Pharmacology Test Questions
Course Introduction
Pharmacology is the study of drugs and their effects on living organisms, focusing on the mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, adverse effects, and interactions of various medications. This course covers fundamental concepts of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion, as well as the molecular and cellular basis of drug action. Students will explore the classification of drugs, principles of drug development, and the pharmacological treatment of common diseases. Emphasis is placed on understanding how drugs interact with biological systems to produce therapeutic and toxic responses, preparing students for further study or careers in healthcare, research, and pharmaceutical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Pharmacology 7th Australian Edition by Shane Bullock
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
15 Chapters
666 Verified Questions
666 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1096 Page 2
Chapter 1: Pharmacology Within the Social Context
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21573
Sample Questions
Q1) The production of therapeutic agents by the manipulation of genetic material characterises which drug development era?
A) The Age of Natural Substances.
B) The Age of Synthetic Substances.
C) The Age of Biotechnology.
D) The Age of Aquarius.
Answer: C
Q2) In Australia there are some Schedule 3 medications that can be advertised in the popular media. Give one example of a medication to which this advertising policy applies:
A) miconazole pessaries.
B) ampicillin capsules.
C) royal jelly preparations.
D) codeine tablets.
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
3
Chapter 2: Pharmacology Within the Profesional Context
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21574
Sample Questions
Q1) Australian regulations require nursing staff to maintain a ward register for administration of controlled drugs and periodically check the balance of ampoules, tablets and volumes of liquid.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) In Victoria, midwives employed in hospitals are permitted to initiate administration of up to two pethidine injections to a woman in labour without a doctor's order.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The educational preparation for a nurse practitioner is:
A) a Master's degree.
B) a Bachelor's degree.
C) extensive training in the clinical setting.
D) a professional doctorate.
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: Medicine Administration and Professional
Responsibilities
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21575
Sample Questions
Q1) To avoid hydrolysis of aspirin tablets, the container should be kept:
A) in the bathroom.
B) in the kitchen.
C) in a coat pocket.
D) in a cool, dry place.
Answer: D
Q2) Which drug is the most common cause of an anaphylactic reaction?
A) Aspirin.
B) Contrast media.
C) Penicillin.
D) Transfused blood.
Answer: C
Q3) Which is true of a linctus?
A) It needs to be stored at or below 25°C.
B) It is administered without water.
C) It is a viscous liquid with expectorant, sedating and cough-suppressing properties.
D) All of the above.
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: General Aspects of Pharmacology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21576
Sample Questions
Q1) Phase 1 metabolism of a drug can involve:
A) glucuronisation.
B) sulphation.
C) conjugation.
D) oxidation.
Q2) Which one of the following factors is likely to result in higher plasma drug levels?
A) Taking a water-soluble drug during a meal.
B) Administering a drug orally when a client is experiencing an episode of severe diarrhoea.
C) Administering the narcotic analgesic morphine to a person with cirrhosis of the liver.
D) Administering a drug that is subject to significant metabolism to a person whose occupation involves handling chemicals that induce microsomal enzymes.
Q3) Paediatric drug dosage can be calculated by using the body surface area, age, and body weight.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 5: To Xicology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21577
Sample Questions
Q1) Thioridazine is contraindicated with medications that:
A) have a high allergenic potential.
B) depress the central nervous system.
C) prolong the Q-T interval of the cardiac cycle.
D) cause vasoconstriction of arteries.
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true in relation to detection of drug use in sport?
A) Individual differences in pharmacokinetics affect the results of drug tests.
B) Sportswomen are able to use some drugs on the WADA banned list that sportsmen cannot.
C) Peptide hormone misuse can be difficult to detect.
D) Low dose anabolic-androgenic steroid use causes feminisation in men.
Q3) The effects of excessive stimulation of cholinergic nicotinic receptors include: nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, sweating, drooling, bradycardia and miosis.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 6: Autonomic Pharmacology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21578
Sample Questions
Q1) Parasympathetic stimulation would result in which one of the following sets of responses?
A) Increased gastric juice secretion, slowed heart rate, goose pimples and pupil dilation.
B) Sweating, urination, salivation and pupil dilation.
C) Increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, defecation and erection of genitalia.
D) Slowed heart rate, increased blood pressure, pupil constriction and pallor.
Q2) The way to determine the effect of a sympatholytic agent on postural hypotension is to measure:
A) lying blood pressure only.
B) lying and standing blood pressures.
C) sitting blood pressure only.
D) standing blood pressure only.
Q3) Receptors that respond to acetylcholine (ACh) are called:
A) adrenergic.
B) cholinergic.
C) dopaminergic.
D) acetylergic.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
8
Chapter 7: Chemical Mediators
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21579
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following peptide mediators is normally involved in enhancing pain transmission?
A) Endorphin.
B) Substance P.
C) Endothelin.
D) Neuropeptide Y.
Q2) Aside from possible sedation, what other common side effect should individuals be counselled about in their use of 'classic' antihistamines?
A) Urinary retention.
B) Gastrointestinal upset.
C) Dry mouth.
D) All of the above.
Q3) Generally when used as drugs, amino acid-based chemical mediators:
A) tend to be a fixed size of about 10-15 residues long.
B) can be administered orally.
C) only influence vascular function.
D) have short half-lives.
Q4) Topical use of antihistamines is safe.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: The Modulat Ion of Behaviour, Cognition and Motor Activity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21580
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an appropriate clinical management activity in relation to tetrabenazine therapy for Huntington's disease?
A) The client should avoid drinking alcohol with tetrabenazine.
B) Therapy is stopped if dysphagia or choking occurs.
C) If depression occurs, the dose of tetrabenazine is reduced or treatment is stopped.
