Pharmacology in Dentistry
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Pharmacology in Dentistry provides an in-depth exploration of the principles and applications of pharmacological agents commonly used in dental practice. This course covers the mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, adverse effects, and interactions of drugs relevant to dental treatment, including analgesics, local anesthetics, antibiotics, antifungals, antivirals, and drugs affecting the cardiovascular and central nervous systems. Emphasis is placed on safe and effective drug prescribing, recognition of drug-related complications, and managing medically compromised patients. Through case studies and clinical scenarios, students learn to integrate pharmacological knowledge into comprehensive dental care, ensuring improved patient outcomes and safety.
Recommended Textbook
Applied Pharmacology for the Dental Hygienist 8th Edition by Elena Bablenis Haveles
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26 Chapters
1191 Verified Questions
1191 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Information Sources, Regulatory Agencies, Drug
Legislation, and Prescription Writing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The federal body that determines whether a drug is considered a controlled substance and to which schedule it belongs is the
A)Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
B)Federal Trade Commission (FTC).
C)Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA).
D)U.S.Pharmacopeia (USP).
Answer: C
Q2) What would be an advantage for a dentist to call the pharmacy with a prescription for Tylenol #3 rather than hydrocodone for a patient who calls late at night requesting medication for pain following root canal therapy?
A)Tylenol #3 is available over-the-counter and does not require a prescription.
B)Tylenol #3 is a not a controlled substance and hydrocodone is a controlled substance.
C)A prescription for Tylenol #3 (Schedule III)may be telephoned,whereas hydrocodone (Schedule II)requires a written prescription.
D)Tylenol #3 has greater potency than hydrocodone.
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Drug Action and Handling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that are weak electrolytes will cross body membranes best when they are (1)nonionized, (2)ionized, (3)polar, (4)nonpolar, (5)lipid soluble, (6)water soluble.
A)1,3,5
B)1,3,6
C)1,4,5
D)1,4,6
E)2,4,5
Answer: C
Q2) One dose of a drug is administered that has a half-life of 8 hours.Assuming first-order kinetics,how much time is needed for this drug to be over 96% eliminated from the body?
A)8 hours
B)40 hours
C)60 hours
D)120 hours
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Adverse Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type _____ hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE antibodies.
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
Answer: A
Q2) An acute,life-threatening allergic reaction characterized by hypotension,bronchospasm,laryngeal edema,and cardiac arrhythmias is what type of hypersensitivity?
A)Type I
B)Type II
C)Type III
D)Type IV
Answer: A
Q3) Tetracycline,nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs),and the benzodiazepines are safe to administer to a pregnant patient.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Autonomic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The S in SLUD stands for A)sympathetic.
B)salivation.
C)severe.
D)secretion.
Q2) In the autonomic nervous system (ANS),the target organ is innervated by the _____ neuron.
A)preganglionic afferent
B)preganglionic efferent
C)postganglionic afferent
D)postganglionic efferent
Q3) Which type of autonomic drug is useful to prepare a patient for an ophthalmologic examination?
A)Cholinergic agent
B)Anticholinergic agent
C)Adrenergic agent
D)Adrenergic blocking agent
Q4) Pathways innervating smooth muscles and glands are considered afferent pathways.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Nonopioid Non-Narcoticanalgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mechanism of action of nonopioid analgesics is due to
A)depression of the central nervous system (CNS).
B)decrease in the pain threshold.
C)inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis.
D)stimulation of synthesis of prostaglandins.
Q2) Oral administration with _____ is indicated only as continuation to intravenous (IV)or intramuscular (IM)therapy.
A)fenoprofen
B)ketorolac
C)naproxen sodium
D)diflunisal
Q3) Which of the following is the most common side effect from aspirin?
A)Gastrointestinal effects
B)Bleeding
C)Hepatic and renal effects
D)Hypersensitivity
Q4) Salicylism is a toxic effect from acetaminophen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Opioid Narcoticanalgesics and Antagonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tylenol #3 contains _____ mg of codeine.
A)7.5
B)15
C)30
D)60
Q2) Tolerance occurs to the following effects of the opioids except which one?
A)Miosis
B)Analgesia
C)Respiratory depression
D)Nausea
E)Histamine release
Q3) Which of the following agents is a potent,short-acting,parenterally administered opioid that is commonly used during general anesthesia?
