output
C) Increased muscle strength
D) Increased height when the child reaches puberty
Q3) A patient is to receive vasopressin (Pitressin) 5 units subQ twice a day. The medication is available in a vial that contains 20 units/mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will draw up for this dose. (record answer using two decimal places) _______
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Chapter 31: Thyroid and Antithyroid Drugs
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When reviewing the laboratory values of a patient who is taking antithyroid drugs, the nurse will monitor for which adverse effect?
A) Decreased glucose levels
B) Decreased white blood cell count
C) Increased red blood cell count
D) Increased platelet count
Q2) During a teaching session for a patient on antithyroid drugs, the nurse will discuss which dietary instructions?
A) Using iodized salt when cooking
B) Avoiding foods containing iodine
C) Restricting fluid intake to 2500 mL/day
D) Increasing intake of sodium- and potassium-containing foods
Q3) The nurse is giving morning medications. The Medication Administration Record has an order for levothyroxine, 25 mcg PO. The drug-dispensing cabinet contains levothyroxine tablets in milligram strengths instead of micrograms. Calculate the milligram equivalent dose of 25 mcg. _______
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Chapter 32: Antidiabetic Drugs
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23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching about hypoglycemia, the nurse will make sure that the patient is aware of the early signs of hypoglycemia, including which of these?
A) Hypothermia and seizures.
B) Nausea and diarrhea.
C) Confusion and sweating.
D) Fruity, acetone odor to the breath.
Q2) A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and type 2 diabetes has been treated for pneumonia for the past week. The patient has been receiving intravenous corticosteroids as well as antibiotics as part of his therapy. At this time, the pneumonia has resolved, but when monitoring the blood glucose levels, the nurse notices that the level is still elevated. What is the best explanation for this elevation?
A) The antibiotics may cause an increase in glucose levels.
B) The corticosteroids may cause an increase in glucose levels.
C) His type 2 diabetes has converted to type 1.
D) The hypoxia caused by the COPD causes an increased need for insulin.
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Chapter 33: Adrenal Drugs
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing therapy with glucocorticoid drugs. Which conditions are indications for glucocorticoid drugs?
A) Glaucoma
B) Cerebral edema
C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D) Organ transplantation
E) Varicella
F) Septicemia
Q2) A patient is concerned about the body changes that have resulted from long-term prednisone therapy for the treatment of asthma. Which expected effect of this drug therapy would cause a change in the patient's appearance?
A) Weight loss
B) Weight gain
C) Pale skin color
D) Hair loss
Q3) A patient has been admitted for an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and will be receiving methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 30 mg intravenously every 6 hours. The medication is available in 40 mg/mL vials. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse draw up for this dose. _______
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Womens Health Drugs
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes that the risk of osteoporosis is higher in an individual with which risk factor?
A) White or Asian race
B) African-American race
C) History of participation in active sports
D) Obesity
Q2) A 51-year-old woman will be taking selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) as part of treatment for postmenopausal osteoporosis. The nurse reviews potential contraindications, including which condition?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Breast cancer
C) Stress fractures
D) Venous thromboembolism
Q3) The nurse is providing teaching for a patient who is to receive progestin therapy. Which statement is correct to include in the teaching session?
A) "If you miss a dose, double-up on the next dose."
B) "There's no need to be concerned about breast lumps or bumps that occur."
C) "Be sure to report any weight gain of 5 pounds or more per week."
D) "Take the medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption."
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Mens Health Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse notes in a female patient's history that she has an order for the androgen testosterone (Android). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?
A) Fibrocystic breast disease
B) Hereditary angioedema
C) Hypertension
D) Inoperable breast cancer
Q2) The nurse is instructing a male patient about application of transdermal testosterone gel (AndroGel). Which body location is preferred for this medication?
A) Shoulders
B) Thigh
C) Scrotum
D) Abdomen
E) Upper arms
Q3) A patient will be receiving testosterone cypionate (Depo-Testosterone) 400 mg intramuscularly every 4 weeks. The medication is available in a 200-mg/mL strength. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse draw up for each injection. _______
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse will instruct patients about a possible systemic effect that may occur if excessive amounts of topically applied adrenergic nasal decongestants are used. Which systemic effect may occur?
A) Heartburn
B) Bradycardia
C) Drowsiness
D) Palpitations
Q2) During a routine checkup, a patient states that she is unable to take the prescribed antihistamine because of one of its most common adverse effects. The nurse suspects that which adverse effect has been bothering this patient?
