Course Introduction
Pharmacology Study Guide Questions
Pharmacology is the study of the interactions between drugs and living systems, focusing on the mechanisms by which drugs exert their effects and how the body responds to these agents. This course covers the principles of drug action, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion, as well as the pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics fundamental to understanding drug efficacy and safety. Students will explore major drug classes, therapeutic uses, adverse reactions, and the basis for individualized therapy, integrating foundational knowledge with clinical applications relevant to healthcare practice.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology 3rd Edition by George M. Brenner
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45 Chapters
150 Verified Questions
150 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pharmacology
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2 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is administered a drug in the form of a tablet formulated with an osmotic substance that slowly attracts water.Which characteristic is associated with this preparation?
A) used to treat constipation
B) enables almost 100% bioavailability
C) poses more risks than intramuscular administration
D) causes a localized effect on the colon
E) provides sustained drug absorption over many hours
Answer: E
Q2) Which endeavor is most important for determining the dose-response relationship of a drug?
A) isolation of a pure drug compound
B) measurement of the plasma concentration of a drug over time
C) clinical trials to determine drug efficacy
D) study of the structure-activity relationship of a drug
E) development of a sustained-release formulation of a drug
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with renal disease exhibits zero-order elimination of a drug she is taking.Which description of the drug's elimination half-life is correct?
A) directly proportional to the drug's clearance
B) inversely proportional to the drug's volume of distribution
C) directly proportional to the plasma drug concentration
D) inversely proportional to the dose administered
E) varies with the route of drug administration
Answer: C
Q2) A patient with peptic ulcer disease is found to require larger than usual doses of omeprazole to cure her peptic ulcer.Which drug metabolism phenotype is most likely present in this patient?
A) CYP2D6 poor metabolizer phenotype
B) CYP2D6 extensive metabolizer phenotype
C) CYP2C19 poor metabolizer phenotype
D) CYP2C19 extensive metabolizer phenotype
E) rapid acetylation phenotype
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Pharmacodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what way is the log-concentration effect (dose response)curve of an agonist drug modified in the presence of a competitive receptor antagonist?
A) shifted to the right without a change in slope or maximum effect
B) shifted to the left without a change in slope or maximum effect
C) shifted to the right with a decreased slope and maximum effect
D) shifted to the left with a decreased slope and maximum effect
E) not shifted right or left but shows a decreased maximum effect
Answer: A
Q2) A patient exhibits a rapid loss of responsiveness to a drug during the first several hours of drug administration.Which event is most likely responsible for this effect?
A) up-regulation of drug metabolizing enzymes
B) down-regulation of drug metabolizing enzymes
C) internalization of cell membrane receptors
D) formation of receptor antibodies
E) phosphorylation of G protein-coupled receptors
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Drug Development and Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) After receiving a sulfonamide compound for a urinary tract infection, a woman develops a life-threatening immune vasculitis known as the Stevens-Johnson syndrome.Which mechanism is usually responsible for this condition?
A) IgE-mediated release of histamine from mast cells and basophils
B) formation of sensitized lymphocytes
C) complement-mediated cell lysis
D) delayed hypersensitivity reactions
E) deposition of immune complexes in blood vessel walls
Q2) If a generic version of a drug is approved for marketing on the basis of a study comparing the oral bioavailability of the generic and brand name product, which term is associated with the review of this product by the Food and Drug Administration?
A) Harris-Kefauver amendment
B) accelerated drug approval
C) orphan drug amendment
D) abbreviated new drug application
E) investigational new drug
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Autonomic and Neuromuscular Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child experiences abdominal spasms after a black widow spider bite.Which activity is affected by the toxin contained in its venom?
A) choline reuptake
B) choline acetylation
C) exocytosis
D) cholinesterase
E) receptor activation
Q2) Which neurotransmitter causes vasodilation when released by the enteric nervous system?
A) norepinephrine
B) nitric oxide
C) endothelin
D) neuropeptide Y
E) substance P
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Chapter 6: Acetylcholine Receptor Agonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which mechanism is responsible for the therapeutic effect of sildenafil?
