Pharmacology for Practical Nurses
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Pharmacology for Practical Nurses introduces students to the fundamental concepts of pharmacology essential for safe and effective medication administration in clinical practice. The course covers drug classifications, mechanisms of action, therapeutic effects, side effects, and potential interactions. Emphasis is placed on accurate dosage calculations, patient assessment, and legal and ethical considerations in medication administration. Through case studies and practical exercises, students develop the skills necessary to educate patients, recognize adverse reactions, and uphold best practices while working collaboratively within the healthcare team.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice 2nd Canadian Edition by Linda Lane Lilley
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59 Chapters
683 Verified Questions
683 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1825
Page 2
Chapter 1: Nursing Practice in Canada and Drug Therapy
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36263
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements correctly lists the five traditional rights of medication administration?
A)The right drug,the right route,the right dose,the right time,and the right patient
B)The right drug,the right effect,the right route,the right time,and the right patient
C)The right patient, the right strength, the right diagnosis, the right drug, and the right route
D)The right patient,the right diagnosis,the right drug,the right route,and the right time
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is a judgement about a particular patient's potential need or problem?
A)A goal
B)An assessment
C)Subjective data
D)A nursing diagnosis
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Pharmacological Principles
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term "duration of action" refers to which of the following descriptions?
A)The time it takes for the drug to elicit a therapeutic response
B)The time it takes a drug to reach its maximum therapeutic response
C)The length of time it takes to remove a drug from circulation
D)The time during which drug concentration is sufficient to elicit a therapeutic response
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following descriptions best explains a drug's half-life?
A)The time it takes for the drug to elicit half its therapeutic response
B)The time it takes one-half of the original amount of a drug to reach the target cells
C)The time it takes one-half of the original amount of a drug to be removed from the body
D)The time it takes one-half of the original amount of a drug to be absorbed into the circulation
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Considerations for Special Populations
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient will often experience a reduction in the stomach's ability to produce hydrochloric acid.This change will result in which of the following?
A)Delayed gastric emptying
B)Increased gastric acidity
C)Decreased intestinal absorption of medications
D)Altered absorption of weakly acidic drugs,such as aspirin
Answer: D
Q2) A 22-year-old patient is in the 26th week of pregnancy and has developed gestational diabetes and pneumonia.She is given medications that pose a possible fetal risk,but the potential benefits may warrant the use of the medications in her situation.Which of the following is the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)pregnancy safety category for this medication?
A)Category B
B)Category C
C)Category D
D)Category X
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Ethnocultural, legal, and Ethical Considerations
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A member of an investigational drug study team is working with healthy volunteers whose participation will help determine the optimal dosage range and pharmacokinetics of the drug.What type of study is the team member is participating in?
A)Phase 1
B)Phase 2
C)Phase 3
D)Phase 4
Q2) For which cultural group must the nurse respect the value placed on natural health products,use of heat,and a concern for the balance of opposing forces that lead to illness or health?
A)Hispanic Canadians
B)Asian Canadians
C)Aboriginal peoples
D)Blacks
Q3) Which of the following factors contributes to drug polymorphism?
A)The number of drugs ordered by the physician
B)The patient's drug history
C)The patient's diet and nutritional status
D)Different dosage forms of the same drug
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Medication Errors
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physician has written admission orders,and the nurse is transcribing them.The nurse is having difficulty transcribing one order because of the physician's handwriting.Which of the following is the best action for the nurse to take?
A)Ask a colleague what the order says
B)Contact the physician to clarify the order
C)Contact the pharmacy to clarify the order
D)Ask the patient what medications he takes at home
Q2) When the nurse is giving a scheduled morning medication,the patient states,"I haven't seen that pill before.Are you sure it's correct?" The nurse checks the medication administration record and sees that it is listed.Which of the following is the nurse's best response to the patient?
A)"It's listed here on the medication sheet,so you should take it."
B)"Go ahead and take it and then I'll check with your doctor about it."
C)"It wouldn't be listed here if it wasn't ordered for you!"
D)"I'll check on the order first,before you take it."
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Chapter 6: Patient Education and Drug Therapy
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements reflects a measurable goal?
A)The patient will know about insulin injections.
