Course Introduction
Pharmacotherapeutics
Exam Solutions
Pharmacotherapeutics is the study of the use of drugs in the prevention and treatment of disease. This course covers the principles of drug action, the selection of appropriate pharmacologic agents, and the evaluation of therapeutic outcomes across various disease states. Emphasizing evidence-based practice, students learn to assess patient-specific factors, anticipate potential drug interactions or adverse effects, and optimize medication regimens for safety and efficacy. Through case studies and clinical scenarios, learners develop critical thinking skills necessary to individualize pharmacotherapy in diverse patient populations.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Pharmacology 8th Edition by Shane Bullock
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773 Verified Questions
773 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Sociocultural Aspects
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Australia,there are some Schedule 3 medications that can be advertised in the popular media.One example of a medication to which this advertising policy applies is:
A) miconazole pessaries.
B) ampicillin capsules.
C) royal jelly preparations.
D) codeine tablets.
Answer: A
Q2) It is best to learn about pharmacology with reference to what particular type of medication names?
A) Chemical names
B) Brand names
C) Generic names
D) Proprietary names
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Health Professionals and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) After giving a verbal order,the health professional must:
A) confirm the verbal order in writing within 48 hours.
B) confirm the verbal order in writing within 24 hours.
C) ensure that the medication is administered by the health professional.
D) ensure that a health professional has co-signed the verbal order.
Answer: B
Q2) According to the Standard for the Uniform Scheduling of Medicines and Poisons in Australia,in which drug schedule is a controlled drug classified?
A) Schedule 1.
B) Schedule 2.
C) Schedule 4.
D) Schedule 8.
Answer: D
Q3) In Victoria,midwives employed in hospitals are permitted to initiate administration of up to two pethidine injections to a woman in labour without a health professional's order.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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4
Chapter 3: Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the meaning of the term 'not for resuscitation (NFR)order'?
A) The client will not be resuscitated by health care professionals if they suffer a cardiac or respiratory arrest.
B) The client will not receive admission to the intensive care unit.
C) The client will not receive full nursing care.
D) The client will not receive ventilatory and inotropic support.
Answer: A
Q2) Ms B has an operable brain tumour but refuses life-saving treatment after an acute bleeding episode.Her partner supports the decision.What ethical principle do the health professionals apply to justify doing nothing?
A) Non-maleficence
B) Confidentiality
C) Autonomy
D) Justice
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.Her mother has also been diagnosed some years ago.Which of the following teaching principles will be most helpful in client teaching?
A) Passive participation
B) Prior knowledge and experience
C) Repetition will not be required.
D) The patient is genetically predisposed to be prepared for accompanying pain.
Q2) In their role as client advocate,health professionals inform people about their rights in relation to drug therapy,other health care-related matters,or when confronted by adversaries,to empower them to make informed decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following factors has an effect on medication adherence? Select all that apply.
A) Age extremes
B) Communication barriers
C) Polypharmacy
D) Single illness with uncomplicated treatment regimen
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Chapter 5: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
Professionals in Medicine Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following health professionals treat clients having temporary or permanent physical disability by physical treatment modalities (such as exercise,massage,splinting and electrical stimulation)that often require supplementary drug therapy?
A) Prescriber
B) Nurse
C) Physiotherapist
D) Paramedic
Q2) Which of the following health professionals are permitted to prescribe and administer local anaesthetics,topical preparations (such as antiseptic lotions and antifungal creams)and antibiotics in their work involving prevention,diagnosis and treatment of foot disorders?
A) Nurse
B) Paramedic
C) Physiotherapist
D) Podiatrist
Q3) Dietitians are legally allowed to administer medications to clients.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Medicine Formulations, Storage and Routes of Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Is it problematic to administer heparin via intramuscular injection?
A) No, intramuscular and subcutaneous administration are both safe and effective.
B) No, as long as the dose is appropriate.
C) Yes, it can cause a haematoma to form.
D) Yes, limited blood flow to skeletal muscles causes reduced bioavailability of the drug.
Q2) To avoid hydrolysis of aspirin tablets,the container should be kept in:
A) the bathroom.
B) the kitchen.
C) a coat pocket.
D) a cool, dry place.
Q3) Laxative enemas are hypertonic in order to:
A) draw water into the lower gastrointestinal tract to soften stool.
B) dissolve faecal matter to enable it to be excreted.
C) improve the fluid balance of the client.
D) bulk up the faeces in order to minimise diarrhoea.
Q4) Sustained or controlled-release medication should not be crushed or chewed.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: the Clinical Decision-making Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) New Zealand is the only country worldwide that has a comprehensive medicinal policy at the Commonwealth level.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The nursing clinical decision-making process involves the following steps:
A) assessment, planning and implementation.
B) assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.
C) assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation.
D) assessment and evaluation.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Australia's National Medicines Policy?
A) Timely access to the medicines that Australians need, at a cost individuals and the community can afford
B) Medicines meeting appropriate standards of quality, safety and efficacy
C) Quality use of medicines
D) Consumers and health professionals communicating effectively about medicines management
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9
Chapter 8: Medicine Administration Strategies and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many registered nurses are needed to check information for administration of drugs such as narcotic analgesics,digoxin and warfarin?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) More than five
Q2) Sympathomimetic agents such as adrenaline,noradrenaline and dopamine,which are commonly used in critical care areas,cannot be given through a peripheral vein because:
A) it would be difficult for the nurse to control the flow rate of a peripheral infusion.
B) a volumetric pump cannot be connected to a peripheral intravenous line.
C) there is greater risk of infection around the cannula site.
D) the agents can cause permanent necrosis of extremities.
Q3) A health professional is required to practice within the policies and procedures of the health care agency and to follow the legal framework of government legislation.
A)True
B)False
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Medication Errors
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to avoid medication errors,it is a good strategy to have two patients with the same name positioned:
A) next to each other.
B) opposite each other.
C) next to the central office area.
D) at opposite ends of the hospital ward.
Q2) Following the five rights"will help reduce medication errors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following are potential sources of medical errors? Select all that apply.
A) The wrong dose of a medication is given.
B) The person's identity is not checked.
C) The manufacturer changes inert ingredients.
D) The person takes all of their medicines at the same time every day.
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11
Chapter 10: Management of Common Adverse Drug Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Postural hypotension is an adverse effect often associated with drugs that:
A) block \(\alpha\)-adrenoceptors.
B) stimulate \(\alpha\)-adrenoreceptors.
C) block \(\beta\)-adrenoreceptors
D) stimulate \(\beta\)-adrenoreceptors
Q2) A common adverse drug reaction is hypertension.The drug therapy for treatment of hypertension may include the following EXCEPT:
A) -adrenoreceptor agonists.
B) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
C) calcium antagonists.
D) -adrenoreceptor antagonists.
Q3) What is the mainstay of treatment for anaphylactic shock?
A) Hydrocortisone
B) Adrenaline
C) Salbutamol
D) Promethazine
Q4) Aplastic anaemia caused by chloramphenicol is an example of type B adverse drug reaction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Risk Communication: Balancing the Benefits and Risks of Drug Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A study examining the risks and benefits of hormone replacement therapy (HRT)finds the number needed to treat with HRT to prevent an osteoporotic fracture is 300.This figure means 300 women need to be treated to prevent:
A) one woman from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
B) five women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
C) 110 women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
D) 220 women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
Q2) Which of the following strategies would NOT be beneficial in communicating risks and benefits to individuals?
A) Offer balanced information.
B) Use specific, descriptive terms for risk.
C) Use a consistent denominator.
D) Use visual aids.
Q3) Relative risk refers to the ratio of the incidence of an adverse event occurring in individuals taking a medication as compared to individuals not taking a medication having the same adverse event.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Drug Nomenclature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individual drugs can be classified according to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) therapeutic use.
B) mode of action.
C) molecular structure.
D) adverse drug reaction.
Q2) Drugs with generic names that end in the suffix -pril are members of the drug group called:
A) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) serotonin receptor antagonists.
D) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a generic drug name used in Australia and New Zealand?
A) Frusemide
B) Furomide
C) Furosemide
D) Lasix
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Chapter 13: Pharmacokinetics: Absorption and Distribution
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Sample Questions
Q1) By which route are drugs not subject to the physiological process of absorption through a blood vessel wall?
A) Intramuscularly
B) Intradermally
C) Intravenously
D) Subcutaneously
Q2) Drugs that are liver enzyme inducers may:
A) increase a drug's half-life.
B) increase a drug's metabolism.
C) inhibit a drug's therapeutic effect.
D) increase tissue distribution of another drug.
Q3) If a drug accumulates in one tissue (that is,the drug is extensively bound to a tissue),its volume of distribution is low.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Drugs are best absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract if they are:
A) hydrophilic.
B) amphipathic.
C) lipophobic.
D) lipophilic.
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Chapter 14: Pharmacokinetics Metabolism and Excretion
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Q1) Glyceryl trinitrate is almost 96 per cent destroyed by the liver on its first journey through.It is therefore referred to as having a:
A) low hepatic first-pass effect.
B) medium hepatic first-pass effect
C) high hepatic first-pass effect.
D) high metabolic first-pass effect.
Q2) Clearance of an acidic drug by the kidneys may be increased by:
A) alkalising the urine.
B) administering amphetamines.
C) administering ascorbic acid.
D) administering sodium hydrogen carbonate.
Q3) Which of the following drugs is not excreted by the lungs?
A) Ethanol
B) Salbutamol
C) Isoflurane
D) Metoprolol
Q4) Explain what is meant by drug clearance.
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16
Chapter 15: Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which way can hepatic enzymes be altered by drug metabolism?
A) Can cause enhancement or inhibition of metabolism
B) Can interact with the external environment
C) Are only altered in conjunction with food
D) Are only considered with regard to synergistic effects between drugs
Q2) A common drug-food interaction is between grapefruit juice and:
A) aspirin.
B) paracetamol.
C) felodipine.
D) ibuprofen.
Q3) The drug interactions that occur with cimetidine are usually due to:
A) enzyme inhibition.
B) enzyme induction.
C) protein binding.
D) summation.
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Chapter 16: Pharmacodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a drug acts through non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme,it:
A) can be overcome by giving more of the enzyme substrate.
B) is usually reversible.
C) binds to a distinct site away from the active site.
D) is lethal to the person receiving treatment.
Q2) Pharmacodynamics describes the physiological processes that act on a drug once it enters the body,or how the body handles the drug.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A drug mechanism that works to neutralise stomach acid is considered to be:
A) an action targeting ion channels.
B) a chemical action.
C) an agonist action.
D) a physical action.
Q4) Some terms that describe interactions between drugs and receptors include: (Select all that apply)
A) antagonism.
B) agonism.
C) first mechanism
D) first messenger
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Chapter 17: Drug Development, Evaluation and Safety
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Q1) Into which medicines in pregnancy category is a drug assigned that has caused or is suspected of causing fetal harm,but not malformations?
A) Category B
B) Category C
C) Category D
D) Category X
Q2) The ability of a drug to produce an effect at a receptor is referred to as:
A) affinity.
B) specificity.
C) efficacy.
D) potency.
Q3) Which of the following tests characterises the drug screening process?
A) Testing for drug potency in humans
B) The monitoring of adverse effects after the drug is released into the marketplace
C) The identification of a chemical with potential therapeutic action
D) The assessment of drug toxicity in animals
Q4) Only a few medicines are excreted in breast milk.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Genetic Considerations in Pharmacology
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Q1) The types of gene therapy include:
A) somatic and germline.
B) psychosomatic and germline.
C) somatic and viraline.
D) psychosomatic and viraline.
Q2) If a person who has an inherited disorder wished to minimise the odds of passing that genetic materials to their offspring,germline therapy will be of no use.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following are ethical issues associated with pharmacogenetics? Select all that apply.
A) Keeping data secure
B) Insurance risk
C) Cost of therapy
D) Lack of data on effectiveness of treatment
Q4) Two techniques used in gene therapy include in vitro and vector methods.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Pharmacokinetic Factors That Modify Drug Action
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Sample Questions
Q1) During pregnancy,drug absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is variable and unpredictable due to slowed peristalsis and gastric emptying.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which one of the following factors would not be expected to increase the rate of drug absorption from the small intestines?
A) A small-sized drug molecule
B) Delayed gastric emptying
C) An increase in gut blood flow
D) The majority of drug molecules in an un-ionised state
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Chapter 20: Paediatric and Geriatric Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would assist in medication adherence for the older person?
A) Simple medicine regimens
B) Use of medication aids
C) Improved communication
D) All of the above
Q2) In geriatric settings,it is desirable to:
A) arrange for all drugs to be dispensed to clients in childproof containers.
B) administer all drugs to all clients so that they can concentrate on resting and getting better.
C) encourage the client to learn about their medications prior to discharge.
D) use the deltoid muscle for intramuscular injection in a client with muscle wasting.
Q3) In paediatric settings,it is desirable to:
A) leave medications on the bedside locker for later administration.
B) use the vastus lateralis muscle for intramuscular injection.
C) prepare medicines for injection in front of the child.
D) advise the child that injections are painless.
Q4) Compared to neonates,do the elderly have greater or diminished drug effects due to variation in the volume of body fluid?