A) inhibition of acetylcholine degradation
B) activation of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
C) inhibition of cyclic GMP degradation
D) stimulation of nitric oxide synthesis
E) stimulation of potassium efflux
Q2) A patient with open-angle glaucoma receives a drug that activates muscarinic receptors in the eye.Which action is responsible for the therapeutic effect of this drug?
A) contraction of ciliary muscle
B) relaxation of ciliary muscle
C) contraction of iris sphincter muscle
D) relaxation of iris sphincter muscle
E) stimulation of lacrimal gland secretion
Q3) Which adverse effect may result from administration of bethanechol?
A) dry mouth
B) urinary retention
C) pupil dilation
D) tachycardia
E) diarrhea
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Chapter 7: Acetylcholine Receptor Antagonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cisatracurium is preferred in patients with renal or hepatic impairment because of which property?
A) a short duration of action
B) undergoes spontaneous chemical degradation
C) metabolized by plasma cholinesterase
D) rapidly inactivated by sugammadex
E) effects easily reversed by edrophonium
Q2) For which purpose is glycopyrrolate administered during surgery?
A) reversing the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents
B) increasing blood pressure
C) decreasing respiratory secretions
D) causing bronchodilation
E) potentiating general anesthetics
Q3) Succinylcholine is avoided in persons with skeletal muscle injuries because of the drug's tendency to cause which effect?
A) hyperkalemia
B) hypocalcemia
C) hypernatremia
D) metabolic acidosis
E) prolonged apnea
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Chapter 8: Adrenoceptor Agonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with heart failure is given an intravenous dobutamine infusion to reduce impedance to left ventricular ejection.Which receptors mediate this effect of dobutamine?
A) dopamine D receptors
B) -adrenoceptors
C) -adrenoceptors
D) -adrenoceptors
E) -adrenoceptors
Q2) Phenylephrine is contained in many nasal decongestant products.Which action contributes to its therapeutic effect?
A) activation of adenylyl cyclase
B) inhibition of phosphodiesterase
C) activation of phospholipase C
D) activation of nitric oxide synthase
E) inhibition of adenosine deaminase
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10
Chapter 9: Adrenoceptor Antagonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) A man is placed on doxazosin for hypertension.Which adverse effect is most likely to result from taking this drug?
A) postural hypotension
B) rebound hypertension
C) hypokalemia
D) urinary retention
E) bradycardia
Q2) Which pharmacologic effect is produced by topical ocular administration of timolol?
A) miosis
B) mydriasis
C) contraction of the ciliary muscles
D) decreased aqueous humor secretion
E) conjunctival vasoconstriction
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11
Chapter 10: Antihypertensive Drugs
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5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antihypertensive drug is most likely to reduce vascular injury by inhibiting activation of growth factors that cause smooth muscle proliferation and hypertrophy?
A) clonidine
B) terazosin
C) atenolol
D) candesartan
E) nifedipine
Q2) A patient with a hypertensive emergency is given an intravenous infusion of a drug that dilates renal afferent and efferent arterioles and is rapidly metabolized with a half-life of 5 minutes.Which mechanism is responsible for the therapeutic effect of this drug?
A) activation of dopamine D receptors
B) activation of dopamine D receptors
C) blockade of -adrenoceptors
D) activation of -adrenoceptors
E) blockade of - and -adrenoceptors
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12
Chapter 11: Antianginal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which signaling mechanism participates in the vasodilative effect of nitroglycerin?
A) activation of nitric oxide synthase
B) inhibition of phosphodiesterase
C) inhibition of intracellular calcium release
D) activation of guanylate cyclase
E) activation of adenylate cyclase
Q2) A patient is given a drug that decreases anginal episodes without reducing heart rate or blood pressure.Which mechanism is responsible for the beneficial effects of this drug?
A) increased utilization of glucose by the heart
B) improved cardiac diastolic function
C) inhibition of fatty acid oxidation in the heart
D) increased sodium influx into myocytes
E) increased calcium influx into myocytes
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13
Chapter 12: Drugs for Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The beneficial effects of carvedilol in persons with heart failure are obtained with the use of which drug administration regimen?
