Pharmacology Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Pharmacology is the scientific study of drugs and their effects on living organisms. This course explores the principles of drug action, covering topics such as drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion, as well as the mechanisms of drug action at the molecular and cellular levels. Students will learn about different classes of drugs, their therapeutic uses, side effects, and interactions, with a focus on how pharmacological agents are used in the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of diseases. The course integrates examples from clinical practice to highlight the role of pharmacology in modern medicine.
Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of Pharmacology 8th Edition by Shane Bullock
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Sociocultural Aspects
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Q1) What is meant by the term 'de facto direct-to-consumer advertising'?
A) When a professional pharmacy body advertises in a popular magazine about a particular medicine.
B) When a professional nursing body advertises in a nursing journal about a particular medicine.
C) When a pharmaceutical company provides information about specific characteristics of a particular medication in the popular media but does not mention the name of the medication.
D) When a professional pharmacy body provides information about specific characteristics of a particular medication in the popular media but does not mention the name of the medication.
Answer: C
Q2) A key feature of polypharmacy is:
A) self-diagnosing and medicating.
B) using many different pharmacies to purchase medicines.
C) the excessive or unnecessary use of medicines.
D) a reluctance to use complementary therapies.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Health Professionals and the Law
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Q1) In Victoria,midwives employed in hospitals are permitted to initiate administration of up to two pethidine injections to a woman in labour without a health professional's order.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Australian regulations require nursing staff to maintain a ward register for administration of controlled drugs and periodically check the balance of ampoules,tablets and volumes of liquid.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) When the drug order is unclear,the health professional should:
A) ask a colleague to interpret the writing.
B) check what other medications the patient is taking and have an educated guess.
C) question the prescriber about what was intended.
D) withhold the medication.
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Ethical Issues
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Q1) What is the meaning of the term 'not for resuscitation (NFR)order'?
A) The client will not be resuscitated by health care professionals if they suffer a cardiac or respiratory arrest.
B) The client will not receive admission to the intensive care unit.
C) The client will not receive full nursing care.
D) The client will not receive ventilatory and inotropic support.
Answer: A
Q2) Voluntary euthanasia involves the:
A) client's next-of-kin agreeing to an intervention that leads to the client's death.
B) client voluntarily and freely choosing to receive an intervention that leads to their death.
C) client being incapable of giving consent.
D) health professionals involved with the client's care choosing to administer an intervention that leads to the client's death.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
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Q1) In their role as client advocate,health professionals inform people about their rights in relation to drug therapy,other health care-related matters,or when confronted by adversaries,to empower them to make informed decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following factors has an effect on medication adherence? Select all that apply.
A) Age extremes
B) Communication barriers
C) Polypharmacy
D) Single illness with uncomplicated treatment regimen
Q3) A client is recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.Her mother has also been diagnosed some years ago.Which of the following teaching principles will be most helpful in client teaching?
A) Passive participation
B) Prior knowledge and experience
C) Repetition will not be required.
D) The patient is genetically predisposed to be prepared for accompanying pain.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
Professionals in Medicine Management
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Q1) Which of the following healthcare workers have some prescribing rights,are able to order context-specific pathology and radiology tests,and are able to make limited referrals?
A) assistant in nursing
B) registered nurse
C) nurse practitioner
D) nurse researcher
Q2) The target group for a medication review by pharmacists are individuals who:
A) are at risk of medication misuse due to age, social circumstances, complexity of their medication regimen, their health care status, and knowledge about their medicines.
B) are recommended to have a review by their general practitioner.
C) live in a nursing home.
D) live at home alone.
Q3) A nurse is allowed by law to administer a lethal dose of analgesic medication,when ordered by a doctor,to alleviate intractable suffering.
A)True
B)False
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Medicine Formulations, Storage and Routes of Administration
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Q1) The shelf life of glyceryl trinitrate tablets after opening the container is:
A) 80 days.
B) 85 days.
C) 90 days.
D) 100 days.
Q2) Sublingual administration of a drug always ensures:
A) rapid action.
B) avoidance of hepatic first pass.
C) minimal adverse effects.
D) all of the above.
Q3) To avoid hydrolysis of aspirin tablets,the container should be kept in:
A) the bathroom.
B) the kitchen.
C) a coat pocket.
D) a cool, dry place.
Q4) Eye drops are made isotonic to:
A) avoid pain or discomfort on application.
B) prevent infection.
C) prevent an increase in intraocular pressure.
D) prevent trachoma.
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Chapter 7: the Clinical Decision-making Process
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Q1) New Zealand is the only country worldwide that has a comprehensive medicinal policy at the Commonwealth level.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT representative of the 'quality use of' facet of the National Medicines Policy?
A) Only focusing on drug therapy
B) Choosing suitable medicines
C) Safe use of medicines
D) Effective use of medicines
Q3) The nursing clinical decision-making process involves the following steps:
A) assessment, planning and implementation.
B) assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.
C) assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation.
D) assessment and evaluation.
Q4) What is the first step in the clinical decision-making process?
A) evaluation
B) assessment
C) planning
D) prognosis
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Medicine Administration Strategies and Documentation
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Q1) A nursing student involved in checking blood products should be accompanied to the bedside of the patient by:
A) one registered nurse.
B) two registered nurses.
C) bedside checks are not required if the products and paperwork have been double-checked by two registered nurses.
D) students should never check medications or blood products.
Q2) Medication ordered at particular time intervals should be given on time to:
A) ensure that health professionals provide their care efficiently.
B) maintain consistent blood levels of the medication.
C) ensure that medications are not wasted.
D) ensure that patients have a structured approach to their care.
Q3) The rights of drug administration are:
A) giving the right drug, in the right dose, to the right person, by the right route, at the right time.
B) giving the right drug, in the right dose, at the right time.
C) giving the right drug, in the right dose, by the right route.
D) giving the right drug, in the right dose, to the right person.
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Chapter 9: Medication Errors
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Q1) Following the five rights"will help reduce medication errors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following are potential sources of medical errors? Select all that apply.
A) The wrong dose of a medication is given.
B) The person's identity is not checked.
C) The manufacturer changes inert ingredients.
D) The person takes all of their medicines at the same time every day.
Q3) In order to avoid medication errors,it is a good strategy to have two patients with the same name positioned:
A) next to each other.
B) opposite each other.
C) next to the central office area.
D) at opposite ends of the hospital ward.
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11
Chapter 10: Management of Common Adverse Drug Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mainstay of treatment for anaphylactic shock?