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Poisoning and Envenomation
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Q1) Which of the following best characterises the main principles associated with the emergency management of poisoning?
A) Life support, clinical assessment, decontamination and detoxification, neutralisation and elimination of the poison
B) The monitoring of adverse effects after ingestion of the poison
C) The identification of the chemical associated with the poisoning and administration of decontaminating agents
D) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following best characterizes the mode of action of cyanide poisoning?
A) Central nervous system depressant
B) Displaces essential trace elements and accumulates in tissues
C) Permanently disables the enzyme cholinesterase
D) Diminishes cellular energy
Q3) Which of the following is an iron chelating agent?
A) Disodium edetate
B) Deferasirox
C) d-penicillamine
D) Calcium gluconate
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Chapter 22: the Management of Acute Clinical Overdose
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Q1) A specific antidote for an overdose of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor is:
A) physostigmine.
B) atropine.
C) acetylcysteine.
D) naloxone.
Q2) The principle of management of clinical drug overdose that takes precedence over all others is:
A) life support.
B) patient assessment.
C) drug detoxification.
D) drug elimination.
Q3) In order to facilitate the pooling of stomach contents and hinder their movement into the duodenum,an unconscious person undergoing gastric lavage needs to be positioned:
A) on their back.
B) on their right side.
C) on their left side.
D) in a semi-recumbent position
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24
Chapter 23: Contemporary Drugs of Abuse
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Q1) Which of the following medications can be used to treat alcohol addiction?
A) Metronidazole
B) Disulfiram
C) Acamprosate
D) Both B and C
Q2) Which of the following is a symptom of caffeine withdrawal?
A) Hallucinations
B) Palpitations
C) Headaches
D) Muscle tremors
Q3) Therapeutic uses of marijuana include:
A) glaucoma.
B) emesis control.
C) hypertension.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Nicotine can have the following effect EXCEPT:
A) weight gain.
B) stimulation.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) appetite suppression.
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Chapter 24: Drug Abuse in Sport
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Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT usually given by sportspeople as a reason for drug doping?
A) To increase popularity amongst peers
B) To gain a competitive edge
C) To cope with stress
D) Dissatisfaction with current performance
Q2) One rationale given for misuse of narcotic agents by sportspeople is to:
A) induce anabolic effects.
B) produce euphoria.
C) promote aggression.
D) increase blood oxygen-carrying capacity.
Q3) Which of the following statements is NOT true in relation to detection of drug use in sport?
A) Individual differences in pharmacokinetics affect the results of drug tests.
B) Sportswomen can use some drugs on the WADA banned list that sportsmen cannot.
C) Peptide hormone misuse can be difficult to detect.
D) Low-dose anabolic-androgenic steroid use causes feminisation in men.
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Chapter 25: General Aspects of Neuropharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in autonomic nervous system (ANS)function?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Vasopressin
C) Acetylcholine
D) Dobutamine
Q2) What effect does the parasympathetic system have on the heart?
A) Increases heart rate
B) Decreases heart rate
C) Causes vasodilation
D) Increases the force of the heart
Q3) Sympathetic stimulation would result in which one of the following sets of responses?
A) Increased gastric juice secretion and increased heart rate
B) Sweating, urinary retention, salivation and pupil dilation
C) Increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, defecation and erection of genitalia
D) Slowed heart rate, increased blood pressure, pupil constriction and pallor
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Chapter 26: Adrenergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following receptors are located presynaptically and are found on all adrenergic nerve terminals?
A) <sub>1</sub>
B) <sub>2</sub>
C) <sub>1</sub>
D <sub>2</sub>
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a second messenger?
A) Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
B) Cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP)
C) Calcium ion
D) All of the above
Q3) Receptors that respond to norepinephrine are called:
A) adrenergic.
B) cholinergic.
C) dopaminergic.
D) noradrenergic.
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Chapter 27: Cholinergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Which enzyme is responsible for the degradation of acetylcholine?
A) Monoamine oxidase
B) Cholinesterase
C) Catechol-O-methyltransferase
D) Both A and B
Q2) Which set of drug responses best matches the action of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?
A) Feelings of relaxation, increased skeletal muscle tone, increased autonomic tone and the release of catecholamines
B) Bronchoconstriction, increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, increased skeletal muscle tension and bradycardia
C) Tachycardia, facial flushing, decreased gastrointestinal motility, dry mouth and urinary retention
D) Tachycardia, histamine-induced hypotension, muscle relaxation and decreased gastrointestinal motility
Q3) Acetylcholinesterase breaks acetylcholine into choline and acetate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: An Introduction to Chemical Mediators
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Q1) Which of the following mediators is released directly into the bloodstream?
A) Hormones
B) Neurotransmitters
C) Autacoids
D) None of the above
Q2) Mediators that induce their effect without entering the circulation are referred to as:
A) hormones.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) autacoids.
D) second messengers.
Q3) Which of the following mediators acts on a distant target?
A) Neurotransmitter
B) Classic hormone
C) Local hormone
D) Autacoid
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Chapter 29: Histamine and Antihistamines
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Q1) Where are H<sub>1</sub> receptors found?
A) Stomach
B) Smooth muscles
C) Immune cells
D) All of the above
Q2) Blocking which histamine receptor would help in the management of excessive gastric acid secretion?
A) H<sub>1</sub>
B) H<sub>2</sub>
C) H<sub>3</sub>
D) H<sub>4</sub>
Q3) Which route of administration is preferred is hypovolaemic shock occurs?
A) Intravenous
B) Oral
C) Rectal
D) Transdermal
Q4) First-generation antihistamines have a longer duration of action.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Prostaglandins and Serotonin
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Q1) Drugs that inhibit the synaptic serotonin reuptake are used for:
A) autism.
B) depression.
C) glaucoma.
D) termination of pregnancy.
Q2) Prostaglandin analogues have been used for:
A) termination of pregnancy.
B) glaucoma.
C) treatment of impotence.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Common eicosanoids include:
A) thromboxanes.
B) leukotrienes.
C) hydroperoxyeicosatrienoic acids.
D) all of the above.
Q4) 5-HT<sub>3</sub> receptor antagonists have been used for: A) nausea.
B) somnolence.
C) REMS sleep disorder.
D) GERD.
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Chapter 31: Nitric Oxide and the Endothelins
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Q1) Nitric oxide is a highly stable gas used for the management of cyanide poisoning.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Endothelin receptor antagonists can be used safely in pregnant patients.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Endothelin receptor antagonists have been used for the treatment of:
A) pulmonary hypertension.
B) ischemic valve disease.
C) peripheral vascular disease.
D) none of the above.
