Pharmacology for Respiratory Therapists
Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides respiratory therapy students with a comprehensive overview of pharmacological principles and their specific applications in respiratory care. Topics include drug classifications, mechanisms of action, routes of administration, dosage calculations, and pharmacokinetics with an emphasis on medications used in the treatment of pulmonary diseases. Students will develop an understanding of how various drugs affect the respiratory system, focusing on bronchodilators, corticosteroids, mucolytics, and other critical medications. The course also explores potential side effects, drug interactions, and the therapists role in medication monitoring and patient education, preparing students for safe and effective pharmacologic intervention in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Raus Respiratory Care Pharmacology 9th Edition by Douglas S. Gardenhire
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23 Chapters
730 Verified Questions
730 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Respiratory Care Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a drug is ordered with the Latin abbreviation qid,it should be administered
A)every hour.
B)four times daily.
C)every other day.
D)every 4 hours.
Answer: B
Q2) If drug A is ordered with the Latin abbreviation q4h and drug B is ordered with the Latin abbreviation qid,which drug would be given more frequently in a 24-hour period?
A)Drug A
B)Drug B
C)Both would be given the same amount.
D)More information is needed to answer the question.
Answer: A
Q3) The identification of sources of drugs from plants and animals
A)Toxicity
B)Therapeutics
C)Pharmacognosy
D)Pharmacology
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Principles of Drug Action
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which phase of drug action is a drug made available to the body?
A)Administration
B)Pharmacokinetic
C)Pharmacodynamic
D)Pharmacogenetic
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following organs is considered the primary site of drug excretion?
A)Kidney
B)Liver
C)Small intestine
D)Stomach
Answer: A
Q3) A measure of how quickly a drug is eliminated from the body is known as the A)TI.
B)V<sub>D</sub>.
C)L/T ratio.
D)T<sub>1/2</sub>.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Administration of Aerosolized Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physician has granted your request to change a patient from a small volume nebulizer (SVN)to a metered dose inhaler (MDI)for administration of albuterol.The dose via SVN was 2.5 mg of drug.What is the equivalent dose via MDI to administer to your patient?
A)1 puff
B)2 puffs
C)3 puffs
D)4 puffs
Answer: B
Q2) You are teaching proper use of a metered dose inhaler (MDI)to an elderly man who is having trouble coordinating actuation of the device with an inspiratory effort.What suggestion(s)would you make to help him with his problem?
A)Suggest adding a reservoir device
B)Suggest that if he cannot effectively use the MDI,he may need to switch to an SVN
C)Both A and B
D)Neither A nor B
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Calculating Drug Doses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physician orders 3 mL of 0.83% albuterol.How many milligrams of medication would you administer?
A)25 mg
B)0.25 mg
C)2.5 mg
D)5 mg
Q2) Which of the following Latin prefixes means 1/100?
A)Micro
B)Milli
C)Centi
D)Deci
Q3) Which of the following Latin prefixes means 1/1,000,000?
A)Micro
B)Milli
C)Centi
D)Deci
Q4) Which of the following metric system terms is associated with length?
A)Meter
B)Liter
C)Gram
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Chapter 5: Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are treating an asthmatic who also happens to be taking propranolol (a \(\beta\)blocker)for a history of cardiac arrhythmias.What type of effect would you expect albuterol to have on this patient?
A)Antagonistic effect
B)Synergistic effect
C)Little or no effect
D)Additive effect
Q2) A parasympathetic effect is generally the same as which of the following?
A)Antimuscarinic effect
B)Muscarinic effect
C)Parasympatholytic effect
D)Anticholinergic effect
Q3) A direct-acting cholinergic agent often used in bronchial challenge tests to assess the degree of airway activity is
A)edrophonium.
B)methacholine.
C)neostigmine.
D)phospholine.
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Chapter 6: Adrenergic Sympathomimeticbronchodilators
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the generic name of Arcapta Neohaler?