A) Constipation
B) Abdominal cramps
C) Drowsiness
D) Decreased libido
Q3) A patient will be receiving diphenhydramine (Benadryl) via a PEG tube, 25 mg, every 8 hours for an allergic rash. The medication is available as a 12.5 mg/5 mL syrup. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse administer with each dose. _______
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Respiratory Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) After receiving a nebulizer treatment with a beta agonist, the patient states she is feeling slightly nervous and wonders if her asthma is getting worse. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "This is an expected adverse effect. Let me take your pulse."
B) "The next scheduled nebulizer treatment will be skipped."
C) "I will notify the physician about this adverse effect."
D) "We will hold the treatment for 24 hours."
Q2) A patient is in an urgent care center with an acute asthma attack. The nurse expects that which medication will be used for initial treatment?
A) An anticholinergic such as ipratropium
B) A short-acting beta<sub>2</sub> agonist such as albuterol
C) A long-acting beta<sub>2</sub> agonist such as salmeterol
D) A corticosteroid such as fluticasone
Q3) The nurse is providing instructions about the Advair inhaler (fluticasone propionate and salmeterol). Which statement about this inhaler is accurate?
A) It is indicated for the treatment of acute bronchospasms.
B) It needs to be used with a spacer for best results.
C) Patients need to avoid drinking water for 1 hour after taking this drug.
D) It is used for the prevention of bronchospasms.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Antibiotics Part 1
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the medication history of a patient who will be taking a sulfonamide antibiotic. During sulfonamide therapy, a significant drug interaction may occur with which of these drugs or drug classes?
A) Opioids
B) Oral contraceptives
C) Sulfonylureas
D) Antihistamines
E) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
F) Warfarin (Coumadin)
Q2) A patient with a long-term intravenous catheter is going home. The nurse knows that if the patient is allergic to seafood, which antiseptic agent is contraindicated?
A) Chlorhexidine gluconate (Hibiclens)
B) Hydrogen peroxide
C) Povidone-iodine (Betadine)
D) Isopropyl alcohol
Q3) A patient will be receiving penicillin G potassium, 12 million units daily in divided doses every 4 hours IVPB. Identify how many units the patient will receive for each dose each day. _______
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Chapter 39: Antibiotics Part 2
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will be receiving nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) treatment for a urinary tract infection. The nurse is reviewing the patient's history and will question the nitrofurantoin order if which disorder is present in the history?
A) Liver disease
B) Coronary artery disease
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
E) Chronic renal disease
Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE). The nurse expects to see orders for which drug?
A) Dapsone (Cubicin), a miscellaneous antibiotic
B) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro), a quinolone
C) Linezolid (Zyvox), an oxazolidinone
D) Colistimethate sodium (Coly-Mycin), a polypeptide antibiotic
Q3) Which problem may occur in a patient who has started aminoglycoside therapy?
A) Constipation
B) Renal damage
C) Gynecomastia
D) Leukocytosis
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Antiviral Drugs
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has undergone a lung transplant has contracted cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis. The nurse expects which drug to be ordered for this patient?
A) Acyclovir (Zovirax)
B) Ganciclovir (Cytovene)
C) Ribavirin (Virazole)
D) Amantadine (Symmetrel)
Q2) A patient who is diagnosed with genital herpes is taking topical acyclovir. The nurse will provide which teaching for this patient?
A) "Be sure to wash your hands thoroughly before and after applying this medicine."
B) "Apply this ointment until the lesion stops hurting."
C) "Use a clean glove when applying this ointment."
D) "If your partner develops these lesions, then your partner can also use the medication."
E) "You will need to avoid touching the area around your eyes."
F) "You will have to practice abstinence when these lesions are active."
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42
Chapter 41: Antitubercular Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer morning medications to a patient who has been newly diagnosed with tuberculosis. The patient asks, "Why do I have to take so many different drugs?" Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Your prescriber hopes that at least one of these drugs will work to fight the tuberculosis."
B) "Taking multiple drugs is recommended because of the increasing presence of resistance to TB drug therapy.
C) "Using more than one drug can help to reduce side effects."
D) "Using multiple drugs enhances the effect of each drug."
Q2) When monitoring patients on antitubercular drug therapy, the nurse knows that which drug may cause a decrease in visual acuity?
A) Rifampin (Rifadin)
B) Isoniazid (INH)
C) Ethambutol (Myambutol)
D) Streptomycin
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Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient is taking fluconazole (Diflucan) with an oral anticoagulant, the nurse will monitor for which possible interaction?
A) Reduced action of oral anticoagulants
B) Increased effects of oral anticoagulants
C) Hypokalemia
D) Decreased effectiveness of the antifungal drug
Q2) The nurse is administering an amphotericin B infusion. Which actions by the nurse are appropriate?