Q4) Which secondary messenger is associated with endothelin receptors?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D
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Page 33
Chapter 32: General concepts of Psychopharmacology
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Q1) The transmitter associated with emesis is:
A) dopamine.
B) serotonin.
C) noradrenaline.
D) acetylcholine.
Q2) The major inhibitory neurotransmitter is:
A) dopamine.
B) glutamate.
C) serotonin.
D) GABA.
Q3) One of the pharmacological issues associated with the widespread distribution of receptors for a particular transmitter throughout the brain is that:
A) the number of unwanted drug effects is low.
B) there is a need to develop more specific agents.
C) the drugs will not work on peripheral body receptors.
D) the receptors are all of the same subtype.
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Chapter 33: Antipsychotics
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Q1) Which of the following describes extrapyramidal reactions associated with first-line antipsychotic therapy?
A) Lip smacking and rapid darting tongue movements
B) Facial grimacing, wry neck and limb spasticity
C) Tremor and rigidity
D) All of the above
Q2) When switching from one antipsychotic medication to clozapine,the other antipsychotic medication is reduced over:
A) one day, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
B) two days, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
C) four days, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
D) seven days, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
Q3) Akathisia,dystonic reactions and tardive dyskinesia are extrapyramidal symptoms associated with:
A) antipsychotic use of some agents.
B) anxiolytics.
C) hypnotics.
D) tetracyclic antidepressants.
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35
Chapter 34: Anxiolytics and Hypnotics
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Q1) Which benzodiazepine is sometimes useful in the treatment of endogenous depression?
A) Alprazolam
B) Triazolam
C) Diazepam
D) Flunitrazepam
Q2) More than how many weeks of continuous treatment with benzodiazepines results in dependence and tolerance?
A) One week
B) Two to four weeks
C) Four to six weeks
D) Six to eight weeks
Q3) Which of the following benzodiazepine agents would be suitable for a plane journey where the traveller is having trouble getting to sleep?
A) Clobazam
B) Diazepam
C) Triazolam
D) Nitrazepam
Q4) Explain why hypnotic agents should not be used for long-term therapy.
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Chapter 35: Antidepressants and Mood Stabilisers
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Q1) The psychological disorder characterised by persistent thoughts and repetitive,ritualistic behaviours is called:
A) endogenous depression.
B) panic disorder.
C) mania.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Q2) In terms of the proposed sites of action of antidepressant drugs,which of the following would be expected to produce a therapeutic benefit?
A) The induction of monoamine oxidase activity
B) An increase in the synaptic levels of neurotransmitters serotonin and/or noradrenaline
C) A centrally acting \(\beta_{2}\) agonist
D) Depletion of amine transmitter levels in the presynaptic nerve terminal
Q3) The proposed action of tetracyclic antidepressant drugs is:
A) block transmitter reuptake.
B) block the amine reuptake pump on the presynaptic terminal.
C) inhibit monoamine oxidase.
D) selectively block postsynaptic 5-HT<sub>2</sub> receptors.
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Chapter 36: Medicines Used in Neurodegenerative Disorders
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Q1) Parkinson's disease is a defect in the function of which transmitter system in the basal ganglia?
A) Noradrenaline
B) Acetylcholine
C) Dopamine
D) Serotonin
Q2) Excessive glutamine repeats in the protein coded by the HTT gene is associated with:
A) motor neurone disease.
B) multiple sclerosis.
C) Huntington's disease.
D) Alzheimer's disease.
Q3) Alzheimer's disease is characterised by the lack of which neurotransmitter in the higher centres of the brain?
A) Noradrenaline
B) Acetylcholine
C) Dopamine
D) Serotonin
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Antiseizure Agents and Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antiseizure drugs requires visual fields to be tested before commencing therapy and at regular intervals during therapy?
A) Valproic acid
B) Phenytoin
C) Vigabatrin
D) Lamotrigine
Q2) Barbiturates remain in use for seizure management because:
A) they have few serious adverse effects.
B) their antiseizure activity is greater than their sedating activity.
C) physical dependence does not occur.
D) they are safe for use in patients with chronic kidney disease.
Q3) Spasmolytic muscle relaxants enhance the inhibitory transmitter GABA.How does this action produce a therapeutic effect in seizure management?
A) By reducing hyperexcitability of the motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord
B) By inducing sedation in the patient
C) By altering calcium levels that reduce skeletal muscle contraction
D) Stimulation of GABAergic pathways in the spinal cord
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Chapter 38: Central Nervous System Stimulants
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Q1) 'Drug holidays' from dexamphetamine may be important to avoid:
A) addiction.
B) growth retardation.
C) insomnia.
D) cognitive impairment.
Q2) In order to promote maximum benefit for the treatment of narcolepsy,modafinil should be taken as a daily dose:
A) in the morning, or as two divided doses in the morning and at noon.
B) in the mid-afternoon.
C) with the evening meal.
D) at bedtime.
Q3) Modafinil is useful in the treatment of:
A) ADD.
B) ADHD.
C) narcolepsy.
D) amphetamine addiction.
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Chapter 39: Opioid Analgesics
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Q1) Somatic pain is defined as:
A) pain of sudden onset and short duration.
B) pain associated with the musculoskeletal system.
C) a reaction that avoids further tissue damage.
D) pain induced through remodelling of neural connections.
Q2) The opioid receptors most involved in mediating analgesia are:
A) delta and epsilon.
B) kappa and delta.
C) mu and epsilon.
D) mu and kappa.
Q3) What is the equivalent dose of pethidine when compared with 10 mg of morphine?
A) 25-50 mg of pethidine
B) 50-75 mg of pethidine
C) 75-100 mg of pethidine
D) 100-125 mg of pethidine
Q4) When administering tramadol,it should not be given with drugs that:
A) affect coagulation.
B) affect blood vessel vasculature.
C) are largely metabolised renally.
D) increase seizure tendencies.
Page 41
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which enzyme is the target for inhibition by the NSAIDs?
A) Cyclo-oxygenase
B) Phospholipase A
C) Adenylate cyclase
D) 5-Lipoxygenase
Q2) NSAIDs may not be suitable for use in individuals with renal impairment because they:
A) increase sodium excretion.
B) increase body temperature.
C) reduce the glomerular filtration rate.
D) reduce pepsin levels in the stomach.
Q3) Controlled-release preparations of ketoprofen should be taken ________ to improve the symptoms of arthritic pain.
A) immediately after meals
B) 15 minutes before physical activity
C) at bedtime
D) upon rising in the morning
Q4) Describe the effects of prostaglandins on inflammation and pain.
Q5) Which individuals may be more susceptible to paracetamol overdose? Why?
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Chapter 41: Medicines Used to Treat Migraine
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Q1) Analgesic agents that are effective in treating mild to moderate acute migraine headaches include:
A) ibuprofen and indomethacin.