A) Hydrocortisone
B) Adrenaline
C) Salbutamol
D) Promethazine
Q2) Aplastic anaemia caused by chloramphenicol is an example of type B adverse drug reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A common adverse drug reaction is hypertension.The drug therapy for treatment of hypertension may include the following EXCEPT:
A) -adrenoreceptor agonists.
B) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
C) calcium antagonists.
D) -adrenoreceptor antagonists.
Q4) A conscious client with respiratory depression should be placed in a:
A) flat position.
B) semi-upright position.
C) side position.
D) prone position.
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Chapter 11: Risk Communication: Balancing the Benefits and Risks of Drug Treatment
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Q1) Relative risk refers to the ratio of the incidence of an adverse event occurring in individuals taking a medication as compared to individuals not taking a medication having the same adverse event.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ratio of the incidence of the adverse event in those individuals who take the medicine to the incidence of those who do not take the medicine is known as:
A) presumptive risk.
B) relative risk.
C) absolute risk.
D) implied risk.
Q3) Which of the following strategies would NOT be beneficial in communicating risks and benefits to individuals?
A) Offer balanced information.
B) Use specific, descriptive terms for risk.
C) Use a consistent denominator.
D) Use visual aids.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Drug Nomenclature
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Q1) Drugs with generic names that end in the suffix -pril are members of the drug group called:
A) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) serotonin receptor antagonists.
D) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
Q2) Individual drugs can be classified according to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) therapeutic use.
B) mode of action.
C) molecular structure.
D) adverse drug reaction.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a generic drug name used in Australia and New Zealand?
A) Frusemide
B) Furomide
C) Furosemide
D) Lasix
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Chapter 13: Pharmacokinetics: Absorption and Distribution
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Q1) If a drug accumulates in one tissue (that is,the drug is extensively bound to a tissue),its volume of distribution is low.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Highly lipophilic substances can cross the blood-brain barrier.Which of the following cannot cross the blood-brain barrier in normal circumstances?
A) Alcohol
B) Penicillin
C) Glucose
D) Antihistamines
Q3) By which route are drugs not subject to the physiological process of absorption through a blood vessel wall?
A) Intramuscularly
B) Intradermally
C) Intravenously
D) Subcutaneously
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Chapter 14: Pharmacokinetics Metabolism and Excretion
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Q1) Which of the following drugs is not excreted by the lungs?
A) Ethanol
B) Salbutamol
C) Isoflurane
D) Metoprolol
Q2) Drugs are metabolised by the liver to make them more:
A) amphipathic.
B) hydrophilic.
C) lipophilic.
D) hydrophobic.
Q3) Clearance of an acidic drug by the kidneys may be increased by:
A) alkalising the urine.
B) administering amphetamines.
C) administering ascorbic acid.
D) administering sodium hydrogen carbonate.
Q4) Explain what is meant by drug clearance.
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Chapter 15: Drug Interactions
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Q1) The drug interactions that occur with cimetidine are usually due to:
A) enzyme inhibition.
B) enzyme induction.
C) protein binding.
D) summation.
Q2) When suxamethonium and thiopentone are mixed in the same syringe,the drug-drug interaction that results is:
A) summation.
B) chemical drug incompatibility.
C) potentiation.
D) augmentation.
Q3) A common drug-food interaction is between grapefruit juice and: A) aspirin.
B) paracetamol.
C) felodipine.
D) ibuprofen.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pharmacodynamics
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Q1) Some terms that describe interactions between drugs and receptors include: (Select all that apply)
A) antagonism.
B) agonism.
C) first mechanism
D) first messenger
Q2) In disrupting the synthesis of folic acid in bacteria,sulfonamides act:
A) as competitive inhibitors.
B) as non-competitive inhibitors.
C) by physical action.
D) by none of the above.
Q3) Pharmacological effect is achieved by:
A) the portion of free or unbound drug.
B) the portion of protein-bound drug.
C) ionisation.
D) penetrating the blood-brain barrier.
Q4) Pharmacodynamics describes the physiological processes that act on a drug once it enters the body,or how the body handles the drug.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Drug Development, Evaluation and Safety
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Q1) A protein-bound drug may get displaced by another drug through competition for binding sites on plasma proteins.The displaced drug may then exert toxicity if it has a lower margin of safety.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The transfer of drugs from the maternal circulation into fetal circulation depends on the dose and physicochemical properties of the drug,and transplacental transport systems.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which form of hypersensitivity reaction is characterised by antibody-antigen complexes that precipitate out of the blood and lodge in tissues such as skin and joints,inducing an inflammatory response?
A) Type I hypersensitivity reactions
B) Type II hypersensitivity reactions
C) Type III hypersensitivity reactions
D) Type IV hypersensitivity reactions
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19
Chapter 18: Genetic Considerations in Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The types of gene therapy include:
A) somatic and germline.
B) psychosomatic and germline.
C) somatic and viraline.
D) psychosomatic and viraline.
Q2) Which one of the following factors is likely to result in higher plasma drug levels?
A) Taking a water-soluble drug during a meal
B) Administering a drug orally when a client is experiencing an episode of severe diarrhoea
C) Administering the narcotic analgesic morphine to a person with cirrhosis of the liver
D) Administering a drug that is subject to significant metabolism to a person whose occupation involves handling chemicals that induce microsomal enzymes.
Q3) Cost-effectiveness is a potential barrier to genetic-based therapies.
A)True
B)False
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20
Chapter 19: Pharmacokinetic Factors That Modify Drug Action
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Q1) Which one of the following factors would not be expected to increase the rate of drug absorption from the small intestines?
A) A small-sized drug molecule
B) Delayed gastric emptying
C) An increase in gut blood flow
D) The majority of drug molecules in an un-ionised state
Q2) During pregnancy,drug absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is variable and unpredictable due to slowed peristalsis and gastric emptying.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Paediatric and Geriatric Pharmacology
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Q1) In geriatric settings,it is desirable to:
A) arrange for all drugs to be dispensed to clients in childproof containers.
B) administer all drugs to all clients so that they can concentrate on resting and getting better.
C) encourage the client to learn about their medications prior to discharge.
D) use the deltoid muscle for intramuscular injection in a client with muscle wasting.
Q2) Compared to neonates,do the elderly have greater or diminished drug effects due to variation in the volume of body fluid?
Q3) In neonates and infants,drug absorption through the skin is:
A) enhanced because the surface area to body weight is less than that of adults.