A) intravenous infusion for 3 to 7 days
B) low doses that are gradually increased over time
C) loading doses followed by maintenance doses
D) high doses that are gradually tapered over time
E) titration to obtain the desired increase in cardiac output
Q2) A patient with decompensated heart failure is given an intravenous infusion of a peptide drug.Which effect is produced by this treatment?
A) decreased synthesis of angiotensin II
B) blockade of angiotensin II receptors
C) increased levels of cyclic AMP
D) increased levels of cyclic GMP
E) increased influx of calcium
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14
Chapter 13: Diuretics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A man with renal stones is found to have hypercalciuria.The drug most likely used to treat this condition blocks which step in nephron function?
A) conversion of bicarbonate to carbon dioxide
B) sodium chloride reabsorption from the distal tubule
C) expression of sodium channel protein in the collecting duct
D) sodium chloride reabsorption from the loop of Henle
E) sodium-potassium exchange in the collecting duct
Q2) Which diuretic acts to increase the renal excretion of weakly acidic drugs?
A) spironolactone
B) amiloride
C) acetazolamide
D) furosemide
E) mannitol
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Chapter 14: Antiarrhythmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The electrocardiogram must be closely monitored during dosage titration with dofetilide because of its ability to produce which abnormality?
A) QRS widening
B) QT prolongation
C) asystole
D) PR shortening
E) afterdepolarizations
Q2) Because of the risk of serious toxicity, a yearly chest radiogram is required in persons taking which drug?
A) ibutilide
B) sotalol
C) quinidine
D) procainamide
E) amiodarone
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Chapter 15: Drugs for Hyperlipidemia
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Sample Questions
Q1) A man taking simvastatin develops severe muscle pain, muscle inflammation, And dark urine after beginning concurrent therapy with another drug.Which agent is most likely responsible for this adverse drug interaction?
A) ezetimibe
B) cholestyramine
C) itraconazole
D) rifampin
E) penicillin
Q2) In addition to their beneficial effect on serum LDL-cholesterol levels, atorvastatin and related drugs may reduce coronary heart disease by which mechanism?
A) reducing cholesterol absorption
B) improving vascular endothelial function
C) stimulating lipoprotein lipase
D) increasing lipolysis
E) decreasing appetite
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17
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which anticoagulant consists of a synthetic antithrombin III-binding pentasaccharide?
A) fondaparinux
B) bivalirudin
C) warfarin
D) heparin
E) enoxaparin
Q2) A patient receives a cyclic peptide derived from rattlesnake venom.Which step leading to platelet aggregation is inhibited by this agent?
A) glycoprotein IIb/IIIa expression
B) ADP binding
C) fibrinogen binding
D) cyclic AMP formation
E) 5-hydroxytryptamine synthesis
Q3) Which coagulation factor is inactivated following administration of lepirudin?
A) tissue thromboplastin
B) fibrinogen
C) prothrombin
D) active factor X
E) thrombin
18
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Chapter 17: Hematopoietic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using larger doses of recombinant erythropoietin (e.g., epoetin)to achieve hemoglobin levels >12 g/dL is associated with an increased risk of which type of disease?
A) cardiovascular disease
B) renal disease
C) hepatic disease
D) hematologic disease
E) pulmonary disease
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which attribute is most correctly associated with substances known as neuromodulators?
A) produced in the brain but exert effects on other organs
B) affect the activity of only one or a few neurons
C) inhibit the synthesis or degradation of neurotransmitters
D) influence the activity of a large number of neurons
E) modulate the activity of non-neuronal cells in the central nervous system
Q2) Drugs that affect neurons in the reticular formation have a major influence on which function?
A) sleep and wakefulness
B) emotional processing
C) body movement
D) memory
E) abstract reasoning
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Sedative-Hypnotic and Anxiolytic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which property is related to the ability of zolpidem to selectively bind GABAA receptors that are composed of -subunits?