A)Dynorphin
B)Hydromorphone
C)Nalmefene
D)Fentanyl
E)Tramadol
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8
Chapter 7: Antiinfective Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient requires premedication with antibiotics before a dental procedure and he or she is allergic to penicillins or ampicillin but can take oral medication,the drug of choice is
A)tetracycline.
B)metronidazole.
C)cephalexin.
D)amoxicillin.
Q2) Which of the following combinations of three drugs are administered concurrently in active cases of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB)?
A)Pyrazinamide (PZA),rifapentine,and Rifater
B)Isoniazid (INH),rifampin,and pyrazinamide
C)Ethambutol,isoniazid (INH),and Rifater
D)Rifampin,PZA,and streptomycin
Q3) Rupture of the Achilles tendon is associated with the use of A)tetracyclines.
B)quinolones.
C)rifampin.
D)mupirocin.
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9
Chapter 8: Antifungal and Antiviral Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are antifungal agents that are useful in dentistry except A)miconazole.
B)docosanol.
C)clotrimazole.
D)ketoconazole.
Q2) Which of the following two types of hepatitis account for almost two-thirds of all cases of hepatitis?
A)A and B
B)A and C
C)B and C
D)C and D
Q3) Which of the following is not an imidazole?
A)Clotrimazole
B)Ketoconazole
C)Fluconazole
D)Nystatin
Q4) No acyclovir products are approved for the treatment of recurrent herpes labialis in the immunocompetent patient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rate of local anesthetic absorption is increased by the presence of local inflammation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Plain anesthetics without vasoconstrictor will exhibit a _____ duration of action and result in a _____ rapid buildup of a systemic blood level.
A)shorter;less
B)shorter;more
C)longer;less
D)longer;more
Q3) Lidocaine with epinephrine 1:100,000 provides a _____ duration of pulpal anesthesia.
A)30-minute
B)30- to 60-minute
C)60- to 90-minute
D)90-minute or more
Q4) Levonordefrin is more potent than epinephrine.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best indicator of the degree of sedation under nitrous oxide is
A)response to a painful stimulus.
B)percent nitrous oxide being delivered.
C)response to questions.
D)muscle tone.
E)eye movements.
Q2) Which of the following are types of intravenous general anesthetics? (Select all that apply. )
A)Opioids
B)Enflurane
C)Etomidate
D)Isoflurane
E)Propofol
Q3) Which of the following intravenous general anesthetic agents can be administered intramuscularly (IM)?
A)Methohexital (Brevital)
B)Ketamine (Ketalar)
C)Diazepam (Valium)
D)Propofol (Diprivan)
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Antianxiety Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ may be used to reverse some of the effects of a benzodiazepine.
A)Ramelteon (Rozerem)
B)Phenobarbital (Luminal)
C)Flumazenil (Romazicon)
D)Carisoprodol (Soma)
Q2) Some benzodiazepines are transformed in the body to active metabolites.The active metabolites are formed by phase II drug metabolism.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)The first statement is true,the second is false.
D)The first statement is false,the second is true.
Q3) Which is best for all types of anxiety and muscle strain?
A)Barbiturates
B)Meprobamate
C)Benzodiazepines
D)Placebo
Q4) Sedatives potentiate analgesic agents.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Drugs for the Treatment of Cardiovascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following categories of agents may be used to treat both hypertension and benign prostatic hypertrophy?
A)Diuretic agents
B)b-Adrenergic blocking agents
C)A -Adrenergic blocking agents
D)Calcium channel blocking agents
Q2) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)are a treatment of choice for congestive heart failure (CHF).
A)True
B)False
Q3) b-Adrenergic blockers lower blood pressure primarily by
A)reducing peripheral resistance.
B)decreasing cardiac output.
C)lowering plasma volume.
D)lowering plasma renin levels.
Q4) There is a danger of _____ if the dose of anticoagulant is too small.
A)embolism
B)hemorrhage
C)chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D)angina
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Chapter 13: Drugs for the Treatment of Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which agent inhibits the hydrogen/potassium adenosine triphosphate (H /K ATPase)enzyme system found at the surface of the gastric parietal cell?
A)Ketoconazole
B)Lansoprazole
C)Misoprostol
D)Famotidine
E)Metronidazole
Q2) Newer types of combination therapy for treating ulcers often combine an antibiotic with a(n)
A)hyperosmotic laxative.
B)proton-pump inhibitor.