A)Proventil HFA
B)ProAir HFA
C)Indacaterol
D)Arformoterol
Q2) Your patient is receiving continuous albuterol treatment for an acute exacerbation of her asthma.What would you monitor during her treatment?
1)The patient's subjective reaction to treatment
2)The patient's heart rate
3)The patient's pulse oximeter saturation
4)Laboratory values (CBC)
A)1 and 2 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)2,3,and 4 only
D)1,2,3,and 4
Q3) The dosage and route for arformoterol is
A)5 to 8 mg PO.
B)2.5 mg tid via nebulization.
C)15 \(\mu\)g bid via nebulization.
D)90 \(\mu\)g tid via MDI.
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Chapter 7: Anticholinergic
Parasympatholyticbronchodilators
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients using ipratropium aerosols should be instructed to avoid allowing the aerosol to come in contact with their A)hair.
B)nose.
C)eyes.
D)ears.
Q2) Which of the following is the generic name for Spiriva?
A)Aclidinium bromide
B)Tiotropium bromide
C)Ipratropium bromide
D)Umeclidinium bromide
Q3) Which of the following patient populations may benefit from anticholinergic agents?
A)Patients experiencing acute,severe episodes of asthma not responding well to \(\beta\) agonists
B)Patients with psychogenic asthma
C)Patients with nocturnal asthma
D)All of the above
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Chapter 8: Xanthines
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Sample Questions
Q1) While working a shift in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU),you observe a patient receiving caffeine citrate.What is the patient's likely diagnosis?
A)Supraventricular tachycardia
B)Hypotension
C)Apnea of prematurity
D)Infection
Q2) Which of the following are possible theories explaining how theophylline works?
1)Inhibits phosphodiesterase
2)Blocks acetylcholine
3)Blocks adenosine
4)Produces catecholamines
5)None of the above
A)1,2,and 3 only
B)1,3,and 4 only
C)1,2,3,and 4 only
D)5 only
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Chapter 9: Mucus-Controlling Drug Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structures are responsible for providing most mucus secretions?
A)Surface epithelial cells
B)Goblet cells
C)Cilia
D)Submucosal glands
Q2) How does N-acetyl cysteine (NAC)work?
A)Adds water content to respiratory secretions
B)Substitutes sulfhydryl radicals for disulfide bonds in mucus
C)Breaks down DNA content in sputum
D)Increases mucociliary beat frequency
Q3) Medications that increase mucociliary or cough efficiency are
A)mucokinetics.
B)mucolytics.
C)mucoregulatory agents.
D)expectorants.
Q4) Acetylcysteine is incompatible in solution with which of the following?
A)Certain antibiotics
B)Sympathomimetic bronchodilators
C)Anticholinergic bronchodilators
D)Saline
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Chapter 10: Surfactant Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the trade name for the generic exogenous surfactant preparation poractant alfa?
A)Infasurf
B)Surfaxin
C)Curosurf
D)Survanta
Q2) Which of the following is considered the mode of action for surfactant?
A)To replace missing surfactant
B)To accelerate lung maturity
C)To emulsify lung secretions
D)To relax bronchial smooth muscle
Q3) A newborn weighing 1000 g exhibits symptoms of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS),including poor color,suprasternal retractions,nasal flaring,and desaturation.The respiratory therapist should recommend
A)Ipratropium bromide.
B)Poractant alfa.
C)Salmeterol.
D)Dornase alfa.
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Chapter 11: Corticosteroids in Respiratory Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Use of oral steroids for long periods can cause A)HPA suppression.
B)increased adrenal cortex activity.
C)bronchospasm.
D)increased ACTH levels.
Q2) Which of the following is produced in the hypothalamus?
A)Glucocorticoids
B)Corticotropin-releasing factor
C)Mineralocorticoids
D)Sex hormones
Q3) The major cells responsible for an inflammatory response in asthma are A)macrophages and mast cells.
B)mast cells and eosinophils.
C)T lymphocytes and macrophages.
D)basophils and SRS-A.
Q4) A significant side effect of corticosteroid use is inhibition of A)IgE.