A) lack of active metabolites
B) low degree of daytime sedation
C) low potential for drug dependence
D) greater effect on REM sleep
E) greater effect on slow wave sleep
Q2) Because of its ability to induce -aminolevulinate synthase, phenobarbital should not be taken in persons with which disorder?
A) porphyria
B) homocystinuria
C) pernicious anemia
D) hemophilia
E) hepatitis
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Chapter 20: Antiepileptic Drugs
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Q1) After sustaining head trauma, a woman experiences recurrent tonic-clonic seizures without regaining consciousness.Which pair of drugs is most often used to control this type of seizure?
A) valproate and carbamazepine
B) zonisamide and gabapentin
C) topiramate and vigabatrin
D) diazepam and phenytoin
E) pregabalin and tiagabine
Q2) A child whose seizures have been controlled with valproate experiences breakthrough seizures and lamotrigine is being added to the regimen.Which adverse effect is more common in children receiving both drugs?
A) aplastic anemia
B) hepatitis
C) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
D) megaloblastic anemia
E) gingival hyperplasia
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22
Chapter 21: Local and General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of prilocaine is limited to topical and infiltration anesthesia because the drug's metabolite may cause which adverse effect?
A) cardiac arrhythmias
B) hepatitis
C) renal impairment
D) myopathy
E) methemoglobinemia
Q2) Which advantage is associated with etomidate compared to other parenteral anesthetics?
A) produces muscle relaxation
B) causes a high degree of analgesia
C) less likely to cause hypotension
D) has a longer duration of action
E) causes dissociative anesthesia
Q3) Which attribute best describes sevoflurane?
A) causes little cardiovascular and respiratory depression
B) more irritating to the respiratory tract than other drugs
C) slower rate of induction than other inhalational agents
D) more potent than other halogenated inhalational anesthetics
E) increases systemic vascular resistance more than other drugs
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Chapter 22: Psychotherapeutic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman is evaluated to determine the cause of infertility and is found to have elevated serum prolactin levels.Which drug is most likely responsible for this adverse effect?
A) fluoxetine
B) lithium
C) haloperidol
D) aripiprazole
E) bupropion
Q2) A woman is placed on an antidepressant that increases neuronal release of norepinephrine.Which mechanism is responsible for this effect?
A) activation of -adrenoceptors
B) blockade of -adrenoceptors
C) activation of serotonin 5-HT receptors
D) blockade of serotonin 5-HT receptors
E) blockade of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
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Chapter 23: Opioid Analgesics and Antagonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic administration of meperidine should be avoided for which reason?
A) greater risk of drug dependence than with other opioids
B) auto-induction of drug metabolism enzymes
C) development of pharmacodynamic drug tolerance
D) increased suicidal ideations
E) accumulation of a toxic metabolite
Q2) The analgesic effect of tramadol is partly attributed to which action?
A) inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
B) activation of descending inhibitory pathways
C) activation of -adrenoceptors in the spinal cord
D) depletion of substance P from afferent neurons
E) partial agonist activity at kappa opioid receptors
Q3) A woman experiences hallucinations and paranoid ideations after receiving an opioid analgesic in the emergency department.This adverse effect most likely results from activation of which receptors?
A) mu and delta
B) delta and kappa
C) mu and kappa
D) kappa and sigma
E) mu and sigma
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Chapter 24: Drugs for Neurodegenerative Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Severe hypomobility ("freezing")reactions in advanced Parkinson's disease may respond rapidly after injection of which drug?
A) apomorphine
B) dopamine
C) ropinirole
D) benztropine
E) tizanidine
Q2) Which agent is useful in persons with multiple sclerosis because it serves as a decoy for myelin-damaging T cells?
A) mitoxantrone
B) natalizumab
C) interferon beta-1b
D) glatiramer
E) prednisone
Q3) Which action is responsible for the therapeutic effects of entacapone?
A) inhibition of monoamine oxidase-type B
B) stimulation of levodopa decarboxylation
C) decreased formation of 3-O-methyldopa
D) increased uptake of dopamine into the brain
E) increased release of dopamine from neurons
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Chapter 25: Drugs of Abuse
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Q1) The neuronal effects of -tetrahydrocannabinol are believed to result from activation of receptors that are coupled with which cellular effect?
