Chapter 1: Pharmacology Within the Social Context
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Q1) The generic name of a medication is:
A) the name given by the biochemical scientist who invented the medication.
B) the name given to the pharmaceutical company that manufactures the medication.
C) the chemical name of the medication.
D) the shortened, simplified version of the chemical name.
Answer: D
Q2) The Macusi Indians of Guyana have a place in the history of pharmacology as the first users of which type of drug?
A) A hallucinogenic agent related to LSD.
B) A narcotic analgesic.
C) A skeletal muscle relaxant.
D) A central nervous system stimulant.
Answer: C
Q3) The use of a contraindicated medicine may have the following effect(s) except A) safely curing the disorder.
B) exacerbating the disorder.
C) causing allergic reaction.
D) causing toxic reaction.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Pharmacology Within the Profesional Context
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Q1) What is the meaning of the term 'not-for-resuscitation (NFR) order'?
A) The client will not be resuscitated by health care professionals if he/she suffers a cardiac or respiratory arrest.
B) The client will not receive admission to the intensive care unit.
C) The client will not receive full nursing care.
D) The client will not receive ventilatory and inotropic support.
Answer: A
Q2) In Victoria, midwives employed in hospitals are permitted to initiate administration of up to two pethidine injections to a woman in labour without a doctor's order.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) After giving a verbal order the doctor must:
A) confirm the verbal order in writing within 48 hours.
B) confirm the verbal order in writing within 24 hours.
C) ensure that the medication is administered by the nurse.
D) ensure that a doctor has co-signed the verbal order.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Medicine Administration and Professional
Responsibilities
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Q1) Administering enteric-coated medications via a NGT (nasogastric tube) is:
A) usually alright if a large flush of water is given afterwards.
B) not advisable as medications via NGT need to be crushed.
C) standard practice.
D) acceptable as long as the crushed tablet is not mixed with other medications.
Answer: B
Q2) What is the mainstay of treatment for anaphylactic shock?
A) Hydrocortisone.
B) Adrenaline.
C) Salbutamol.
D) Promethazine.
Answer: B
Q3) Which drug is the most common cause of an anaphylactic reaction?
A) Aspirin.
B) Contrast media.
C) Penicillin.
D) Transfused blood.
Answer: C
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Chapter 5: To Xicology
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Q1) A key aspect of client assessment in the management of poisoning is:
A) maintaining respiration.
B) administering a cathartic agent.
C) determining the time of poisoning.
D) administering an antidote.
Q2) Thioridazine is contraindicated with medications that:
A) have a high allergenic potential.
B) depress the central nervous system.
C) prolong the Q-T interval of the cardiac cycle.
D) cause vasoconstriction of arteries.
Q3) The effects of excessive stimulation of cholinergic nicotinic receptors include: nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, sweating, drooling, bradycardia and miosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements about caffeine is correct?
A) Caffeine is a very safe drug.
B) Caffeine can be ulcerogenic and exacerbates peptic ulcers.
C) Caffeine has agonistic action on the adenosine receptors.
D) Caffeine has an excitatory action on the enzyme phosphodiesterase.
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Chapter 6: Autonomic Pharmacology
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Q1) When administering an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, the nurse should be aware of the possibility of a cholinergic crisis (overdose). The symptoms include which of the following:
A) muscle twitching, diarrhoea and dry mouth.
B) convulsions, dry mouth and constipation.
C) muscle twitching, cardiac dysrhythmias, constipation and dry mouth.
D) muscle weakness, increased salivation and diarrhoea.
Q2) A neuromodulator that promotes vasodilation in the kidneys is:
A) dopamine.
B) vasoactive intestinal peptide.
C) neuropeptide Y.
D) nitric oxide.
Q3) Generally, 'first messengers' are the chemicals to make contact with a cell's receptor first. Which of the following are first messengers?
A) Hormones.
B) Neurotransmitters.
C) A and B.
D) Neither A or B.
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Chapter 7: Chemical Mediators
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Q1) H<sub>1</sub> antihistamines are useful in the management of:
A) peptic ulcers.
B) travel sickness.
C) moderately severe pain.
D) clotting disorders.
Q2) The general actions of prostaglandins include the following except:
A) inhibition of gastric secretion.
B) stimulation of pancreatic and small intestinal secretions.
C) sensitisation of nerve endings, causing pain.
D) inhibition of release of anterior pituitary hormones .