B) aspirin and paracetamol.
C) piroxicam and sulindac.
D) propranolol and ketamine.
Q2) Preventive therapies for migraine should be used for a period of:
A) three to six days.
B) three to six weeks.
C) three to six months.
D) six to twelve months.
Q3) In treating an acute migraine attack,sumatriptan should not be given with ergotamine because the combination may lead to:
A) excessive bronchoconstriction.
B) excessive vasoconstriction.
C) gastrointestinal bleeding.
D) excessive diuresis.
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Chapter 42: General Anaesthesia
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Q1) The rate of absorption of inhaled anaesthetic into the bloodstream is dependent on the ________ of the gas.
A) rate of osmosis
B) partial pressure
C) volume
D) surfactant levels
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of nitrous oxide as an inhalational anaesthetic?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Surgical procedures involving the middle ear
C) Tachycardia
D) Intestinal obstruction
Q3) Intrathecal administration of anaesthetic produces:
A) profound anaesthesia with a small dose.
B) a mild analgesic effect with a small dose.
C) analgesia via the nerve roots that communicate with the epidural space.
D) no analgesic effect; this route of administration is inappropriate to achieve analgesia.
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Chapter 43: Local Anesthesia
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Q1) The mechanism of action of the local anaesthetics is to impede the movement of which ion through its membrane channels?
A) Calcium
B) Potassium
C) Sodium
D) GABA
Q2) Which of the following local anaesthetics has a relatively long duration of action?
A) Procaine
B) Lignocaine
C) Bupivacaine
D) Mepivacaine
Q3) Which of the following routes of administration has the highest rate of systemic absorption of local anaesthetic agents?
A) Epidural administration
B) Intercostal administration
C) Subcutaneous administration
D) Brachial plexus administration
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Chapter 44: Medicines Used to Lower Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are not considered good strategies to combat high cholesterol levels and reduce the need for medications?
A)Increasing salt intake
B)Using low- or no-fat dairy products
C)Exercising
D)Increasing consumption of fruits and vegetables
Q2) What is an accumulation of lipid,collagen fibres and foam cells called?
A) Stoma
B) Atheroma
C) Sarcoma
D) Haematoma
Q3) Patients on atorvastatin should avoid ________ during therapy because it may increase the amount of atorvastatin in their circulation and therefore increase the chances of adverse effects occurring.
A) alcohol
B) milk
C) grapefruit juice
D) leafy green vegetables
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Chapter 45: Antihypertensive Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the antihypertensive groups is least likely to be used as first-line treatment for hypertension?
A) -blockers
B)ACE inhibitors
C)Calcium channel blockers
D)Centrally acting medicines
Q2) Which one of the following antihypertensive drug groups is thought to reduce sympathetic drive in the myocardium and mediate the release of renin?
A) -blockers
B) Calcium channel antagonists
C) Angiotensin II receptor antagonists
D) Thiazides
Q3) Which of the following chemical mediators can alter blood pressure via vasodilation?
A) Nitric oxide
B) Endothelin-1
C) ANF
D) Vasopressin
Q4) Describe the method of action of ACE inhibitors.
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Chapter 46: Medicines Used to Promote Tissue Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) To avoid tolerance associated with continuous use of nitrate patches,the patient should be advised to:
A) only apply the patches in the morning and evening.
B) only apply the patches when the angina symptoms become apparent.
C) have a nitrate-free period from the patches for about 12 hours each day.
D) only apply the patches at bedtime.
Q2) In the treatment of erectile dysfunction,phosphodiesterase inhibitors:
A) act to trigger the release of nitric oxide.
B) are used when the cause is psychological.
C) may interact negatively with organic nitrate therapy. D) must be administered directly into the penis.
Q3) The form of angina pectoris that is associated with coronary vasospasm is called ________ angina.
A) variant
B) exertional
C) classic
D) stable
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Chapter 47: Antithrombotic, Fibrinolytic and Haemostatic Agents
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Q1) After about ________ hours of oral anticoagulant therapy with warfarin,the heparin can be withdrawn,as it takes this amount of time for the oral anticoagulant to exert its effect.
A) 2
B) 12
C) 24
D) 48
Q2) The benefits of enoxaparin over heparin include that it:
A) is less likely to cause thrombocytopaenia and is more effective in reducing mortality and myocardial infarction in unstable angina.
B) has a longer half-life requiring less frequent monitoring and is safer in pregnancy.
C) A and B.
D) neither A nor B.
Q3) What is the haemostatic agent used in colposcopy procedures?
A)Monsel's solution
B)Calcium alginate
C)Eltrombopag
D)Octocog alfa
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Chapter 48: Diuretics and Other Renal Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hypokalaemia that may be induced by a loop diuretic can be lessened or prevented by concurrent use of:
A) potassium chloride.
B) an angiotensin II receptor antagonist.
C) an ACE inhibitor.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Explain why acidification of urine might be undertaken in individuals with urinary tract infections or urinary catheters.
Q3) Metabolic imbalances associated with thiazides can be avoided by:
A) starting off with a small dose and titrating according to therapeutic response.
B) starting off with a high dose and gradually titrating according to therapeutic response.
C) administering the dose once a day.
D) administering the dose two times a day.
Q4) The purpose of the nephron includes:
A)maintaining homeostasis.
B)eliminate waste.
C)forming filtrate.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 49: Topic: Medicines Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Q1) Adverse effects such as an unproductive cough and taste disturbances may occur from which category of medicine frequently used for treatment of heart failure?
A) Diuretics
B) Aldosterone antagonists
C) Cardiac glycosides
D) ACE inhibitors
Q2) According to guidelines developed by the National Heart Foundation and Cardiac Society of Australia and New Zealand,what is the first medication to consider for heart failure?
A) -blockers
B)Calcium channel blockers
C)ACE inhibitors
D)Aldosterone antagonist
Q3) Clients who have renal impairment are at risk of developing ________ during treatment with ACE inhibitors.
A) hypokalaemia
B) hyperkalaemia
C) hyponatraemia
D) hypernatraemia
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Medicines Used to Treat Cardiac Dysrhythmia
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Q1) Class II antidysrhythmic drugs are also known as what?
A)Calcium channel blockers
B)ACE inhibiters
C)Beta blockers
D)Adrenergic agonists
Q2) Verapamil is a class IV antidysrhythmic agent.Verapamil belongs to what class of drug?
A)Calcium channel blockers
B)ACE inhibitors
C) -blockers
D)Inotropic agents
Q3) Which is an example of a prodysrhythmic agent?
A)Fexofenadine
B)Clarithromycin
C)Haloperidol
D)All of the above
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Chapter 51: Fluid and Potassium Imbalances
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Q1) Infusing a hypotonic solution will have which of the following cellular effects?