B) enhanced because the surface area to body weight is greater than that of adults.
C) reduced because the surface area to body weight is less than that of adults.
D) reduced because the surface area to body weight is greater than that of adults.
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22
Chapter 21: Poisoning and Envenomation
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Q1) Which of the following best characterises the main principles associated with the emergency management of poisoning?
A) Life support, clinical assessment, decontamination and detoxification, neutralisation and elimination of the poison
B) The monitoring of adverse effects after ingestion of the poison
C) The identification of the chemical associated with the poisoning and administration of decontaminating agents
D) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following is an iron chelating agent?
A) Disodium edetate
B) Deferasirox
C) d-penicillamine
D) Calcium gluconate
Q3) Which of the following best characterizes the mode of action of cyanide poisoning?
A) Central nervous system depressant
B) Displaces essential trace elements and accumulates in tissues
C) Permanently disables the enzyme cholinesterase
D) Diminishes cellular energy
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Chapter 22: the Management of Acute Clinical Overdose
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Q1) For which principle associated with the management of clinical drug overdose is gastric lavage a component?
A) Client assessment
B) Life support
C) Drug decontamination and detoxification
D) Drug neutralisation and elimination
Q2) The passing of a patient's blood across a medium containing adsorbent beads is called:
A) haemoperfusion.
B) haemosiderosis.
C) haemodialysis.
D) haemolysis.
Q3) In order to facilitate the pooling of stomach contents and hinder their movement into the duodenum,an unconscious person undergoing gastric lavage needs to be positioned:
A) on their back.
B) on their right side.
C) on their left side.
D) in a semi-recumbent position
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Contemporary Drugs of Abuse
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Q1) Nicotine can have the following effect EXCEPT:
A) weight gain.
B) stimulation.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) appetite suppression.
Q2) Therapeutic uses of marijuana include:
A) glaucoma.
B) emesis control.
C) hypertension.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is a symptom of caffeine withdrawal?
A) Hallucinations
B) Palpitations
C) Headaches
D) Muscle tremors
Q4) Which of the following medications can be used to treat alcohol addiction?
A) Metronidazole
B) Disulfiram
C) Acamprosate
D) Both B and C
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Chapter 24: Drug Abuse in Sport
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Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT true in relation to detection of drug use in sport?
A) Individual differences in pharmacokinetics affect the results of drug tests.
B) Sportswomen can use some drugs on the WADA banned list that sportsmen cannot.
C) Peptide hormone misuse can be difficult to detect.
D) Low-dose anabolic-androgenic steroid use causes feminisation in men.
Q2) Which one of the following could be perceived as a benefit associated with anabolic-androgenic steroid use?
A) Mood swings
B) Premature completion of long bone growth
C) Increased skeletal muscle mass
D) An altered blood lipid profile
Q3) Which of the following statements is NOT usually given by sportspeople as a reason for drug doping?
A) To increase popularity amongst peers
B) To gain a competitive edge
C) To cope with stress
D) Dissatisfaction with current performance
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Chapter 25: General Aspects of Neuropharmacology
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Q1) Sympathetic stimulation would result in which one of the following sets of responses?
A) Increased gastric juice secretion and increased heart rate
B) Sweating, urinary retention, salivation and pupil dilation
C) Increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, defecation and erection of genitalia
D) Slowed heart rate, increased blood pressure, pupil constriction and pallor
Q2) Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in autonomic nervous system (ANS)function?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Vasopressin
C) Acetylcholine
D) Dobutamine
Q3) What effect does the parasympathetic system have on the heart?
A) Increases heart rate
B) Decreases heart rate
C) Causes vasodilation
D) Increases the force of the heart
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Chapter 26: Adrenergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following effects will occur with \(\beta_{2} \) receptor stimulation?
A) Bronchoconstriction
B) Bronchodilation
C) Urinary retention
D) Decreased heart rate
Q2) Which of the following agents could be used to treat hypertension?
A) <sub>1</sub> antagonists
B) <sub>1</sub> agonists
C) <sub>1</sub> antagonists
D) Both A and C
Q3) A clinical use for \(\beta_{1} \) antagonists is in the treatment of:
A) tachycardia.
B) hypertension.
C) COPD.
D) Both A and B.
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28
Chapter 27: Cholinergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Muscarinic antagonists have been used as:
A) antispasmodics.
B) antiulcerants.
C) antiemetics.
D) All of the above
Q2) How many subtypes of muscarinic receptors have been identified?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Q3) Neuromuscular agents work on which receptors?
A) M<sub>1</sub>
B) M<sub>2</sub>
C) M<sub>3</sub>
D) Nicotinic
Q4) Stimulation of the M<sub>3</sub> receptors causes:
A) tear production.
B) urinary retention.
C) decreased gastric motility.
D) bronchodilation.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: An Introduction to Chemical Mediators
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Q1) Which of the following mediators acts on a distant target?
A) Neurotransmitter
B) Classic hormone
C) Local hormone
D) Autacoid
Q2) Which of the following mediators is released directly into the bloodstream?
A) Hormones
B) Neurotransmitters
C) Autacoids
D) None of the above
Q3) Mediators that induce their effect without entering the circulation are referred to as:
A) hormones.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) autacoids.
D) second messengers.
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Chapter 29: Histamine and Antihistamines
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Q1) Where are H<sub>1</sub> receptors found?
A) Stomach
B) Smooth muscles
C) Immune cells
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following mediators plays a role in modulating allergic reactions?
A) Serotonin
B) Histamine
C) Pepsin
D) None of the above
Q3) Antihistamines are used for the treatment of:
A) allergies.
B) anaphylactic reactions.
C) depression.
D) both A and B.
Q4) Which secondary messenger is associated with H<sub>1</sub> receptor activation?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Prostaglandins and Serotonin
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Q1) 5-HT<sub>3</sub> receptor antagonists have been used for:
A) nausea.
B) somnolence.
C) REMS sleep disorder.
D) GERD.
Q2) Prostaglandin analogues have been used for:
A) termination of pregnancy.
B) glaucoma.
C) treatment of impotence.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Common eicosanoids include:
A) thromboxanes.
B) leukotrienes.
C) hydroperoxyeicosatrienoic acids.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Drugs that inhibit the synaptic serotonin reuptake are used for:
A) autism.
B) depression.
C) glaucoma.
D) termination of pregnancy.