B)PDE.
C)HPA axis.
D)SRS-A.
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Chapter 12: Nonsteroidal Antiasthma Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a patient begins using cromolyn sodium,how long may it take before clinical improvement in the patient's symptoms is seen?
A)24 hours
B)4 to 6 days
C)2 to 4 weeks
D)1 to 3 months
Q2) Leukotrienes exhibit which of the following effects?
1)Increased mucus secretion
2)Inhibition of normal ciliary action
3)Increased airway edema
4)Bronchoconstriction
5)Recruitment of other inflammatory cells into airways
A)4 only
B)1,2,and 4 only
C)3,4,and 5 only
D)1,2,3,4,and 5
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Chapter 13: Aerosolized Antiinfective Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)can cause which of the following?
1)Asthma
2)Bronchiolitis
3)Pneumothorax
4)Pneumonia
5)Cystic fibrosis
A)5 only
B)1 and 3 only
C)2 and 4 only
D)1,2,4,and 5 only
Q2) Which nebulizer is used to administer aerosolized pentamidine?
A)Small volume nebulizer
B)Ultrasonic
C)Babington nebulizer
D)Respirgard II
Q3) Zanamivir would be indicated for A)cystic fibrosis.
B)exacerbation of COPD.
C)RSV infections.
D)uncomplicated influenza.
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Chapter 14: Antimicrobial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Penicillins exert their pharmacologic activity by
A)inhibiting translation of RNA into proteins.
B)inhibiting cell wall synthesis.
C)inhibiting protein synthesis.
D)inhibiting DNA synthesis.
Q2) Aminoglycosides are used primarily for
A)gram-positive infections.
B)gram-negative infections.
C)viral infections.
D)mycoplasma infections.
Q3) Cephalosporins exert their pharmacologic activity by
A)inhibiting translation of RNA into proteins.
B)inhibiting cell wall synthesis.
C)inhibiting protein synthesis.
D)inhibiting DNA synthesis.
Q4) What antibiotic is used to treat Pneumocystis carinii (jiroveci)infections?
A)TMP-SMX
B)Erythromycin
C)Streptomycin
D)Clindamycin
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Chapter 15: Cold and Cough Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following agents should not be given to a patient who is coughing up copious amounts of sputum?
A)Decongestant (\(\alpha\)-sympathomimetic)
B)Antihistamine
C)Antitussive
D)Expectorant
Q2) H<sub>1</sub> receptors
A)regulate gastric acid secretions.
B)promote diuresis.
C)cause bronchiole smooth muscle constriction.
D)increase heart rate.
Q3) Repeated application of adrenergic agents by nasal spray can result in
A)cardiac arrhythmias.
B)vomiting.
C)rebound nasal congestion.
D)nosebleeds.
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Chapter 16: Selected Agents of Pulmonary Value
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Sample Questions
Q1) The drug used to treat hypoxic respiratory failure in newborns with pulmonary hypertension is A)ribavirin.
B)Xopenex.
C)Survanta.
D)nitric oxide.
Q2) The two inhaled prostacyclin analogues available in the United States are
A)Iloprost and Tyvaso.
B)Varenicline and bupropion.
C)Albuterol and Atrovent.
D)Xopenex and Survanta.
Q3) A smoker with very low dependency seeks your advice about smoking cessation.What nicotine replacement agent would you suggest?
A)Nicotine replacement patch (21 mg)
B)Varenicline (Chantix)
C)Nicotine inhaler
D)Bupropion
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Chapter 17: Neonatal and Pediatric Aerosolized Drug Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant is given albuterol via a small volume nebulizer (SVN);what will happen to the L/T ratio of the infant compared with an adult?
A)It will be much higher
B)It will be the same
C)It will be lower
D)It will be slightly higher
Q2) A patient is considered a neonate if he or she is
A)less than 37 weeks of gestational age.
B)in the first month of postnatal life.
C)12 to 18 years.
D)1 to 12 months.
E) 1 to 12 years.