A) Administering the medication by rapid IV infusion
B) Discontinuing the drug immediately if the patient develops tingling and numbness in the extremities
C) If adverse effects occur, reducing the IV rate gradually until they subside
D) Using an infusion pump for IV therapy
E) Monitoring the IV site for signs of phlebitis and infiltration
F) Administering premedication for fever and nausea
G) Knowing that the intravenous solution for amphotericin B will be cloudy
H) Knowing that muscle twitching may indicate hypokalemia
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has a helminthic infection has a prescription for pyrantel (Antiminth). Which is one of the common adverse effects that the patient may experience while on this therapy?
A) Insomnia
B) Seizures
C) Diarrhea
D) Dark discoloration of the urine
Q2) A patient is receiving hydroxychloroquine therapy but tells the nurse that she has never traveled out of her city. The nurse knows that a possible reason for this drug therapy is which condition?
A) Lyme disease
B) Toxoplasmosis
C) Systemic lupus erythematosus
D) Intestinal tapeworms
Q3) A patient with Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia will be receiving pentamidine as an intravenous piggyback (IVPB) dose. The medication has been added to a 100-mL bag of D W for the infusion, and it needs to infuse over 120 minutes. The nurse will set the infusion pump to infuse at what rate for this IVPB medication? _______
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Chapter 44: Anti-Inflammatory and Antigout Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient who is taking colchicine for the treatment of gout. Which instruction will the nurse include during the teaching session?
A) "Fluids should be restricted while on colchicine therapy."
B) "Take colchicine with meals."
C) "The drug will be discontinued when symptoms are reduced."
D) "Call your doctor if you have increased joint pain or blood in the urine."
Q2) There is a new order for Naproxen (Naprosyn) 250 mg PO twice daily. The drug is available as an oral suspension that contains 125 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will administer for 1 dose of this medication. _______
Q3) The nurse is reviewing the therapeutic effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), which include which effect?
A) Anxiolytic
B) Sedative
C) Antipyretic
D) Antimicrobial
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Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 1: Cancer Overview and
Cell Cycle-Specific Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) During treatment of a patient who has brain cancer, the nurse hears the oncologist mention that the patient has reached the "nadir." The nurse knows that this term means which of these?
A) The lowest level of neutrophils reached during therapy.
B) The highest level of neutrophils reached during therapy.
C) The point at which the adverse effects of chemotherapy will stop.
D) The point at which the cytotoxic action against cancer cells is the highest.
Q2) When giving chemotherapy as cancer treatment, the nurse recognizes that toxicity to rapidly growing normal cells also occurs. Which rapidly growing normal cells are also harmed by chemotherapy?
A) Bone marrow cells
B) Retinal cells
C) Hair follicle cells
D) Nerve myelin cells
E) Gastrointestinal (GI) mucous membrane cells
Q3) A patient is to receive a daily dose of fludarabine (Fludara), 25 mg/m²/day for 5 consecutive days. Each dose is diluted in a 125-mL bag of normal saline and is to infuse over 30 minutes. The nurse will set the infusion pump to what rate in milliliters per hour?
Page 47
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Chapter 46: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 2: Cell
Cyclenonspecific Drugs and Miscellaneous Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) When giving cisplatin (Platinol-AQ), the nurse is aware that adverse effect of this drug is which condition?
A) Alopecia
B) Kidney damage
C) Cardiotoxicity
D) Stomatitis
Q2) The nurse is hanging a new infusion bag of a chemotherapy drug, but the tubing becomes disconnected and a small amount of the solution drips onto the floor. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A) Let it dry, and then mop the floor.
B) Wipe the area with a disposable paper towel.
C) Use a spill kit to clean the area.
D) Ask the housekeeping department to clean the floor.
Q3) The nurse is teaching a class about the various chemotherapy drugs. Which of these statements explains why alkylating drugs are also called "cell cycle-nonspecific drugs"?
A) They are cytotoxic during a specific cell cycle.
B) They are cytotoxic in any phase of the cell cycle.
C) They are effective against several types of neoplasms.
D) They are more highly differentiated than cell cycle-specific drugs.
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Biologic Responsemodifying and Antirheumatic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks about his cancer treatment with monoclonal antibodies. The nurse tells him that which is the major advantage of treating certain cancers with monoclonal antibodies?
A) They will help the patient improve more quickly than will other antineoplastic drugs.
B) They are more effective against metastatic tumors.
C) Monoclonal antibodies target certain tumor cells and yet bypass normal cells.
D) There are fewer incidences of opportunistic infections with monoclonal antibodies.