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Chapter 31: Nitric Oxide and the Endothelins
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Q1) Nitric oxide is a highly stable gas used for the management of cyanide poisoning.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Endothelin receptor antagonists have been used for the treatment of:
A) pulmonary hypertension.
B) ischemic valve disease.
C) peripheral vascular disease.
D) none of the above.
Q3) Endothelin receptor antagonists can be used safely in pregnant patients.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How many endothelin receptor subtypes have been identified?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
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Page 33
Chapter 32: General concepts of Psychopharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The transmitter that is particularly associated with cognition,memory formation and skeletal muscle activation is:
A) dopamine.
B) noradrenaline.
C) acetylcholine.
D) serotonin.
Q2) The major inhibitory neurotransmitter is:
A) dopamine.
B) glutamate.
C) serotonin.
D) GABA.
Q3) The transmitter associated with emesis is:
A) dopamine.
B) serotonin.
C) noradrenaline.
D) acetylcholine.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Antipsychotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When switching from one antipsychotic medication to clozapine,the other antipsychotic medication is reduced over:
A) one day, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
B) two days, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
C) four days, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
D) seven days, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
Q2) Cholestatic jaundice can occur with which phenothiazine antipsychotic agent,therefore requiring cessation of the agent?
A) Fluphenazine
B) Pericyazine
C) Chlorpromazine
D) Pipothiazine
Q3) Psychoses include the following conditions EXCEPT:
A) depression.
B) schizophrenia.
C) severe agitation.
D) some forms of dementia.
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Chapter 34: Anxiolytics and Hypnotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) More than how many weeks of continuous treatment with benzodiazepines results in dependence and tolerance?
A) One week
B) Two to four weeks
C) Four to six weeks
D) Six to eight weeks
Q2) Which benzodiazepine is sometimes useful in the treatment of endogenous depression?
A) Alprazolam
B) Triazolam
C) Diazepam
D) Flunitrazepam
Q3) Which benzodiazepine agent would be considered suitable for a person who has problems with early morning awakening?
A) Triazolam
B) Diazepam
C) Temazepam
D) Flunitrazepam
Q4) Explain why hypnotic agents should not be used for long-term therapy.
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Chapter 35: Antidepressants and Mood Stabilisers
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Sample Questions
Q1) The potentially fatal 'serotonin syndrome' is associated with SSRI therapy for depression.Which of the following signs or symptoms are not linked to serotonin syndrome?
A) Weight gain
B) Hyperthermia
C) Sweating
D) Euphoria or drowsiness
Q2) The proposed action of tetracyclic antidepressant drugs is:
A) block transmitter reuptake.
B) block the amine reuptake pump on the presynaptic terminal.
C) inhibit monoamine oxidase.
D) selectively block postsynaptic 5-HT<sub>2</sub> receptors.
Q3) Which of the following measures does NOT help to avoid the serotonin syndrome associated with the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
A) Co-administration of two SSRI preparations
B) Having a 'washout' period when switching drugs
C) Administering a therapeutic dose of a single SSRI agent
D) Tapering high doses of the SSRI agent
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Chapter 36: Medicines Used in Neurodegenerative Disorders
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Q1) Which one of the following drugs is NOT used in the management of multiple sclerosis to modify the immune response?
A) Baclofen
B) Glatiramer
C) Prednisone
D) Interferon \(\beta\)
Q2) Parkinson's disease is a defect in the function of which transmitter system in the basal ganglia?
A) Noradrenaline
B) Acetylcholine
C) Dopamine
D) Serotonin
Q3) To ensure a uniform concentration of levodopa,the dose should be taken:
A) with milk.
B) before exercise.
C) immediately before breakfast and one hour after the evening meal.
D) at the same time each day and in a consistent manner in relation to food.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Antiseizure Agents and Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spasmolytic muscle relaxants enhance the inhibitory transmitter GABA.How does this action produce a therapeutic effect in seizure management?
A) By reducing hyperexcitability of the motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord
B) By inducing sedation in the patient
C) By altering calcium levels that reduce skeletal muscle contraction
D) Stimulation of GABAergic pathways in the spinal cord
Q2) Which of the following antiseizure drugs requires visual fields to be tested before commencing therapy and at regular intervals during therapy?
A) Valproic acid
B) Phenytoin
C) Vigabatrin
D) Lamotrigine
Q3) Barbiturates remain in use for seizure management because:
A) they have few serious adverse effects.
B) their antiseizure activity is greater than their sedating activity.
C) physical dependence does not occur.
D) they are safe for use in patients with chronic kidney disease.
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Chapter 38: Central Nervous System Stimulants
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Sample Questions
Q1) 'Drug holidays' from dexamphetamine may be important to avoid:
A) addiction.
B) growth retardation.
C) insomnia.
D) cognitive impairment.
Q2) In order to promote maximum benefit for the treatment of narcolepsy,modafinil should be taken as a daily dose:
A) in the morning, or as two divided doses in the morning and at noon.
B) in the mid-afternoon.
C) with the evening meal.
D) at bedtime.
Q3) Behaviour associated with ADD in children includes: A) forgetfulness.
B) daydreaming.
C) lack of interest.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 39: Opioid Analgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the equivalent dose of pethidine when compared with 10 mg of morphine?
A) 25-50 mg of pethidine
B) 50-75 mg of pethidine
C) 75-100 mg of pethidine
D) 100-125 mg of pethidine
Q2) When administering tramadol,it should not be given with drugs that:
A) affect coagulation.
B) affect blood vessel vasculature.
C) are largely metabolised renally.
D) increase seizure tendencies.
Q3) Somatic pain is defined as:
A) pain of sudden onset and short duration.
B) pain associated with the musculoskeletal system.
C) a reaction that avoids further tissue damage.
D) pain induced through remodelling of neural connections.
Q4) The opioid receptors most involved in mediating analgesia are:
A) delta and epsilon.
B) kappa and delta.
C) mu and epsilon.
D) mu and kappa.
Page 41
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which individuals may be more susceptible to paracetamol overdose? Why?
Q2) Which micronutrient should be supplemented with methotrexate use?
A) Folate
B) Thiamin
C) Riboflavin
D) Pyridoxine
Q3) Which enzyme is the target for inhibition by the NSAIDs?
A) Cyclo-oxygenase
B) Phospholipase A
C) Adenylate cyclase
D) 5-Lipoxygenase
Q4) The propionic acid derivatives ibuprofen and naproxen are useful for children suffering from inflammatory disease because they:
A) are not metabolised in the liver.
B) do not cause gastrointestinal problems.