A) There will be no net shift of fluid.
B) Fluid will shift from the intracellular space to dilute the extracellular space, causing cell shrinkage.
C) Sodium will move from the extracellular space into the intracellular space.
D) Fluid will shift from the extracellular space to a more concentrated intracellular space, causing cell swelling.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of an isotonic solution?
A) 4% glucose with 0.18% sodium chloride
B) 0.45% sodium chloride
C) 10% glucose
D) 25% mannitol
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a potential treatment of severe hyperkalaemia?
A)Peritoneal dialysis
B)Intravenous frusemide
C)Oral ion exchange resin
D)Intravenous glucose with insulin given concurrently
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53
Chapter 52: Antianaemic Agents
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Q1) Which food is a natural source of folic acid?
A) Brussel sprouts
B) Chocolate
C) Limes
D) Barley
Q2) High doses of vitamin B<sub>12</sub> may cause
A) hypotension.
B) hypokalaemia.
C) constipation.
D) folate deficiency.
Q3) To reduce the gastric irritation associated with oral iron therapy,the person should be advised to take the preparation:
A) as a suppository.
B) with or immediately after meals.
C) at bedtime.
D) with an antacid.
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Chapter 53: Medicines Used to Maintain Gas Exchange
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Q1) Drugs included in the class of leukotriene receptor antagonist include:
A)montelukast.
B)fexofenadine.
C)albuterol.
D) macular degeneration.
Q2) Which one of the following statements about oxygen therapy is true?
A) Prolonged therapy with 100% oxygen can lead to toxicity regardless of underlying pathology.
B) Standard oxygen therapy for clients with long-term chronic obstructive airways disease will lead to hyperventilation.
C) Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is useful in the care of premature infants.
D) Peak flow readings determine the level of oxygen therapy required.
Q3) Which patient would most likely need a respiratory surfactant?
A)A premature infant
B)An infant born at term
C)A toddler
D)A preschool age child
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Chapter 54: Medicines for Upper Respiratory Tract
Conditions
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Q1) Nasal decongestants are contraindicated in patients taking:
A) antihistamines.
B) certain types of antidepressants.
C) antitussive agents.
D) salicylate preparations.
Q2) Which substances are responsible for the symptoms of upper respiratory illnesses?
A)Prostaglandins and mast cells
B)Prostaglandins and histamine
C)Antihistamines and mast cells
D)Antihistamines and leukotrienes
Q3) To which drug group do many cough suppressants belong?
A) NSAIDs
B) Narcotics
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Dopamine antagonists
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Chapter 55: Upper Gastrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Q1) Omeprazole is an example of a:
A) proton pump inhibitor.
B) H<sub>2</sub> antagonist.
C) prostaglandin analogue.
D) cytoprotective.
Q2) Prostaglandin analogues such as misoprostol are contraindicated in:
A) clients also receiving the NSAID aspirin.
B) pregnancy.
C) conjunction with alcohol consumption.
D) clients also receiving the NSAID indomethacin.
Q3) Which of the following pairs of proton pump inhibitors inhibit the cytochrome P450 system and have a number of clinically important drug interactions?
A) Esomeprazole and omeprazole
B) Rabeprazole and lansoprazole
C) Lansoprazole and pantoprazole
D) Esomeprazole and rabeprazole
Q4) Explain how a hiatus hernia can cause gastric reflux.
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Chapter 56: Lower Castrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Q1) Which condition might require a patient to need supplementation of pancreatic enzymes?
A) Peptic ulcer disease
B) Diabetes
C) Irritable bowel syndrome
D) Cystic fibrosis
Q2) Which of the laxative groups acts directly on the wall of intestines to stimulate defecation?
A) Lubricants
B) Stimulant laxatives
C) Osmotic laxatives
D) Faecal softeners
Q3) Treatment with the anti-inflammatory bowel drug sulfasalazine can cause: A) insomnia.
B) dizziness.
C) male infertility.
D) vitamin A deficiency.
Q4) Outline the potential benefits of peppermint oil in the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome.
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Chapter 57: Antiemetic Agents
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Q1) Which is true of the chemoreceptor trigger zone?
A) It is situated inside the blood-brain barrier.
B) It resides within the medulla.
C) It is a sensory relay area.
D) It controls vomiting but not nausea.
Q2) Which of the following antiemetic agents may cause extrapyramidal side effects?
A) Prochlorperazine
B) Domperidone
C) Ondansetron
D) Dolasetron
Q3) Which of the following antiemetic agents requires the person to take appropriate measures to protect themselves from sunlight?
A) Prochlorperazine
B) Metoclopramide
C) Domperidone
D) Ondansetron
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59
Chapter 58: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Q1) Which of the following measures would not improve the management of diarrhoea during enteral feeding?
A) Select a feed with a high fat content.
B) Decrease the rate of feed.
C) Remove the feed from the refrigerator about half an hour before administration.
D) Administer an iso-osmolar feed rather than a hyperosmolar feed.
Q2) Which complication would be least common with an enteral feed?
A) Electrolyte imbalance
B) Entry of feed into the lungs
C) Clogging of the tube
D) Intracranial penetration
Q3) Which of the following actions will NOT improve the management of regurgitation during enteral feeding?
A) Lower the head of the client's bed.
B) Avoid the use of hyperosmolar feeds.
C) Insert a fine-bore enteric tube.
D) Slow down the rate of infusion.
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Chapter 59: Medicines and the Pituitary Gland
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Q1) What is the indication for clomiphene?
A) Contraception
B) Ovulatory failure
C) Treatment of ovarian cancers
D) Treatment of growth disorders
Q2) Ergot alkaloids are used to treat prolactin hypersecretion.Their mechanism of action is to:
A) activate dopamine receptors in the pituitary.
B) inhibit prolactin-releasing hormone from the pituitary.
C) increase the production of growth hormone, which is produced by the same cells in the pituitary gland.
D) act on the nipples to desensitise them to stimulation.
Q3) When using desmopressin for renal function testing,effectiveness of treatment is determined by:
A) measuring blood levels of antidiuretic hormone.
B) measuring blood levels of potassium.
C) monitoring fluid balance.
D) measuring urinary levels of sodium.
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Chapter 60: Medicines and the Thyroid
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Q1) Radioactive iodide may be used to treat hyperthyroidism because it:
A) inhibits conversion of L-thyroxine to L-triiodothyronine.
B) reduces synthesis of thyroid hormones.
C) destroys functional thyroid tissue.
D) depletes thyroid hormone stores.
Q2) Which of the following is true about the action of iodide solutions for hyperthyroid states?