B)The patient will understand the principles of insulin preparation.
C)The patient will demonstrate the proper technique of mixing insulin.
D)The patient will comprehend the proper technique of preparing insulin.
Q2) A patient and the dietitian have just reviewed the patient's new diet,which is low protein and low potassium.This activity reflects learning in which domain?
A)Physical
B)Affective
C)Cognitive
D)Psychomotor
Q3) During assessment,which of the following questions allows the nurse to clarify and open up discussion with the patient?
A)"Are you allergic to penicillin?"
B)"What medications do you take?"
C)"Have you had a reaction to this drug?"
D)"Are you taking this medication with meals?"
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8
Chapter 7: Over-The-Counter Drugs and Natural Health Products
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse that she wants to begin taking St.John's wort for treatment of depression.The nurse should warn her about which of the following substances that may cause an interaction with St.John's wort?
A)digoxin (Lanoxin),diuretics,and steroids
B)All caffeine-containing products
C)Alcoholic beverages
D)Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
Q2) Which of the following is a concern regarding the use of the natural health product kava?
A)Cancer risk
B)Liver toxicity
C)Cardiovascular incidents
D)Intestinal disorders
Q3) A patient says that he eats large amounts of garlic for its cardiovascular benefits.Which of the following drugs,if taken,could have a potential interaction with the garlic?
A)acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B)warfarin (Coumadin)
C)digoxin (Lanoxin)
D)phenytoin (Dilantin)
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Vitamins and Minerals
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of alcohol abuse has been admitted to hospital for severe weakness and malnutrition.Which preparation will he receive to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy?
A)Niacin (vitamin B )
B)Thiamine (vitamin B )
C)Riboflavin (vitamin B )
D)Pyridoxine (vitamin B )
Q2) People who live in Canada's North often experience lack of which of the following vitamins?
A)Vitamin A
B)Vitamin B
C)Vitamin C
D)Vitamin D
Q3) Conditions such as infantile rickets,tetany,and osteomalacia are caused by a deficiency in which vitamin or mineral?
A)Vitamin D
B)Vitamin K
C)Magnesium
D)Cyanocobalamin
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Chapter 9: Problematic Substance Use
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 38-year-old male used the "cold turkey" approach to stop smoking.Although he hasn't smoked for 6 months,he tells the nurse that he still feels strong cigarette cravings and wonders whether he will ever get over the cravings.Which of the following statements is true?
A)The cravings will never stop.
B)The cravings may persist for months to years.
C)The cravings indicate that he has been using nicotine.
D)The cravings indicate that he is about to experience nicotine withdrawal.
Q2) If an individual drinks alcohol while on disulfiram (Antabuse)therapy,which of the following will most likely occur?
A)Euphoria
B)Vomiting
C)Hypertension
D)Hypoventilation
Q3) Chronic use of alcohol may result in which of the following?
A)Renal failure
B)Stroke
C)Korsakoff's psychosis
D)Alzheimer's disease
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Photo Atlas of Drug Administration
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best action for the nurse to take to reduce systemic effects after administering eye drops?
A)Wiping off excess liquid immediately after instilling drops
B)Having the patient close the eye tightly after instilling drops
C)Having the patient close the eye; then move the eye around to help distribute the medication
D)Applying gentle pressure to the patient's nasolacrimal duct for 30 to 60 seconds after instilling drops
Q2) When administering nasal spray,the nurse should instruct the patient as follows:
A)"You will need to blow your nose before I give this medication."
B)"You will need to blow your nose after I give this medication."
C)"When I give this medication, you will need to hold your breath."
D)"You should sit up for 5 minutes after you receive the nasal spray."
Q3) A patient is to receive a penicillin intramuscular (IM)injection in the ventrogluteal site.What is the proper angle for needle insertion?
A)15 degrees
B)45 degrees
C)60 degrees
D)90 degrees
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Analgesic Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36273
Sample Questions
Q1) For which of the following is the herb feverfew commonly used?
A)Muscle aches
B)Headaches
C)Leg cramps
D)Incisional pain after surgery
Q2) A patient has been treated for 3 years for lung cancer.Over the past few months,she has noticed that the opioid analgesic she has been taking is not helping as much and says she needs to take more medication for the same pain relief.Which of the following is this patient experiencing?