C)antacid.
D)prostaglandin.
Q3) Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)may be useful in treating ulcers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Antacids are the best treatment for peptic ulcers.
A)True
B)False
15
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Chapter 14: Drugs for the Treatment of Seizure Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fetal hydantoin syndrome is associated with maternal ingestion of A)carbamazepine.
B)phenobarbital.
C)phenytoin.
D)gabapentin.
Q2) Which of the following seizures are categorized as generalized seizures?
A)Absence seizures
B)Simple (Jacksonian)seizures
C)Tonic-clonic seizures
D)Both A and C
E)Both B and C
Q3) Lamotrigine is an effective treatment for myoclonic seizures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Valproate is associated with toxicity of which of the following organs?
A)Heart
B)Kidney
C)Liver
D)Pancreas
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Chapter 15: Drugs for the Treatment of Central Nervous
System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) SSRIs tend to produce CNS stimulation rather than CNS depression.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)is a site of action for prochlorperazine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which antidepressant is associated with priapism?
A)Bupropion
B)Tricyclic antidepressants
C)Trazodone
D)Nefazodone
E)Mirtazapine
Q4) Second-generation antipsychotics have fewer side effects than first-generation antipsychotics.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Intractable hiccups have been successfully treated with first-generation antipsychotics.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Adrenocorticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) When does the maximal secretion of hydrocortisone (cortisol)occur in the body?
A)Between 12 PM and 2 PM
B)Between 9 AM and 12 AM
C)Between 4 AM and 8 AM
D)Between 7 AM and 10 AM
Q2) ACTH is secreted from the _____ in response to _____.
A)hypothalamus;stress
B)adrenal cortex;corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
C)adrenal cortex;stress
D)hypothalamus;hydrocortisone
E)pituitary gland;CRH
Q3) Each of the following will be reduced by glucocorticoid excess except one.Which is the exception?
A)Secretion of growth hormone
B)Bone formation
C)Linear growth
D)Insulin resistance
E)Visceral obesity
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Chapter 17: Drugs for the Treatment of Respiratory
Disorders and Allergic Rhinitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Albuterol is a bronchodilator that can be administered via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI).It is recommended in prophylactically treating (preventing)chronic asthma.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
D)The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
Q2) Which type of drug is used in conjunction with low-dose corticosteroids to treat patients with persistent asthma that is not well controlled with low-dose inhaled corticosteroids?
A)Corticosteroids
B)Leukotriene modifiers
C)Long-acting -agonists
D)Mast cell degranulation inhibitors
E)Anti-interleukin-5 antibodies
Q3) Sedation with antihistamines is additive with that caused by other CNS depressant drugs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Drugs for the Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is considered first-line therapy for a patient with type 2 diabetes?
A)Diet and exercise
B)Glucagon
C)Oral antidiabetic agents
D)Insulin
Q2) Exenatide (Byetta)is the first of a new class of drugs called
A)incretin mimetics.
B)oral hypoglycemic agents.
C)euglycemic agents.
D)oral antidiabetic agents.
Q3) Acarbose (Precose)slows the breakdown of ingested carbohydrates so that postprandial hyperglycemia is reduced.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Diabetic gastroparesis can be treated with A)amitriptyline.
B)carbamazepine.
C)ranitidine.
D)metoclopramide.
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Chapter 19: Drugs for the Treatment of Other Endocrine Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug is used to treat symptoms of menopause and postmenopausal osteoporosis?
A)Clomiphene
B)Leuprolide
C)Tamoxifen
D)Danazol
E)Raloxifene
Q2) Hormonal contraceptives have the potential to cause or aggravate gingival inflammation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Synthetics analogs of vasopressin,a posterior pituitary hormone,may be used to treat diabetes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The medical use of bromocriptine (Parlodel)is to
A)stimulate pituitary function.
B)inhibit pituitary function.
C)stimulate thyroid function.
D)inhibit thyroid function.
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Chapter 20: Antineoplastic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phase of the cell cycle before mitosis and after the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)synthesis phase is
A)G .
B)M.
C)G .
D)S.
E)G .
Q2) The most serious difficulty in antineoplastic therapy occurs due to a lack of selectivity between tumor tissue and normal tissue.Some normal cells have a faster cell cycle than slowly growing tumor cells.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)The first statement is true,the second is false.
D)The first statement is false,the second is true.