Q2) When monitoring a patient's response to interferon therapy, the nurse notes that the major dose-limiting factor for interferon therapy is which condition?
A) Diarrhea
B) Fatigue
C) Anxiety
D) Nausea and vomiting
Q3) A patient will be receiving aldesleukin [IL-2] (Proleukin), 600,000 IU/kg every 8 hours for 14 doses. The patient weighs 220 pounds. Identify how many IU of medication this patient will receive per dose. _______
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Immunosuppressant Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will be on a tacrolimus (Prograf) infusion after receiving a liver transplant. The order reads, "Give 0.03 mg/kg/day as a continuous IV infusion." The patient weighs 159 pounds, and the medication injection solution is available in a 5-mg/mL strength. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse draw up for this infusion. (record answer using two decimal places) _______
Q2) The nurse follows which procedures when giving intravenous (IV) cyclosporine?
A) Administering it as a single IV bolus injection to minimize adverse effects
B) Using an infusion pump to administer this medication
C) Monitoring the patient for potential delayed adverse effects, which may be severe
D) Monitoring the patient closely for the first 30 minutes for severe adverse effects
E) Checking blood levels periodically during cyclosporine therapy
F) Performing frequent oral care during therapy
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Chapter 49: Immunizing Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is working in an immunization clinic. A new colleague asks, "When is the first dose of the diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DtaP, Daptacel) given?" The nurse knows that this series is started at what age?
A) At birth
B) 6 weeks
C) 3 months
D) 1 year
Q2) A 30-year-old woman is in the clinic for her yearly gynecologic exam and asks the nurse about the "new vaccine that prevents HPV." She wants to receive the papillomavirus vaccine (Gardasil). Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "For women, the recommended age for this vaccine is 13 to 26 years of age."
B) "We will need to make sure you are not pregnant first."
C) "There will be a total of three injections."
D) "I will check with your health care provider and then get the first dose of the vaccine ready."
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Chapter 50: Acid-Controlling Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 75-year-old woman comes into the clinic and states she has had muscle twitching, nausea, and headache. She tells the nurse that she has been taking sodium bicarbonate five or six times a day for the past 3 weeks. The nurse will assess for which potential problem that may occur with overuse of sodium bicarbonate?
A) Constipation
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Excessive gastric mucus
Q2) A patient will be receiving pantoprazole (Protonix), 20 mg IV daily every morning. The medication, once reconstituted, has a strength of 40 mg/10 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will draw up for this dose. _______
Q3) The nurse is teaching a patient who will be taking a proton pump inhibitor as long-term therapy about potential adverse effects. Which statement is correct?
A) Proton pump inhibitors can cause diarrhea.
B) These drugs can cause nausea and anorexia.
C) Proton pump inhibitors cause drowsiness.
D) Long-term use of these drugs may contribute to osteoporosis.
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Chapter 51: Bowel Disorder Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will be taking bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol) to control diarrhea. When reviewing the patient's other ordered medications, the nurse recognizes that which medication or medication class will interact significantly with the Pepto-Bismol?
A) Hypoglycemic drugs
B) Antibiotics
C) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
D) Antidepressants
Q2) A patient is severely constipated and needs immediate relief. The nurse knows that which class of laxative will provide the most rapid results?
A) Bulk-forming laxative, such as psyllium (Metamucil)
B) Stool softener, such as docusate salts (Colace)
C) Magnesium hydroxide (MOM)
D) Magnesium oxide tablets
Q3) A 10-year-old child will be receiving docusate sodium (Colace), 120 mg/day PO, divided into 3 doses. Identify how many milligrams will the child receive per dose.
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Chapter 52: Antiemetic and Antinausea Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with motion sickness is planning a cross-country car trip and has a new prescription for a scopolamine transdermal patch (Transderm-Scop). The nurse provides teaching for the use of this patch medication. The patient shows a correct understanding of the teaching with which statement?
A) "I will change the patch every day."
B) "I will change the patch every other day."
C) "I will change the patch every 3 days."
D) "I will remove the patch only if it stops working."
Q2) An adult patient is about to receive intravenous (IV) ondansetron (Zofran) during a chemotherapy treatment. A dose of 0.15 mg/kg IV 30 minutes before chemotherapy is ordered. The patient weighs 140 pounds. The medication is supplied in a vial marked 2 mg/mL for IV administration. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will administer for this dose. (record answer to one decimal place) _______
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Chapter 53: Vitamins and Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse will prepare to give which preparation to a newborn upon arrival in the nursery after delivery?