A)Opioid toxicity
B)Addiction
C)Opioid tolerance
D)Abstinence syndrome
Q3) The drug pentazocine (Talwin)is a narcotic agonist-antagonist.Which of the following statements describes a characteristic of this type of medication?
A)It has minimal analgesic effects.
B)It works to reverse the effects of opiates.
C)Its adverse effects differ from those of the opiate narcotics.
D)It has a lower addiction potential than opiate narcotics.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: General and Local Anaesthetics
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36274
Sample Questions
Q1) Which individual is at high risk for an altered response to anaesthesia?
A)The 30-year-old male who has never had surgery before
B)The 45-year-old female who stopped smoking 10 years ago
C)The 20-year-old male who is to have a lymph node removed
D)The 78-year-old female who is to have her gallbladder removed
Q2) Which of the following symptoms may occur if a patient is taking ginger and requires an anaesthetic?
A)Decreased blood pressure
B)Increased risk of bleeding
C)Increased risk of stroke
D)Migraine headaches
Q3) During a fishing trip,a patient pierced his finger with a large fish hook.He is now at an emergency room to have it removed.What type of anaesthesia will be used for this procedure?
A)Topical benzocaine spray to the area
B)Spinal anaesthesia with mepivacaine (Carbocaine,Isocaine)
C)Topical prilocaine (EMLA) cream around the site
D)Infiltration of the area with lidocaine
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14
Chapter 13: Central Nervous System Depressants and Muscle Relaxants
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36275
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the best treatment of an acute overdose of secobarbital (Seconal)?
A)Infusion with diluted bicarbonate solution
B)Giving medications to decrease blood pressure
C)Maintaining the airway and supporting respirations
D)Administration of nalbuphine (Nubain)as an antagonist
Q2) Which of the following natural health products are used by some people to promote sleep and to relieve anxiety and restlessness?
A)Kava
B)Garlic
C)Ginger
D)Ginkgo
Q3) A 45-year-old female has been taking dantrolene (Dantrium)as part of the treatment for multiple sclerosis.Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor while the patient receives dantrolene?
A)Creatinine
B)Sedimentation rate
C)Liver function studies
D)Hemoglobin and hematocrit
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Antiepileptic Drugs
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36276
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following teaching tips is appropriate for the nurse to tell a patient taking topiramate (Topamax)?
A)Do not chew,crush,or break the tablet.
B)Take the medication on an empty stomach.
C)Crush the medication if needed to facilitate swallowing.
D)If adverse effects are too severe,a dose may be skipped.
Q2) Which of the following statements about antiepileptic drug (AED)therapy are true? Select all that apply.
A)AED therapy can be stopped when seizures are under control.
B)AED therapy is usually lifelong.
C)Consistent dosing is key to control of seizures.
D)A dose may be skipped if the patient is experiencing adverse effects.
E)Abrupt withdrawal from AEDs may cause rebound seizure activity.
Q3) Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of status epilepticus?
A)diazepam (Valium)
B)midazolam
C)valproic acid (Epival)
D)carbamazepine (Tegretol)
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Chapter 15: Antiparkinsonian Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements describes an advantage of the catechol ortho-methyltransferase (COMT)inhibitors during the treatment of Parkinson's disease?
A)They have a shorter duration of action.
B)They cause less gastrointestinal distress.
C)They have a slower onset than traditional Parkinson's disease drugs.
D)They are associated with fewer "wearing-off" effects and have prolonged therapeutic benefits.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of amantadine (Symmetrel)therapy?
A)It increases the production of dopamine in the basal ganglia.
B)It works by eliciting the release of dopamine from nerve endings.
C)It is most effective in the later stages of Parkinson's disease.
D)It is considered a long-term therapy for Parkinson's disease.
Q3) Which of the following nursing diagnoses is appropriate for patients taking anticholinergic drugs?
A)Diarrhea
B)Urinary retention
C)Risk for infection
D)Ineffective tissue perfusion
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Chapter 16: Psychotherapeutic Drugs
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a reason that selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)are more widely prescribed today than are tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?
A)SSRIs have fewer sexual adverse effects.
B)Unlike tricyclic antidepressants,SSRIs do not have drug-food interactions.