C) are available as oral liquids so that the exact dose can be administered.
D) do not affect platelet aggregation.
Q5) Describe the effects of prostaglandins on inflammation and pain.
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Medicines Used to Treat Migraine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which substance enhances the absorption of ergotamine?
A) Apple juice
B) Sumatriptan
C) Dairy products
D) Caffeine
Q2) First-line therapy for an acute migraine attack includes:
A) triptans.
B) paracetamol.
C) ergotamine.
D) tricyclic antidepressants.
Q3) Analgesic agents that are effective in treating mild to moderate acute migraine headaches include:
A) ibuprofen and indomethacin.
B) aspirin and paracetamol.
C) piroxicam and sulindac.
D) propranolol and ketamine.
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Chapter 42: General Anaesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rate of absorption of inhaled anaesthetic into the bloodstream is dependent on the ________ of the gas.
A) rate of osmosis
B) partial pressure
C) volume
D) surfactant levels
Q2) Intrathecal administration of anaesthetic produces:
A) profound anaesthesia with a small dose.
B) a mild analgesic effect with a small dose.
C) analgesia via the nerve roots that communicate with the epidural space.
D) no analgesic effect; this route of administration is inappropriate to achieve analgesia.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of nitrous oxide as an inhalational anaesthetic?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Surgical procedures involving the middle ear
C) Tachycardia
D) Intestinal obstruction
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Chapter 43: Local Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following local anaesthetics has a relatively long duration of action?
A) Procaine
B) Lignocaine
C) Bupivacaine
D) Mepivacaine
Q2) Which of the following routes of administration has the highest rate of systemic absorption of local anaesthetic agents?
A) Epidural administration
B) Intercostal administration
C) Subcutaneous administration
D) Brachial plexus administration
Q3) The mechanism of action of the local anaesthetics is to impede the movement of which ion through its membrane channels?
A) Calcium
B) Potassium
C) Sodium
D) GABA
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Chapter 44: Medicines Used to Lower Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of hyperlipidaemia is characterized by high VLDL and hypertriglyceridaemia?
A) Type I
B) Type IIa
C) Type IIb
D) Type IV
Q2) An unwelcome but possibly benign effect of nicotinic acid treatment is:
A) petechiae.
B) constipation.
C) loose stools.
D) skin flushes and itching.
Q3) Long-term statin therapy has been linked to an increased incidence of: A) stroke.
B) heart disease.
C) cataract development.
D) Alzheimer's disease.
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Chapter 45: Antihypertensive Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hormone that affects blood pressure by facilitating an increased excretion of sodium and water is:
A) aldosterone.
B) ADH (vasopressin).
C) ANF.
D) oestrogen.
Q2) Which one of the following chemical mediators can alter blood pressure via vasoconstriction?
A) Prostacyclin
B) Endothelin-1
C) Nitric oxide
D) Prostaglandin E<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Which antihypertensive drug group should be avoided when a person has a pre-existing respiratory condition such as asthma?
A) Diuretics
B) Calcium channel antagonists
C) ACE inhibitors
D) -blockers
Q4) Describe the method of action of ACE inhibitors.
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Chapter 46: Medicines Used to Promote Tissue Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) To avoid tolerance associated with continuous use of nitrate patches,the patient should be advised to:
A) only apply the patches in the morning and evening.
B) only apply the patches when the angina symptoms become apparent.
C) have a nitrate-free period from the patches for about 12 hours each day.
D) only apply the patches at bedtime.
Q2) Nimodipine is a calcium channel blocker that:
A) is used widely in the management of angina.
B) is relatively selective for cerebral blood vessels.
C) increases cardiac workload.
D) is most beneficial when it is administered prophylactically.
Q3) The cardiac glycoside digoxin is also known as:
A) digitalis.
B) ACE.
C) carvedilol.
D) captopril.
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Chapter 47: Antithrombotic, Fibrinolytic and Haemostatic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The benefits of enoxaparin over heparin include that it:
A) is less likely to cause thrombocytopaenia and is more effective in reducing mortality and myocardial infarction in unstable angina.
B) has a longer half-life requiring less frequent monitoring and is safer in pregnancy.
C) A and B.
D) neither A nor B.
Q2) The antiplatelet agent abciximab is structurally related to
A) calcium channel blockers.
B) a bacterial enzyme.
C) the ADP receptor.
D) a vaccine.
Q3) What is the haemostatic agent used in colposcopy procedures?
A)Monsel's solution
B)Calcium alginate
C)Eltrombopag
D)Octocog alfa
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Chapter 48: Diuretics and Other Renal Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diuretic agents is not recommended to be given with an ACE inhibitor?
A) Chlorothiazide
B) Frusemide
C) Ethacrynic acid
D) Spironolactone
Q2) Metabolic imbalances associated with thiazides can be avoided by:
A) starting off with a small dose and titrating according to therapeutic response.
B) starting off with a high dose and gradually titrating according to therapeutic response.
C) administering the dose once a day.
D) administering the dose two times a day.
Q3) Which of these diuretics promotes potassium retention?
A) Spironolactone
B) Frusemide
C) Chlorothiazide
D) Ethacrynic acid
Q4) Explain why acidification of urine might be undertaken in individuals with urinary tract infections or urinary catheters.
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Chapter 49: Topic: Medicines Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the left side of the heart fails,what symptoms result?
A)Splenic congestion
B)Peripheral oedema
C)Pulmonary congestion
D)Hepatic congestion
Q2) Which one of the following is NOT a pathophysiological change associated with heart failure?
A) Increased myocardial oxygen demand
B) Myocardial remodelling
C) Decreased angiotensin II production
D) Decreased myocardial contractility
Q3) The current optimal drug therapy in the management of heart failure is:
A) the cardiac glycoside digoxin.
B) the dopamine agonist dobutamine.
C) a non-selective \(\beta\)-blocker.
D) an ACE inhibitor and a diuretic.
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Chapter 50: Medicines Used to Treat Cardiac Dysrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of a prodysrhythmic agent?
A)Fexofenadine
B)Clarithromycin
C)Haloperidol
D)All of the above
Q2) Atropine is especially useful in what sort of dysrhythmia?
A)Tachycardia
B)Bradycardia
C)Pre-ventricular contraction
D)AV conduction block
Q3) Which electrolyte is not responsible for maintaining a normal heart rhythm?
A)Calcium
B)Potassium
C)Sodium
D)Magnesium
Q4) Which of the following are mechanisms of action of the class I antidysrhythmics?