Q3) The dental health care worker should not recommend any products containing alcohol to patients taking antineoplastic agents because antineoplastic agents produce a disulfiram reaction.
A)True
B)False
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Emergency Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following signs is the most common emergency in the dental office?
A)Acute airway obstruction
B)Syncope
C)Hypoglycemia
D)Diabetic coma
Q2) Which of the following emergency drugs is used to manage hypoglycemia in a patient with diabetes?
A)Diphenhydramine
B)Nitroglycerin
C)Albuterol
D)Glucose
Q3) Which of the following represents the correct sequence for managing an emergency according to the American Heart Association: A = Airway,B = Breathing,C = Chest compression?
A)A,B,C
B)A,C,B
C)B,A,C
D)B,C,A
E)C,A,B
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Pregnancy and Breast Feeding
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Q1) Which of the following adverse effects is associated with smoking?
A)Neonatal dependence
B)Intrauterine growth retardation,sudden infant death syndrome
C)Abnormal development patterns,neonatal withdrawal syndrome
D)Increased spontaneous abortion,premature labor,abnormal development,decreased school performance
Q2) Aspirin is generally considered to be the best analgesic to administer during pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following opioids has been associated with teratogenicity?
A)Morphine
B)Codeine
C)Lomotil
D)Methadone
Q4) Although opioids appear in breast milk when analgesic doses are administered,the small amounts appear have an insignificant effect on the nursing infant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Substance Use Disorders
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Q1) Abuse is the use of a drug for a disease state in a way considered inappropriate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The triad of narcotic overdose is
A)respiratory depression,pinpoint pupils,and coma.
B)hyperactive behavior,dilated pupils,and cardiac arrhythmias.
C)elevated blood pressure,blank stare,and rigidity.
D)respiratory depression,cardiac depression,and sleep.
Q3) Which of the following drugs may be used to reduce alcohol craving?
A)Metronidazole
B)Naltrexone
C)Chlordiazepoxide
D)Vitamin K
Q4) Abuse of _____ is the number one public health problem in the United States.
A)opioids
B)stimulants
C)alcohol
D)hallucinogens
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25
Chapter 24: Naturalherbal Products and Dietary Supplements
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Q1) Each of the following is true of the FDA Food Safety and Modernization Act of 2010 EXCEPT one.Which is the EXCEPTION?
A)It provides the FDA with mandatory recall authority for all foods.
B)It requires the FDA to issue New Dietary Ingredients guidance.
C)It expands the facility registration obligations.
D)It requires the manufacturer to prove that an herbal product is safe and effective.
Q2) Which herbal supplement products have been proven effective in protecting against plaque and gingivitis?
A)Acemannan hydrogel (extract of aloe vera)
B)Essential oil mouth rinse
C)Oil of cloves (eugenol)
D)Triclosan
E)Xylitol
F)B and D only
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26
Chapter 25: Oral Conditions and Their Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antiviral agent is available without a prescription?
A)Acyclovir
B)Valacyclovir
C)Penciclovir
D)Docosanol
E)Famciclovir
Q2) Antibiotics should be considered for the treatment of ANUG
A)for all patients.
B)for all adult patients but not for children.
C)only if the patient is running a fever.
D)only if the patient is immunocompromised or if evidence of systemic involvement exists.
Q3) Each of the following is a method of treatment for xerostomia except one.Which is the exception?
A)Change the medication or reduce the dose.
B)Prescribe an anticholinergic agent to stimulate an increase in saliva.
C)Prescribe artificial saliva.
D)Use fluoride trays and gels to counteract the formation of caries.
E)Use water or sugarless gum instead of gums,hard candies,and beverages containing sugar.
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Chapter 26: Hygiene-Related Oral Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true concerning guidelines for the proper use of dental floss?
A)The patient should pull out approximately 8 inches of floss from its container.
B)Most of the floss should be wrapped around the middle fingers until approximately 1 inch of floss remains visible.
C)Use a gentle gliding motion and place the floss between two teeth but do not encroach on the gum line.
D)Keep the floss taut and do not let it curve into a C-shaped curve against either tooth that forms the contact.
Q2) Food _____ are less cariogenic.
A)with lower water content
B)that stimulates saliva flow
C)high in protein
D)Both A and B are correct.
E)Both B and C are correct.
Q3) Approximately 40% of the general population has experienced dental caries.
A)True
B)False
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