A) High doses of iodide cause an immediate reduction in the release of thyroid hormone.
B) Iodide reduces the blood supply to the thyroid gland and makes it firmer.
C) Iodide has a long half-life and greatly reduces the release of thyroid hormone for up to one month.
D) Both A and B.
Q3) Generally,L-thyroxine is preferable to liothyronine as therapy in hypothyroid states because:
A) it has a longer duration of action.
B) it is less cardiotoxic.
C) levels are easier to monitor.
D) all of the above.
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62
Chapter 61: Medicines and the Pancreas
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Q1) A patient is newly diagnosed with borderline type 2 diabetes.Which steps would be appropriate?
A) A focus on diet and exercise
B) Starting insulin
C) Considering metformin
D) Both A and C
Q2) Another medication besides insulin that is injected for treatment of types 2 diabetes is from the group of:
A) thiazolidinediones.
B) biguanides.
C) sulfonylureas.
D) incretin-enhancing agents.
Q3) Glycosylated haemoglobin level (HbA<sub>1c</sub>)is an indicator of:
A) insulin overdose.
B) normal growth in children with diabetes mellitus.
C) stress.
D) longer-term glycaemic control.
Q4) The majority of cases of diabetes mellitus are type 1.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 62: Medicines Affecting the Adrenal Cortex
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Sample Questions
Q1) A typical adverse effect profile of systemic corticosteroid therapy includes:
A) hyperkalaemia, gynaecomastia, skin rashes and menstrual disruption.
B) hot flushes, thromboembolism, leg cramps and gastrointestinal disturbances.
C) nausea, breast tenderness, hypotension and hypoglycaemia.
D) fluid retention, altered mood, altered blood pressure, hypokalaemia, hyperglycaemia and impaired wound healing.
Q2) A specific immune-related effect associated with glucocorticoid action is:
A) destabilisation of T lymphocytes.
B) increased protein synthesis.
C) increase in neutrophil and macrophage response.
D) reduction in the size and substance of the lymph nodes and spleen.
Q3) When the oral dose exceeds mg daily of prednisolone or equivalent dose,the person will benefit from receiving gastric acid-suppressive therapy.
A) 4
B) 6
C) 10
D) 15
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64
Chapter 63: Medicines and the Gonads
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Sample Questions
Q1) Women treated with oestrogen-only preparations may be at an increased risk of developing:
A) colon cancer.
B) Alzheimer's disease.
C) osteoporosis.
D) breast cancer.
Q2) An adverse effect NOT associated with androgenic drug use is:
A) increased libido.
B) increased aggressiveness.
C) testicular hypertrophy.
D) liver disorders.
Q3) The AAS nandrolone may be used in the treatment of:
A) menopausal symptoms.
B) osteoporosis.
C) enhanced healing after surgery.
D) breast cancer.
Q4) To ensure maximum efficacy for postcoital contraception,it needs to be administered within 12 hours of sexual intercourse.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 64: Medicines and Bone Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following foods inhibit absorption of calcium due to high phytic acid content?
A) Unrefined cereals
B) Green vegetables
C) Strawberries
D) Cow's milk
Q2) Vitamin D deficiency may occur due to:
A) hypercalcaemia.
B) use of selective oestrogen receptor modulators.
C) inadequate sun exposure.
D) use of calcipotriol.
Q3) The mechanism of action of the bisphosphonates is to:
A) release calcium from bones.
B) inhibit bone breakdown and resorption.
C) increase the sensitivity of the calcium-sensing receptors on parathyroid gland cells.
D) raise the blood levels of oestrogen.
Q4) Describe the role of parathyroid hormone with regards to regulation of blood calcium levels.
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Chapter 65: Hyperuricaemia and Gout
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about uric acid is true?
A) It is a product of pyrimidine-based nucleic acid metabolism.
B) It tends to crystallise at relatively low physiological temperatures.
C) Hyperuricaemia always results in gout.
D) Uric acid is very water-soluble in kidney filtrate.
Q2) When commencing a uricosuric agent such as probenecid,the person should be advised to:
A) cease all other medications to reduce drug interactions.
B) ensure adequate fluid intake to reduce kidney stone formation.
C) avoid direct sunlight.
D) avoid urine alkalising preparations.
Q3) A characteristic of gout is that:
A) it manifests as a form of arthritis.
B) it is more prevalent in women.
C) the risk of developing it can be reduced by eating foods such as sardines or offal.
D) it is not associated with any genetic predisposition.
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67
Chapter 66: Obesity and Its Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following chemical mediators stimulates feeding?
A) Serotonin
B) Noradrenaline
C) Peptide YY
D) Neuropeptide Y
Q2) When food intake equals energy consumed by the body's cells,the person is said to be in:
A) a malnourished state.
B) an obese state.
C) energy balance.
D) a sedentary state.
Q3) Which of the following adverse effects would NOT be expected during treatment with a stimulant anorectic?
A) Bradycardia
B) Elevated blood pressure
C) Euphoria
D) Psychological dependence
Q4) Describe some nonpharmacological strategies for weight loss.
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Page 68
Chapter 67: Introduction to Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a microbe has developed resistance to a certain antimicrobial preparation,the prescriber should:
A) increase the frequency of the dose of the antimicrobial.
B) increase the dose of the antimicrobial.
C) determine which antimicrobial the microbe may be sensitive to.
D) prescribe topical preparations only.
Q2) The actions of streptomycin and amikacin:
A) are considered first-line agents for tuberculosis.
B) are ineffective for the bactericidal phase.
C) interfere with protein synthesis.
D) are best mediated by the oral route.
Q3) Which of the following antimicrobial agents has a dose-dependent activity on microorganisms?
A) The glycoprotein vancomycin
B) The glycoprotein teicoplanin
C) The penicillin amoxycillin
D) The aminoglycoside gentamicin
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69
Chapter 68: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should a person be advised to do when taking sulfonamide therapy?
A) Ensure an adequate fluid intake.
B) Monitor folate status during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
C) Have a full blood examination during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
D) All of the above.
Q2) The actions of the sulfonamides and trimethoprim:
A) are considered bactericidal.
B) are identical, as they interrupt the process at the same point.
C) interfere with nucleic acid synthesis.
D) are not influenced by folic acid stores.
Q3) Trimethoprim is best taken as a single daily dose:
A) in the morning.
B) at midday.
C) in the mid-afternoon.
D) at bedtime.
Q4) A premixed combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is called:
A) trimethoxazole.
B) co-trimoxazole.
C) sulphaprim.
D) blephamide.
Page 70
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Chapter 69: Antibacterial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which serious adverse effect is associated with long term use of nitrofurantoin?