A)They have local anaesthesia properties.
B)They have a high affinity for blocking active sodium channels.
C)They affect phase four of the action potential.
D)All of the above.
52
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Chapter 51: Fluid and Potassium Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intravenous potassium should never be administered:
A) through a peripheral line.
B) through the subclavian vein.
C) as a bolus through the side arm of the intravenous line.
D) through the jugular vein.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a potential treatment of severe hyperkalaemia?
A)Peritoneal dialysis
B)Intravenous frusemide
C)Oral ion exchange resin
D)Intravenous glucose with insulin given concurrently
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an isotonic solution?
A) 4% glucose with 0.18% sodium chloride
B) 0.45% sodium chloride
C) 10% glucose
D) 25% mannitol
Q4) Mild hypokalaemia should be treated in what manner?
A)Dietary supplementation
B)Oral potassium supplementation
C)Slow-release oral potassium
D)Parenteral potassium
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Chapter 52: Antianaemic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which food is a natural source of folic acid?
A) Brussel sprouts
B) Chocolate
C) Limes
D) Barley
Q2) The form of erythropoietin for clinical use:
A) may induce a hypertensive state during therapy.
B) is extracted from human urine.
C) induces a rise in haemoglobin levels within two days of starting therapy.
D) contains iron supplements in order to facilitate haemoglobin production.
Q3) To reduce the gastric irritation associated with oral iron therapy,the person should be advised to take the preparation:
A) as a suppository.
B) with or immediately after meals.
C) at bedtime.
D) with an antacid.
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Chapter 53: Medicines Used to Maintain Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following antiasthma agents acts directly on intracellular cAMP levels?
A) Muscarinic antagonists
B) Methylxanthines
C) agonists
D) Leukotriene receptor antagonists
Q2) Which of the following actions will NOT reduce the effectiveness of acetylcysteine nebuliser solution used for the treatment of cystic fibrosis?
A) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and rubber
B) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and iron
C) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and copper
D) Diluting the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution with equal volumes of sodium chloride
0.9%
Q3) Drugs included in the class of leukotriene receptor antagonist include:
A)montelukast.
B)fexofenadine.
C)albuterol.
D) macular degeneration.
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55
Chapter 54: Medicines for Upper Respiratory Tract
Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which substances are responsible for the symptoms of upper respiratory illnesses?
A)Prostaglandins and mast cells
B)Prostaglandins and histamine
C)Antihistamines and mast cells
D)Antihistamines and leukotrienes
Q2) Nasal decongestants are contraindicated in patients taking:
A) antihistamines.
B) certain types of antidepressants.
C) antitussive agents.
D) salicylate preparations.
Q3) Cough suppressants should not be given to children under ________ years of age.
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2
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Chapter 55: Upper Gastrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are considered adjuncts to peptic ulcer therapy? Select all that apply.
A) Belladonna alkaloids
B) Glycopyrrolate
C) Alginates
D) Ibuprofen
Q2) The use of sodium bicarbonate alone as an antacid should be discouraged because it can:
A) exacerbate pre-existing hypertension.
B) lead to rebound acidosis.
C) lead to the development of kidney stones.
D) inactivate antimicrobial agents.
Q3) Once ingested,how does sucralfate work?
A) It neutralises stomach acid.
B) It slows gastric emptying.
C) It creates a paste-like substance to coat the gastric mucosa.
D) It affects the proton pump.
Q4) Explain how a hiatus hernia can cause gastric reflux.
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Chapter 56: Lower Castrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sodium dioctyl sulfosuccinate is often used as a stool softener in young children.What would you advise the parents of a child who has been given this preparation about when they can expect to see results?
A) Two days
B) One day
C) 12-24 hours
D) Less than six hours
Q2) In perianal disease,________ laxatives should be used to prevent straining.
A) stimulant
B) lubricant
C) bulk
D) softener
Q3) Sennosides are best administered:
A) at bedtime.
B) before lying down.
C) with meals.
D) in the recumbent position.
Q4) Outline the potential benefits of peppermint oil in the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome.
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Chapter 57: Antiemetic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most effective drug in treating severe nausea associated with chemotherapy?
A) Ondansetron
B) Prochlorperazine
C) Domperidone
D) Cisapride
Q2) Which of the following antiemetic agents requires the person to take appropriate measures to protect themselves from sunlight?
A) Prochlorperazine
B) Metoclopramide
C) Domperidone
D) Ondansetron
Q3) Which of the following antiemetics is a serotonin antagonist?
A) Dimenhydrinate
B) Metoclopramide
C) Ondansetron
D) Hyoscine
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Page 59
Chapter 58: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which vein might be used for parenteral nutrition?
A) Subclavian
B) Antecubital
C) Basilic
D) Cephalic
Q2) Which diagnostic tests should be performed regularly on a patient receiving parenteral nutrition? Select all that apply.
A) Electrolytes
B) Glucose
C) Creatinine
D) Cholesterol
Q3) Which of the following measures would not improve the management of diarrhoea during enteral feeding?
A) Select a feed with a high fat content.
B) Decrease the rate of feed.
C) Remove the feed from the refrigerator about half an hour before administration.
D) Administer an iso-osmolar feed rather than a hyperosmolar feed.
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Chapter 59: Medicines and the Pituitary Gland
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ergot alkaloids are used to treat prolactin hypersecretion.Their mechanism of action is to:
A) activate dopamine receptors in the pituitary.
B) inhibit prolactin-releasing hormone from the pituitary.
C) increase the production of growth hormone, which is produced by the same cells in the pituitary gland.
D) act on the nipples to desensitise them to stimulation.
Q2) Which one of the following statements about oxytocin is correct?
A) There are no clinical uses for oxytocin.
B) Oxytocin is believed to have strong serotonergic and \(\alpha\)-adrenergic activity.
C) The anterior pituitary lobe secretes oxytocin.
D) Oxytocin promotes breast milk let-down and facilitates placental delivery.
Q3) When using desmopressin for renal function testing,effectiveness of treatment is determined by:
A) measuring blood levels of antidiuretic hormone.
B) measuring blood levels of potassium.
C) monitoring fluid balance.
D) measuring urinary levels of sodium.
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Chapter 60: Medicines and the Thyroid
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following physiological responses is not associated with thyroid hormones?
A) The facilitation of normal musculoskeletal growth
B) Glucose storage in the liver
C) The normal development of the nervous system
D) Normal lactation
Q2) Generally,L-thyroxine is preferable to liothyronine as therapy in hypothyroid states because:
A) it has a longer duration of action.