Q3) The key difference between the first and second generation antihistamines is that:
A) with second generation antihistamines, lower dosages are required for the same therapeutic effect.
B) second generation medications have more undesirable side effects.
C) the first generation antihistamines are more lipophilic and therefore cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB) causing central nervous system effects.
D) the first generation antihistamines are more lipophobic and therefore cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB) causing central nervous system effects.
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Chapter 8: The Modulat Ion of Behaviour, Cognition and Motor Activity
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Q1) The transmitter associated with emesis is:
A) Dopamine.
B) Serotonin.
C) Noradrenaline.
D) Acetylcholine.
Q2) Which one of the following anxiolytic/sedative drugs can directly activate GABA receptors, even in the absence of GABA itself?
A) Benzodiazepines.
B) Buspirone.
C) Barbiturates.
D) Dexmedetomidine.
Q3) The psychological disorder characterised by persistent thoughts and repetitive, ritualistic behaviours is called:
A) endogenous depression.
B) panic disorder.
C) mania.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
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Chapter 10: The Modulat Ion of Oxygenat Ion and Perfusion
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Q1) Which of the following actions will not reduce the effectiveness of acetylcysteine nebuliser solution used for the treatment of cystic fibrosis?
A) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and rubber.
B) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and iron.
C) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and copper.
D) Diluting the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution with equal volumes of sodium chloride 0.9%.
Q2) If a second dose of diuretic is required, this is usually administered:
A) mid-morning.
B) midday or early afternoon
C) early evening.
D) at bedtime.
Q3) Which of the following antihypertensive agents should be avoided in a person with depression?
A) Calcium channel blockers.
B) Centrally acting agents.
C) Angiotensin II antagonists.
D) ACE inhibitors.
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Chapter 11: The Modulation of Gastrointestinal Function
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Q1) Which of the following antiemetic agents may cause extrapyramidal side effects?
A) Prochlorperazine.
B) Domperidone.
C) Ondansetron.
D) Dolasetron.
Q2) The two main types of treatment for inflammatory bowel disease are:
A) antispasmodics and anti-inflammatories.
B) immunosuppressants and opioids.
C) opioids and antispasmodics.
D) anti-inflammatories and immunosuppressants.
Q3) The coating of the gastric mucosa to protect it from acid and pepsin can be achieved with the use of:
A) cimetidine.
B) sucralfate.
C) misoprostol.
D) omeprazole.
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Chapter 13: Nutritional and Natural Therapies
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Q1) Which of the following vitamins is useful in the treatment of some hyperlipidaemias?
A) Niacin.
B) Niacinamide.
C) Nicotinamide.
D) Pyridoxine.
Q2) Which of the following actions will not improve the management of regurgitation during enteral feeding?
A) Lower the head of the client's bed.
B) Avoid the use of hyperosmolar feeds.
C) Insert a fine-bore enteric tube.
D) Slow down the rate of infusion.
Q3) Red clover should be avoided in individuals with:
A) asthma.
B) breast cancer.
C) epilepsy.
D) clotting deficiency.
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Chapter 14: The Modulation of Celullar Growth and Proliferation
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Q1) Somatic gene therapy is regarded as:
A) ethically unacceptable in most countries.
B) a form of selective breeding.
C) a form of therapy where genes are inserted into body cells rather than sex cells.
D) a means to treat the next generation in a family affected by a severe hereditary disease.
Q2) Which one of the following is not a common adverse effect of treatment with penicillin?
A) Photosensitivity.
B) Nausea or vomiting.
C) Oedema.
D) The appearance of a rash or urticaria.
Q3) Tinea barbae affects the:
A) nails.
B) beard.
C) groin.
D) head.
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Chapter 15: Medicines Used Topically
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Q1) Acne rosacea is best treated with topical:
A) erythromycin.
B) clindamycin.
C) metronidazole.
D) clotrimazole.
Q2) One effect of parasympathetic stimulation of the eye is:
A) pupil dilation.
B) vasodilation.
C) relaxation for far vision.
D) increased production of aqueous humour.
Q3) Which drug is absolutely prohibited in pregnancy?
A) Tetracycline.
B) Azelaic acid.
C) Metronidazole.
D) Isotretinoin.
Q4) Which one of the following drugs is used as an ocular astringent?
A) Polyvinyl alcohol.
B) Zinc sulphate.
C) Chlorhexidine acetate.
D) Rose bengal.
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