A) sodium channel activation
B) calcium channel activation
C) inhibition of adenylyl cyclase
D) inhibition of guanylyl cyclase
E) synthesis of inositol triphosphate
Q2) Which statement most accurately describes prescription drug abuse?
A) a growing problem associated with significant morbidity and mortality
B) incidence has decreased over the past two decades
C) rarely leads to emergency department visits or accidental overdose
D) the leading cause of accidental death in the United States
E) primarily due to overprescribing by physicians and nurse practitioners
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27
Chapter 26: Autacoid Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which autacoid is associated with the production of inflammation, edema,Pruritus,and cough?
A) serotonin
B) prostaglandin E1
C) endothelin
D) leukotriene B4
E) histamine
Q2) Azelastine relieves nasal itching and discharge in persons with allergic rhinitis by antagonism of which receptors?
A) histamine H
B) histamine H
C) serotonin 5-HT
D) serotonin 5-HT
E) serotonin 5-HT
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Chapter 27: Drugs for Respiratory Tract Disorders
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Q1) Which drug would be most effective in cases of severe asthma involving the formation of leukotriene B ?
A) montelukast
B) zafirlukast
C) zileuton
D) cromolyn sodium
E) lodoxamide
Q2) Dextromethorphan is the most widely used antitussive drug because of which attribute?
A) does not bind to opioid receptors
B) full agonist at opioid receptors
C) partial agonist at opioid receptors
D) antagonist at opioid receptors
E) little effect on the central nervous system
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29
Chapter 28: Drugs for Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Q1) Blockade of which receptors is responsible for the antiemetic effect of aprepitant?
A) histamine H
B) serotonin 5-HT
C) muscarinic acetylcholine M
D) dopamine D
E) neurokinin NK
Q2) Which event is involved in the inhibition of gastric acid secretion by pantoprazole?
A) blockade of histamine H receptors
B) competitive inhibition of H , K -ATPase
C) formation of an active drug metabolite
D) metabolism by cytochrome P450 2C19
E) stimulation of prostaglandin synthesis
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Chapter 29: Drugs for Headache Disorders
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Q1) Which agent might be used for termination of migraine headache in a woman with coronary artery disease?
A) sumatriptan
B) tramadol
C) valproate
D) dihydroergotamine
E) propranolol
Q2) A 1-month drug-free interval every 6 months is required for patients taking methysergide in order to prevent which adverse effect?
A) heart valve fibrosis
B) intermittent claudication
C) pulmonary hypertension
D) cardiac ischemia
E) serotonin syndrome
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Chapter 30: Drugs for Pain, Inflammation, and Arthritic Disorders
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Q1) Leflunomide prevents leukocyte proliferation by inhibiting which step in this process?
A) formation of active folate
B) pyrimidine biosynthesis
C) purine biosynthesis
D) ribonucleotide reductase
E) DNA polymerase
Q2) Abatacept exerts its antirheumatic effects by binding to which molecular target?
A) interleukin-1 type I receptor
B) tumor necrosis factor-
C) cell surface proteins of T lymphocytes
D) immunoglobulin G rheumatoid factor
E) interleukin-2 transcription factors
Q3) Administration of allopurinol produces which effect on serum and urinary levels of uric acid in a patient with gout?
A) increased serum and urinary levels
B) increased serum and decreased urinary levels
C) decreased serum levels and no change in urinary levels
D) decreased serum and urinary levels
E) decreased serum and increased urinary levels
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Hypothalamic and Pituitary Drugs
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Q1) Desmopressin is often preferred for treating diabetes insipidus for which reason?
A) convenient once daily oral administration
B) relieves nocturnal enuresis in most patients
C) causes more vasoconstriction than vasopressin
D) It is a potent inhibitor of adenylyl cyclase.
E) selectively activates vasopressin V receptors
Q2) Which agent is most likely to cause an up-regulation of gonadotropin-releasing hormone receptors during long-term administration of the drug?