A) Iridescent yellow urine
B) Drowsiness
C) Paraethesia
D) Gastrointestinal upset
Q2) Cross-sensitivity can occur between penicillin and which other drugs?
A) Cephalosporins
B) Carbapenems
C) -lactams
D) All of the above
Q3) How often should aminoglycoside antimicrobial agents be administered?
A) Once daily
B) Two times a day
C) Three times a day
D) Four times a day
Q4) What is the indication for rifaxim?
A) Hepatic encephalopathy
B) Viral encephalitis
C) Hepatitis
D) Hepatic insufficiency
Page 71
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Chapter 70: Antituberculotic and Antileprotic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) In isoniazid treatment for tuberculosis,supplementation with ________ may be required:
A) niacin
B) riboflavin
C) thiamine
D) pyridoxine
Q2) Which of the following factors would cause favourable conditions for tuberculosis to spread?
A) Social inequity
B) Overcrowding
C) Exposure to livestock/wildlife that may be infected
D) All of the above
Q3) A pregnant patient with Hansen's disease can be safely treated with thalidomide.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the context of antituberculotic drug action,a bactericidal drug:
A) kills all tuberculosis bacteria.
B) targets dividing bacteria.
C) kills persistent dormant bacteria.
D) targets bacteria in the lungs.
Page 72
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Chapter 71: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of an antiseptic is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
Q2) Cetrimide inhibits bacterial growth because of its ________ properties.
A) detergent
B) oxidising
C) alkylating
D) reducing
Q3) An example of a sterilant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) ethylene oxide.
D) penicillin.
Q4) An example of a disinfectant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
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Chapter 72: Antiparasitic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Malaria can be caused by at least ________ species of Plasmodium.
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
Q2) Which antibiotic is sometimes used in malaria treatment?
A) Amoxycillin
B) Doxycycline
C) Azithromycin
D) Cephalexin
Q3) Which anthelmintic medication could also be classified as an antibiotic?
A) Ivermectin
B) Praziquantel
C) Tinidazole
D) Mefloquine
Q4) An example of an antimalarial agent that alters mitochondrial function is:
A) chloroquine.
B) mefloquine.
C) primaquine.
D) proguanil.
Page 74
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Chapter 73: Antiviral Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a key difference between the common cold and influenza?
A) Influenza is a respiratory tract infection.
B) There is a vaccine for influenza.
C) The symptom of a headache is typical of influenza only.
D) The common cold can be treated with antiviral medications.
Q2) The antiviral agents called neuraminidase inhibitors are useful in treating _________ infection.
A) HIV/AIDS
B) respiratory syncytial virus
C) herpes
D) influenza
Q3) Which of the following reverse transcriptase inhibitors can cause pancreatitis?
A) Didanosine
B) Zidovudine
C) Delavirdine
D) Nevirapine
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Chapter 74: Antifungal Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tinea cruris is also known as:
A) athlete's foot.
B) ringworm.
C) onychomycosis.
D) jockstrap itch.
Q2) The benefit of combining PEG with interferon is:
A) the dose interval is reduced.
B) influenza-type symptoms are reduced.
C) it can be produced by recombinant DNA technology.
D) it increases the activity of interferon.
Q3) If the antifungal terbinafine is administered orally for more than six weeks for a fungal nail infection,the person should be advised to have:
A) blood cholesterol levels monitored.
B) liver enzyme levels and blood count monitored.
C) respiratory function monitored.
D) aural function monitored.
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Chapter 75: Immunomodulating Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interferon is indicated in the treatment of the following EXCEPT:
A) myasthenia gravis.
B) multiple sclerosis.
C) selected leukemias.
D) genital warts.
Q2) A patient is admitted with a snake bite from an unknown species.Which antivenom would be most useful?
A) A bivalent preparation
B) A trivalent preparation
C) A polyvalent preparation
D) No treatment can be given without identifying the snake
Q3) The desired therapeutic effect of colony stimulating factors are to increase the:
A) rate of colonisation of bacteria within a suspension.
B) numbers of circulating leukocytes.
C) heart rate.
D) rate of platelet aggregation.
Q4) Describe the difference between the terms vaccination and immunisation.
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Chapter 76: Cytotoxic Chemotherapeutic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why would erythropoietin be given to a patient undergoing cancer treatment?
A) To counteract anaemia
B) To minimise nausea
C) To control pain
D)To protect against bone loss
Q2) Which of the following are NOT Classic cytotoxic chemotherapeutic agents?
A) Alkylating agents
B) Colony stimulating factors
C) Antibiotic-type cytotoxic agents
D) Cell cycle-specific agents
Q3) All vinca alkaloids are administered:
A) orally.
B) intravenously.
C) intrathecally.
D) intramuscularly.
Q4) Which of the following is a cell cycle specific cytotoxic drug group?
A) Alkylating agents
B) Vinca alkaloids
C) Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone analogues
D) Cytotoxic antibiotics
78
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Chapter 77: Medicines Used in Diseases of the Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) The epidermal layer that is also known as the grainy layer is called the stratum:
A) basale.
B) granulosum.
C) corneum.
D) spinosum.
Q2) Which topical preparation would be most difficult to completely absorb?
A) Gel
B) Lotion
C) Cream
D) Ointment
Q3) Which drug is absolutely prohibited in pregnancy?
A) Tetracycline
B) Azelaic acid
C) Metronidazole
D) Isotretinoin
Q4) Discuss the effects of UV rays on the skin.
Q5) Dandruff can be caused in part by a fungal infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 78: Medicines and the Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) Systemic absorption of eye drops can be prevented by:
A) waiting at least 10 minutes between administering drops.
B) tilting the head back during instillation.
C) closing the eye very slowly following instillation.
D) applying pressure to the tear duct immediately after instillation.
Q2) One effect of parasympathetic stimulation of the eye is:
A) pupil dilation.
B) vasodilation.
C) relaxation for far vision.
D) increased production of aqueous humour.
Q3) Factors that can affect the rate of topical drug absorption into the eyeball include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) the pH of the environment.
B) corneal integrity.
C) the age of the person.
D) blinking.
Q4) Describe the pathophysiology of glaucoma.
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Chapter 79: Herbal Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) St John's wort has proved to be effective,according to some studies,in the treatment of:
A) anxiety.
B) paranoia.
C) depression.
D) mania.
Q2) Echinacea consistently shows effectiveness in clinical trials.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which herbal medicine should be avoided in people with schizophrenia?
A) Evening primrose
B) Aloe vera
C) Echinacea
D) Garlic
Q4) Chamomile should be avoided in patients who:
A) have potential for anaphylaxis.
B) are on anticoagulant therapy.
C) are on prescription sleep aids.
D) all of the above.
Q5) List some Common herbal medicines that are unsafe for use in pregnancy.
Page 81
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