A) Vitamin B1 (thiamine)
B) Vitamin D (calciferol)
C) Folic acid
D) Vitamin K (AquaMEPHYTON)
Q2) The patient asks the nurse about taking large doses of vitamin C to improve her immunity to colds. "It's just a vitamin, right? What can happen?" Which responses by the nurse are correct?
A) "Vitamin C is harmless because it is a water-soluble vitamin."
B) "Large doses of vitamin C can cause nausea, vomiting, headache, and abdominal cramps."
C) "Keep in mind that if you suddenly stop taking these large doses, you might experience symptoms similar to scurvy."
D) "Studies have shown that vitamin C has little value in preventing the common cold."
E) "Vitamin C acidifies the urine, which can lead to the formation of kidney stones."
F) "Large doses of vitamin C may delay wound healing."
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Chapter 54: Anemia Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is to receive iron dextran injections. Which technique is appropriate when the nurse is administering this medication?
A) Intravenous administration mixed with 5% dextrose
B) Intramuscular injection in the upper arm
C) Intramuscular injection using the Z-track method
D) Subcutaneous injection into the abdomen
Q2) A patient has been taking iron supplements for anemia for 2 months. During a follow-up assessment, the nurse will observe for which therapeutic response?
A) Decreased weight
B) Increased activity tolerance
C) Decreased palpitations
D) Increased appetite
Q3) A 2-year-old child will be receiving ferrous sulfate oral drops (Fer-Iron) 5 mg/kg/day in three divided doses. The child weighs 26 pounds. Identify how many milligrams the nurse will administer per dose. (record answer using one decimal place) _______
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Chapter 55: Nutritional Supplements
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient needs to receive an enteral supplement to improve her overall nutritional status. When considering enteral supplements, the nurse notes that which formulation provides complex nutrients?
A) Ensure Plus
B) Moducal
C) Propac
D) Microlipid
Q2) The total parenteral nutrition (TPN) order reads, "Infuse TPN #2 over 24 hours." Bag #2 of TPN contains 1800 mL. At what rate will the nurse set the infusion pump? _______
Q3) The peripheral parenteral nutrition bag that has been infusing into the patient is empty, and the nurse realizes that the next bag is not ready. The nurse should immediately hang which of these intravenous solutions until the new bag arrives?
A) 10% dextrose in water
B) 20% dextrose in water
C) 0.9% sodium chloride
D) Lactated Ringer's solution
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Chapter 56: Dermatologic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a prescription for topically applied 5% fluorouracil (Efudex) cream as part of treatment for basal cell carcinoma on her cheek. Which instructions will the nurse provide to the patient?
A) "You must use gloves to apply this medication."
B) "You can use clean fingertips to apply the cream, but be sure to wash your hands afterward."
C) "You will need to stay out of the sun during therapy with this medication."
D) "Apply this medication to the affected site once a day in the evening."
E) "Apply this medication to the affected site twice daily."
F) "You may have swelling, scaling, burning, and tenderness in the affected area."
Q2) A teenage boy is taking tretinoin (Retin-A) for acne. Which statement will the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A) "Avoid foods that are heavy in salt and oils."
B) "This drug may cause increased redness of your skin."
C) "Try using an abrasive cleanser to remove old skin layers."
D) "Being out in the sunlight will help your skin heal."
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Chapter 57: Ophthalmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with an eye injury requires an ocular examination to detect the presence of a foreign body. The nurse anticipates that which drug will be used for this examination?
A) Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)
B) Fluorescein sodium (AK-Fluor)
C) Atropine sulfate (Isopto Atropine)
D) Olopatadine (Patanol)
Q2) A patient is about to undergo ocular surgery. The preoperative nurse anticipates that which drug will be used for local anesthesia?
A) Oral glycerin
B) Proparacaine (Alcaine)
C) Timolol (Timoptic)
D) Dipivefrin (Propine)
Q3) The nurse is reviewing the use of ophthalmic preparations. Indications for the directand indirect-acting miotics include which condition?
A) Cataracts
B) Removal of foreign bodies
C) Open-angle glaucoma
D) Ocular infections
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Chapter 58: Otic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child has been diagnosed with bacterial otitis externa and will be receiving eardrops. Which of these eardrops are appropriate for this infection?
A) Floxin Otic
B) Cortic
C) Debrox
D) Acetasol HC
E) Cipro HC Otic
Q2) The nurse is administering eardrops that contain a combination of an antibiotic and a corticosteroid. What is the rationale for combining these two drugs in eardrops?
A) The combination works to help soften and eliminate cerumen.
B) The corticosteroid reduces pain associated with ear infections.
C) The drops help to eliminate fungal infections.
D) The corticosteroid reduces the inflammation and itching associated with ear infections.
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