A) abarelix
B) gonadorelin
C) leuprolide
D) chorionic gonadotropin
E) nafarelin
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33
Chapter 32: Thyroid Drugs
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Q1) Which drug causes the most rapid decline in circulating thyroid hormones in persons with thyrotoxicosis?
A) methimazole
B) propylthiouracil
C) propranolol
D) potassium iodide
E) radioactive iodine (¹³¹I)
Q2) Which agent is preferred for controlling symptoms of hyperthyroidism prior to administration of radioactive iodine (¹³¹I)?
A) methimazole
B) propylthiouracil
C) propranolol
D) potassium iodide
E) lithium carbonate
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34
Chapter 33: Adrenal Steroids and Related Drugs
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Q1) Which drug action prevents precocious sexual development in boys being treated for congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
A) suppression of corticotropin secretion
B) activation of adrenal steroid receptors
C) stimulation of adrenal 11- -hydroxylase
D) stimulation of adrenal 21-hydroxylase
E) inhibition androgen pathway enzymes
Q2) A patient is treated with a drug that increases expression of genes encoding sodium channels and the sodium-potassium ATPase.Which effect will result from this action?
A) increased free water clearance
B) increased sodium excretion
C) increased potassium excretion
D) increased calcium excretion
E) increased aldosterone secretion
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35
Chapter 34: Drugs Affecting Fertility and Reproduction
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Q1) Administration of a progestin causes which effect on pulses of gonadotropin-releasing hormone secretion?
A) decreased amplitude of pulses
B) decreased frequency of pulses
C) increased frequency and amplitude of pulses
D) decreased frequency and amplitude of pulses
E) increased frequency and decreased amplitude of pulses
Q2) A postmenopausal woman is placed on a drug that inhibits aromatase. This treatment will decrease serum levels of which hormone?
A) androstenedione
B) estrone
C) follicle-stimulating hormone
D) progesterone
E) dehydroepiandrosterone
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Chapter 35: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus
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Q1) In patients with diabetic ketoacidosis, insulin administration will correct which imbalances?
A) hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia
B) hyperglycemia and hypokalemia
C) hyperglycemia and acidosis
D) acidosis and hyperkalemia
E) hypokalemia and alkalosis
Q2) After skipping a meal, a diabetic woman experiences a hypoglycemic reaction.Which drug is most likely responsible for this effect?
A) metformin
B) sitagliptin
C) pioglitazone
D) acarbose
E) glipizide
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Chapter 36: Drugs Affecting Calcium and Bone
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Q1) Patients who are taking both calcium and alendronate to prevent osteoporosis should be advised to take these drugs in which way?
A) separately on alternate days
B) separately at least 2 hours apart
C) separately with different meals
D) together at the same time each day
E) together at bedtime
Q2) A man is treated with a drug that increases the sensitivity of calcium-sensing receptors in the parathyroid gland.Which effects will result from this treatment?
A) decreased PTH secretion and increased serum calcium levels
B) increased PTH secretion and decreased serum calcium levels
C) decreased PTH secretion and decreased serum calcium levels
D) increased PTH secretion and increased serum calcium levels
E) increased PTH secretion and decreased calcium excretion
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Chapter 37: Principles of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy
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Q1) Which class of antibiotics is most often used for prophylaxis of surgical infections?
A) penicillins
B) aminoglycosides
C) tetracyclines
D) cephalosporins
E) fluoroquinolones
Q2) Oseltamivir is used for prophylaxis of which infection during an outbreak of the disease?
A) influenza
B) tuberculosis
C) malaria
D) meningococcal meningitis
E) whooping cough
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Chapter 38: Inhibitors of Bacterial Cell Wall Synthesis
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Q1) For which reason is clavulanate included in some formulations of -lactam drugs?
A) blocks formation of cell wall precursors
B) prevents cross-linking of cell wall peptides
C) inhibits renal tubular secretion of -lactam drugs
D) inhibits bacterial degradation of -lactam drugs
E) inhibits renal degradation of -lactam drugs
Q2) Which attribute is associated with a third-generation cephalosporin that is excreted primarily in the bile?