B) it is less cardiotoxic.
C) levels are easier to monitor.
D) all of the above.
Q3) What purpose do \(\beta\)-blockers serve in treating thyroid disease?
A) They directly lower thyroid levels.
B) They are only used for well-controlled patients.
C) They are used to alleviate symptoms caused by adrenergic stimulation.
D) They have no clinical indication in treating thyroid disease.
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Chapter 61: Medicines and the Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ideal glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA<sub>1c</sub>)level is ________ per cent or less.
A) 7.0
B) 8.0
C) 9.0
D) 10.0
Q2) The pathophysiology of type 1 diabetes mellitus is associated with:
A) hyperinsulinaemia.
B) an autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
C) cellular insulin resistance
D) pregnancy.
Q3) Glycosylated haemoglobin level (HbA<sub>1c</sub>)is an indicator of:
A) insulin overdose.
B) normal growth in children with diabetes mellitus.
C) stress.
D) longer-term glycaemic control.
Q4) The majority of cases of diabetes mellitus are type 1.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 62: Medicines Affecting the Adrenal Cortex
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Q1) Which of the following corticosteroids is classified as an intermediate-acting agent?
A) Hydrocortisone
B) Dexamethasone
C) Prednisolone
D) Betamethasone
Q2) The glucocorticoids have a role in the therapy associated with:
A) diabetes mellitus.
B) osteoporosis.
C) hypovolaemic shock.
D) hypertension.
Q3) During spironolactone therapy,the blood levels of ________ should be monitored.
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) urea
D) calcium
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Chapter 63: Medicines and the Gonads
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Q1) Hormone replacement therapy comprising an oestrogen-progestogen combination for menopausal and postmenopausal women has been found to:
A) be inappropriate for the short-term relief associated with the clinical manifestations of the menopause.
B) lower the risk of cardiovascular disease in postmenopausal women.
C) reduce the relative risk of osteoporosis and colon cancer but increase the risk of breast cancer and thromboembolism for postmenopausal women receiving therapy.
D) be safer than the use of a selective oestrogen receptor modulator in the management of osteoporosis.
Q2) An adverse effect NOT associated with androgenic drug use is:
A) increased libido.
B) increased aggressiveness.
C) testicular hypertrophy.
D) liver disorders.
Q3) To ensure maximum efficacy for postcoital contraception,it needs to be administered within 12 hours of sexual intercourse.
A)True
B)False
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65
Chapter 64: Medicines and Bone Metabolism
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Q1) The mechanism of action of the bisphosphonates is to:
A) release calcium from bones.
B) inhibit bone breakdown and resorption.
C) increase the sensitivity of the calcium-sensing receptors on parathyroid gland cells.
D) raise the blood levels of oestrogen.
Q2) Describe the role of parathyroid hormone with regards to regulation of blood calcium levels.
Q3) Which factors play a role in calcium absorption in women? Select all that apply.
A) Minimal dietary calcium
B) Menopause
C) Vitamin D deficiency
D) Chronic kidney disease
E) Diabetes
Q4) Which finding would you expect to see with Paget's disease?
A)Hypocalcaemia
B)Hypercalcaemia
C) Decrease in osteoclasts
D)Hypervitaminosis D
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Chapter 65: Hyperuricaemia and Gout
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Q1) Which of the following tests is undertaken before using colchicine for gout prophylaxis?
A) A complete blood count
B) A liver function test
C) An electrocardiogram
D) An exercise tolerance test
Q2) Which one of the following drugs or drug groups acts to increase the excretion of uric acid?
A) The corticosteroids
B) Colchicine
C) Probenecid
D) Allopurinol
Q3) Colchicine has NSAID properties,but also has specific mechanisms including ________ to treat gout.
A) stimulating prostaglandin synthesis and secretion
B) disruption of leukocyte microtubule function, which inhibits cell migration to the site of inflammation
C) activation of xanthine oxidase
D) creating more acidic urine, which increases excretion of uric acid
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Page 67
Chapter 66: Obesity and Its Treatment
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Q1) Which of the following chemical mediators stimulates feeding?
A) Serotonin
B) Noradrenaline
C) Peptide YY
D) Neuropeptide Y
Q2) Stimulant anorectics are only recommended for short-term treatment of obesity for a period of up to ________ weeks.
A) 2
B) 6
C) 12
D) 24
Q3) Describe some nonpharmacological strategies for weight loss.
Q4) An overweight individual will have a BMI of:
A) 20-25.
B) 25-30.
C) 30-35
D) 35-40.
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Chapter 67: Introduction to Chemotherapy
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Q1) Which anti-infective agent would have the highest risk if used in pregnancy?
A) Selected penicillins
B) Nystatin
C) Amphotericin
D) Nitrofurantoin
Q2) An antimicrobial drug mechanism of action generally regarded as bacteriostatic is one that:
A) interferes with metabolic processes.
B) inhibits cell wall synthesis.
C) promotes protein synthesis.
D) disrupts cell membranes.
Q3) An example of an antibacterial agent that attacks the cell wall is:
A) nitrofurantoin.
B) tetracycline.
C) neomycin.
D) penicillin.
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69
Chapter 68: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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Sample Questions
Q1) During treatment with selected sulfonamides,a client may experience diarrhoea.This usually indicates:
A) a change in the balance of gut flora.
B) gastrointestinal tract bleeding.
C) drug crystallisation.
D) an allergic reaction.
Q2) What should a person be advised to do when taking sulfonamide therapy?
A) Ensure an adequate fluid intake.
B) Monitor folate status during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
C) Have a full blood examination during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
D) All of the above.
Q3) A premixed combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is called:
A) trimethoxazole.
B) co-trimoxazole.
C) sulphaprim.
D) blephamide.
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Chapter 69: Antibacterial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Quinolones are contraindicated in pregnant women and children for what reason?
A) They are ototoxic at small doses
B) They can permanently discolour teeth
C) They can damage developing joints permanently
D) They are only useful for Gram positive bacterium
Q2) Which one of the following antibacterial drug groups acts by inhibiting microbial cell wall synthesis?
A) Quinolones
B) Macrolides
C) Nitroimidazoles
D) Glycopeptide antibacterials
Q3) Which serious adverse effect is associated with long term use of nitrofurantoin?