D) The dose of tetrabenazine is reduced gradually over two days to prevent rebound involuntary movements.
Q2) Barbiturates remain in use for seizure management because:
A) They have few serious adverse effects.
B) Their antiseizure activity is greater than their sedating activity.
C) Physical dependence does not occur.
D) They are safe for use in patients with chronic kidney disease.
Q3) One of the pharmacological issues associated with the widespread distribution of receptors for a particular transmitter throughout the brain is that:
A) the number of unwanted drug effects is low.
B) there is a need to develop more specific agents.
C) the drugs will not work on peripheral body receptors.
D) the receptors are all of the same subtype.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Medicines Used to Relieve Pain and Produce
Anaesthesia
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21581
Sample Questions
Q1) Which enzyme is the target for inhibition by the NSAIDs?
A) Cyclo-oxygenase.
B) Phospholipase A.
C) Adenylate cyclase.
D) 5-Lipoxygenase.
Q2) What is the equivalent dose of pethidine when compared with 10 mg of morphine?
A) 25-50 mg of pethidine.
B) 50-75 mg of pethidine.
C) 75-100 mg of pethidine.
D) 100-125 mg of pethidine.
Q3) Which of the following local anaesthetics has a relatively long duration of action?
A) Procaine.
B) Lignocaine.
C) Bupivacaine.
D) Mepivacaine.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
11
Chapter 10: The Modulat Ion of Oxygenat Ion and Perfusion
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21582
Sample Questions
Q1) Premature babies receiving long-term oxygen therapy are at risk of:
A) otitis media.
B) ototoxicity.
C) retinal damage.
D) macular degeneration.
Q2) High doses of vitamin B12 may cause A) hypotension.
B) hypokalaemia.
C) constipation.
D) folate deficiency.
Q3) Cough suppressants should not be given to children under:
A) 5 years.
B) 4 years.
C) 3 years.
D) 2 years.
Q4) The antiplatelet agent abciximab is structurally related to A) calcium channel blockers.
B) a bacterial enzyme.
C) the ADP receptor.
D) a vaccine.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12
Chapter 11: The Modulation of Gastrointestinal Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21583
Sample Questions
Q1) Prostaglandin analogues such as misoprostol are contraindicated in:
A) clients also receiving the NSAID aspirin.
B) pregnancy.
C) conjunction with alcohol consumption.
D) clients also receiving the NSAID indomethacin.
Q2) Antacids containing aluminium and divalent ions can be problematic because they:
A) make the gut too acidic.
B) are known to induce Alzheimer's disease.
C) interact with tetracycline antibiotics and inactivate them.
D) form a viscous jelly that can obstruct the gastrointestinal tract.
Q3) Which of the following chemical mediators stimulates the production of mucus in the gastrointestinal tract and inhibits secretion of hydrochloric acid?
A) Acetylcholine.
B) Histamine.
C) Gastrin.
D) Prostaglandin E.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
13
Chapter 12: The Modulation of Body Growth, Development and Metabolism
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21584
Sample Questions
Q1) Colchicine has NSAID properties, but also has specific mechanisms including to treat gout.
A) stimulating prostaglandin synthesis and secretion
B) disruption of leukocyte microtubule function, which inhibits cell migration to the site of inflammation
C) activation of xanthine oxidase
D) creating more acidic urine, which increases excretion of uric acid
Q2) Which of the following corticosteroids is classified as an intermediate-acting agent?
A) Hydrocortisone.
B) Dexamethasone.
C) Prednisolone.
D) Betamethasone.
Q3) Which of the following adverse effects would not be expected during treatment with a stimulant anorectic?
A) Bradycardia.
B) Elevated blood pressure.
C) Euphoria.
D) Psychological dependence.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Nutritional and Natural Therapies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21585
Sample Questions
Q1) The use of garlic as a herbal medication should be avoided in all of the following conditions except in:
A) the person with atherosclerosis.
B) the woman who is pregnant.
C) the person on anticoagulant therapy.
D) the person on hypoglycaemic therapy.
Q2) Which hormone needs iodine for its synthesis?
A) Glucagon.
B) Corticosterone.
C) Thyroxine.
D) Testosterone.
Q3) Total parenteral nutrition is a(n) ________ solution that needs to be administered centrally.
A) nutrition
B) hypotonic
C) hypertonic
D) isotonic
E) iso-osmotic
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
15
Chapter 14: The Modulation of Celullar Growth and Proliferation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21586
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antimicrobial agents has a dose-dependent activity on microorganisms?
A) The glycoprotein, vancomycin.
B) The glycoprotein, teicoplanin.
C) The penicillin, amoxycillin.
D) The aminoglycoside, gentamicin.
Q2) An example of a broad-spectrum penicillin is:
A) amoxycillin.
B) clavulanic acid.
C) flucloxacillin.
D) procaine penicillin.
Q3) The antifungal amphotericin can be used:
A) topically, intravenously and in lozenge form.
B) intramuscularly, intrathecally and transdermally.
C) intramuscularly and intravenously.
D) topically and orally.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
16
Chapter 15: Medicines Used Topically
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21587
Sample Questions
Q1) The first choice treatment for glaucoma is:
A) miotics.
B) beta-blockers.
C) sympathomimetic agents.
D) diuretics
Q2) Which one of the following is an accessory structure of the eye?
A) Iris.
B) Ciliary bodies.
C) Lacrimal apparatus.
D) Sclera.
Q3) For a drug to be absorbed into the eyeball through the cornea, it would need to be:
A) lipophilic only.
B) hydrophilic only.
C) hydrophobic only.
D) both lipophilic and hydrophilic.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17