A) well absorbed from the gut
B) long plasma half-life
C) used to treat Pseudomonas infections
D) may cause platelet dysfunction and bleeding
E) prolongs the QT interval of the electrocardiogram
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Chapter 39: Inhibitors of Bacterial Protein Synthesis
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Q1) Which agent is used topically to eradicate nasal colonization of methicillin-resistant staphylococci?
A) bacitracin
B) mupirocin
C) neomycin
D) polymyxin
E) tigecycline
Q2) Persons receiving intravenous clindamycin should be monitored for the occurrence of which adverse effect?
A) torsades de pointes
B) hearing impairment
C) liver toxicity
D) thrombocytopenia
E) pseudomembranous colitis
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Chapter 40: Quinolones, Antifolate Drugs, and Other
Antimicrobial Agents
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Q1) Which antimicrobial agent prevents the formation of supercoils in circular bacterial DNA?
A) daptomycin
B) nitrofurantoin
C) polymyxin
D) trimethoprim
E) moxifloxacin
Q2) Ciprofloxacin should be taken 2 hours before or after taking nutritional supplements containing which ingredient?
A) folic acid
B) vitamin C
C) potassium
D) iron
E) vitamin D
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Chapter 41: Antimycobacterial Drugs
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Q1) The efficacy of clofazimine is partly due to its ability to alter the activity of which type of cells?
A) erythrocytes
B) platelets
C) leukocytes
D) epithelial cells
E) fibroblasts
Q2) Rifabutin is usually combined with which other drugs in the treatment of Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare infections?
A) isoniazid and ethambutol
B) ethambutol and clarithromycin
C) clarithromycin and dapsone
D) clofazimine and pyrazinamide
E) thalidomide and clofazimine
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43
Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs
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Q1) A woman experiences hypopigmented and hyperpigmented macules on her upper body.Which agent is applied topically treat this condition?
A) flucytosine
B) ciclopirox
C) fluconazole
D) caspofungin
E) posaconazole
Q2) A patient receiving drug therapy for invasive candidiasis experiences abnormally colored vision and photophobia.Which other adverse reaction is associated with this drug?
A) hepatitis
B) electrolyte abnormalities
C) peripheral neuropathy
D) renal toxicity
E) QT prolongation
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Chapter 43: Antiviral Drugs
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Q1) A man receives a drug that binds cations essential for the catalytic activity of an enzyme required for HIV replication.Which step is blocked by this drug?
A) viral maturation and release
B) interaction of the viral enzyme and host cell DNA
C) insertion of glycoprotein 41 into host cell membranes
D) formation of a DNA copy of viral RNA
E) binding of glycoprotein 120 to CD4 antigen
Q2) Which antiviral agent is active against viruses that cause several hemorrhagic fevers, such as Rift Valley fever virus?
A) ganciclovir
B) lamivudine
C) interferon alfa
D) foscarnet
E) ribavirin
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Chapter 44: Antiparasitic Drugs
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Q1) A patient is treated for a Schistosoma mansoni infection.Which mechanism is responsible for the drug's therapeutic effect?
A) increased chloride permeability
B) decreased chloride permeability
C) increased calcium permeability
D) decreased calcium permeability
E) decreased sodium permeability
Q2) The acute phase of which disease may be shortened by administration of nifurtimox and interferon gamma?
A) visceral leishmaniasis
B) African sleeping sickness
C) onchocerciasis
D) cutaneous larva migrans
E) American trypanosomiasis
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Chapter 45: Antineoplastic and Immunomodulating Drugs
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Q1) Which drug increases expression of pro-apoptosis factors and reduces expression of cyclins in chronic myeloid leukemia cells?
A) gemtuzumab ozogamicin
B) imatinib
C) prednisone
D) alemtuzumab
E) fludarabine
Q2) Increased expression of the P-glycoprotein is most likely to cause cancer cell resistance to which drug?
A) cisplatin
B) cyclophosphamide
C) cytarabine
D) vincristine
E) methotrexate
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