Q3) The use of a drug in an age group for which there is a lack of FDA-approved dosing information is termed
A)against the law.
B)off-label.
C)unapproved.
D)orphan drug.
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Chapter 18: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants Neuromuscular Blocking Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nondepolarizing agents are administered
A)by inhalation.
B)orally.
C)topically.
D)parenterally.
Q2) Benefits of neuromuscular paralysis in ventilator management include which of the following?
1)Improved ventilation
2)Better synchrony with the ventilator
3)Reduced ventilator pressures
4)Improved oxygenation
5)Decreased intrathoracic pressure
A)1 and 4 only
B)3 and 5 only
C)1,2,3,and 5 only
D)1,2,3,4,and 5
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Chapter 19: Diuretic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thiazide diuretics work by
A)blocking reabsorption of sodium and bicarbonate from the proximal tubule.
B)blocking reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
C)blocking reabsorption of NaCl in the proximal tubule and loop of Henle.
D)blocking sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal tubule.
Q2) Diuretic combinations may be used in an attempt to obtain a(n)_______________effect in patients not responding to one agent.
A)synergistic
B)complementary
C)potency
D)ototoxic
Q3) The use of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (CAIs)typically results in
A)metabolic alkalosis.
B)metabolic acidosis.
C)respiratory alkalosis.
D)respiratory acidosis.
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Chapter 20: Drugs Affecting the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most cases of depression are believed to be caused by A)increased activity of norepinephrine neurons.
B)genetic factors.
C)family or social environment.
D)reduced activity of norepinephrine neurons.
Q2) Your 24-year-old patient has just been admitted through the emergency department with a drug overdose.You observe the physician administering flumazenil.What possible drug did your patient overdose on?
A)Xanax
B)Lithium
C)Depakote
D)Tylenol
Q3) Benzodiazepines are used to A)relieve anxiety.
B)produce analgesia.
C)control psychotic illnesses.
D)treat diarrhea.
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22
Chapter 21: Vasopressors,inotropes,and Antiarrhythmic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The innate pacemaker of the heart is known as the A)atrioventricular (AV)node.
B)bundle of His.
C)sinoatrial (SA)node.
D)purkinje fibers.
Q2) According to the Vaughan Williams classification system,which class of antiarrhythmic agents consists mainly of \(\beta\) blockers?
A)Class I
B)Class II
C)Class III
D)Class IV
Q3) How does digoxin exert an inotropic effect on the myocardium?
A)By reversibly inhibiting the Na<sup>+</sup>/K<sup>+</sup>-ATPase pump
B)By stimulating the vagus nerve
C)By increasing extracellular sodium concentrations
D)By pumping calcium out of the cell
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Chapter 22: Drugs Affecting Circulation: Antihypertensives,
Anti-anginals, Anti-thrombotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anticoagulants work by
A)preventing the formation of the fibrin clot.
B)lysing thrombi by degrading fibrin.
C)dilating vessels so that clots are less likely to form.
D)inhibiting the action of platelets.
Q2) A significant drug interaction occurs between angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)and A)corticosteroids.
B)loop diuretics.
C)NSAIDs.
D)antibiotics.
Q3) Delayed-onset heparin-induced thrombocytopenia type 2 (HIT-2)is due to A)congestive heart failure.
B)multiple organ/system failure.
C)cardiovascular disease.
D)formation of antiplatelet antibodies.
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Chapter 23: Sleep and Sleep Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A chronic and progressive neurologic disorder characterized by unpleasant sensations in the legs and a compelling urge to move the legs while the patient is awake is referred to as A)RLS.
B)insomnia.
C)narcolepsy.
D)parasomnias.
Q2) What are the two phases of REM sleep?
A)Tonic and periodic
B)Phasic and cyclic
C)Tonic and phasic
D)Tonic and cyclic
Q3) The sleep disorder characterized by difficulty falling asleep,insufficient sleep,or nonrestorative sleep is
A)restless legs syndrome (RLS).
B)insomnia.
C)narcolepsy.
D)parasomnias.
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