A) Iridescent yellow urine
B) Drowsiness
C) Paraethesia
D) Gastrointestinal upset
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Chapter 70: Antituberculotic and Antileprotic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) An antituberculotic drug with a sterilising action is:
A) isoniazid.
B) ethambutol.
C) rifampicin.
D) gentamicin.
Q2) Which tests should be regularly undertaken during rifampicin therapy?
A) Monitor the full blood count and liver function during the course of therapy.
B) Monitor electrolyte levels and cardiac function during the course of therapy.
C) Monitor renal function and exercise tolerance during the course of therapy.
D) Monitor hearing and eye function during the course of therapy.
Q3) An unusual consequence of rifampicin antituberculotic therapy is that:
A) faeces turn black.
B) faeces turn white.
C) urine turns red.
D) urine turns bright yellow.
Q4) The most active agent for leprosy is:
A) dapsone.
B) rifampicin.
C) thalidomide.
D) streptomycin.
Page 72
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Chapter 71: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cetrimide inhibits bacterial growth because of its ________ properties.
A) detergent
B) oxidising
C) alkylating
D) reducing
Q2) An example of a sterilant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) ethylene oxide.
D) penicillin.
Q3) An example of an antiseptic is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
Q4) An example of a disinfectant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
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Chapter 72: Antiparasitic Agents
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Q1) Malaria can be caused by at least ________ species of Plasmodium.
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
Q2) A drug used to treat amoebiasis is:
A) vancomycin.
B) tinidazole.
C) lincosamide.
D) pyrantel.
Q3) Tapeworms are:
A) cestodes.
B) nematodes.
C) cathodes.
D) trematodes.
Q4) Which anthelmintic medication could also be classified as an antibiotic?
A) Ivermectin
B) Praziquantel
C) Tinidazole
D) Mefloquine
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Chapter 73: Antiviral Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The antiviral agents called neuraminidase inhibitors are useful in treating _________ infection.
A) HIV/AIDS
B) respiratory syncytial virus
C) herpes
D) influenza
Q2) Enteric-coated capsules of the reverse transcriptase inhibitor didanosine,which can inhibit the replication of the HIV virus,should be taken:
A) on an empty stomach about 30 minutes before food.
B) with the midday meal.
C) with a fatty meal.
D) with a glass of milk.
Q3) Which of the following reverse transcriptase inhibitors can cause pancreatitis?
A) Didanosine
B) Zidovudine
C) Delavirdine
D) Nevirapine
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Chapter 74: Antifungal Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tinea barbae affects the:
A) nails.
B) beard.
C) groin.
D) head.
Q2) Which are qualities of subcutaneous mycoses? Select all that apply.
A) It is most common in northern countries.
B) It can be grossly disfiguring.
C) It involves skin, fascia and bone.
D) It is caused by dermatophytes.
E) Is commonly referred to as candidiasis.
Q3) The antifungal amphotericin can be used:
A) topically, intravenously and in lozenge form.
B) intramuscularly, intrathecally and transdermally.
C) intramuscularly and intravenously.
D) topically and orally.
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Chapter 75: Immunomodulating Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ancestim,a colony stimulating factor,should not be given ________ hours before or after cytotoxic therapy dosing.
A) 6
B) 12
C) 24
D) 48
Q2) The current hepatitis A vaccine is:
A) an inactivated virus.
B) a recombinant virus.
C) a capsular antigen.
D) a surface antigen.
Q3) A patient is admitted with a snake bite from an unknown species.Which antivenom would be most useful?
A) A bivalent preparation
B) A trivalent preparation
C) A polyvalent preparation
D) No treatment can be given without identifying the snake
Q4) Describe the difference between the terms vaccination and immunisation.
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Chapter 76: Cytotoxic Chemotherapeutic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibiotic-type cytotoxic agents such as doxorubicin and dactinomycin should only be administered:
A) orally.
B) intrathecally.
C) subcutaneously.
D) intravenously.
Q2) Which is NOT an expected adverse effect of cytotoxic agents?
A) Alopecia
B) Weight gain
C) Nausea
D) Mucositis
Q3) Which of the following drug groups directly targets the intracellular cascade of reactions leading to proliferation and survival of cancerous cells?
A) S-phase inhibitors
B) Monoclonal antibodies
C) Radioactive samarium
D) Protein kinase inhibitors
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Chapter 77: Medicines Used in Diseases of the Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) SPF 15 sunscreens block about:
A) 94 per cent of UVB light, and allow for 6 per cent penetration.
B) 95 per cent of UVB light, and allow for 5 per cent penetration.
C) 96 per cent of UVB light, and allow for 4 per cent penetration.
D) 97 per cent of UVB light, and allow for 3 per cent penetration.
Q2) Women of childbearing age should take which precaution with isotretinoin treatment?
A) Avoid sunscreen use.
B) Monitor iron levels.
C) Supplement with folate.
D) Ensure adequate contraception.
Q3) Botulinum toxin is indicated in the treatment of which skin disorder?
A) Hyperhidrosis
B) Rosacea
C) Eczema
D) Psoriasis
Q4) Discuss the effects of UV rays on the skin.
Q5) Dandruff can be caused in part by a fungal infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 78: Medicines and the Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cycloplegia is a side effect of some ophthalmic drug treatments.It is defined as:
A) poor near vision.
B) pupil dilation.
C) pupil constriction.
D) an incomplete closure of the eyelids.
Q2) Trachoma is associated with:
A) a chlamydial eye infection.
B) an impairment of aqueous humour drainage.
C) a form of cancer that affects the eyeball.
D) an ingrowing eyelash.
Q3) Visual accommodation results from:
A) sympathetic stimulation of the iris.
B) parasympathetic stimulation of the ciliary processes.
C) sympathetic stimulation of the lacrimal apparatus.
D) parasympathetic stimulation of the ciliary muscle.
Q4) Describe the pathophysiology of glaucoma.
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Chapter 79: Herbal Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which herbal medicine should be avoided in people with schizophrenia?
A) Evening primrose
B) Aloe vera
C) Echinacea
D) Garlic
Q2) Which patient should avoid consuming therapeutic amounts of garlic?
A) Pregnant patients
B) Patients with untreated hyperglycaemia
C) Patients taking paracetamol
D) Patient with hypertension
Q3) Prolonged use of zinc may lead to:
A) hepatolenticular degeneration.
B) hyperthyroidism.
C) hypertension.
D) copper deficiency and anaemia.
Q4) Valerian has been shown to have significant effects on:
A) sleep.
B) libido.
C) depression.
D) tachycardia.
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