C)Tricyclic antidepressants can cause serious cardiac toxicities if an overdose occurs.
D)SSRIs cause a therapeutic response faster than tricyclic antidepressants.
Q2) A nurse is monitoring a depressed patient who has just started antidepressant therapy.During which time period does the patient have the highest potential for self-injury and suicide?
A)At the beginning,before drug therapy is started
B)The time period between the start of therapy and symptomatic improvement
C)Between 1 and 4 weeks of drug therapy
D)After 6 months of drug therapy
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Chapter 17: Central Nervous System Stimulant Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Caffeine should be used with caution in which of the following patients?
A)A male with a history of peptic ulcers
B)A female with a history of migraine headaches
C)A teenager with a history of asthma
D)A male with a history of kidney stones
Q2) Which of the following central nervous system (CNS)stimulant drugs is used to treat acute migraines?
A)zolmitriptan (Zomig)
B)Amphetamines
C)modafinil (Alertec)
D)methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin)
Q3) The nurse is evaluating a patient who is taking sibutramine (Meridia).Which of the following is an intended therapeutic effect?
A)Increased wakefulness
B)Increased appetite
C)Suppressed appetite
D)Decreased hyperactivity
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19
Chapter 18: Adrenergic Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 14-year-old female patient has been treated for asthma for almost 4 months.Two weeks ago,she was given salmeterol (Serevent)as part of her medication regimen.However,her mother has called the clinic to report that it does not seem to work when her daughter is experiencing acute symptoms.Which of the following is the nurse's best response to the patient's mother?
A)It takes time for a therapeutic response to develop.
B)She is too young for this particular medication;it should be changed.
C)She should take up to two puffs every 4 hours to ensure adequate blood levels.
D)Salmeterol is indicated for prevention of bronchospasms and is not to be used for relief of acute symptoms.
Q2) When a patient is taking an adrenergic drug,the nurse expects to see which of the following effects?
A)Increased heart rate
B)Bronchial constriction
C)Peripheral vasodilation
D)Increased intestinal peristalsis
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Chapter 19: Adrenergic-Blocking Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36281
Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient has been admitted to the emergency department after an accidental overdose of ergotamine tartrate (Ergostat).Her daughter states that her mother developed a severe migraine headache and called to tell her that she had taken two double doses that morning because the headache "just would not go away." She is now dizzy,nauseated,and very weak.Which of the following actions should the nurse take immediately?
A)Administer activated charcoal
B)Force intravenous and oral fluids
C)Empty the stomach by gastric lavage
D)Administer a cathartic such as sorbitol
Q2) A 49-year-old male patient is in the clinic for a follow-up visit 6 months after starting a -blocker for treatment of hypertension.During this visit,his blood pressure is 169/98 mmHg,and he eventually confesses that he stopped taking this medicine 2 months ago because of an "embarrassing problem." What problem did he most likely experience with this medication that caused him to stop taking it?
A)Urge incontinence
B)Dizziness when standing up
C)Excessive flatus
D)Impotence
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Chapter 20: Cholinergic Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36282
Sample Questions
Q1) The desired effects of cholinergic drugs come from stimulation of which receptors?
A)Muscarinic
B)Nicotinic
C)Cholinergic
D)Ganglionic
Q2) Decreased blood pressure
A)Muscarinic stimulation
B)Nicotinic stimulation
C)Both muscarinic stimulation and nicotinic stimulation
Q3) A patient has been newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis.What important information should the nurse teach this patient regarding the administration of cholinergic drugs?
A)The medication should be taken with meals to avoid gastrointestinal distress.
B)Daytime dosages should be given close together for maximal therapeutic effect.
C)The medication should be taken 30 minutes before eating to improve swallowing and chewing.
D)Expected adverse effects are increased muscle weakness,abdominal cramping,and diarrhea,which should subside in a few days.
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22
Chapter 21: Cholinergic-Blocking Drugs
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is appropriate for treatment with a cholinergic-blocking drug?
A)Glaucoma
B)Myasthenia gravis
C)Irritable bowel disease
D)Genitourinary obstruction
Q2) When administering an anticholinergic drug,the nurse expects the patient will experience which of the following adverse effects?
A)Excessive urination
B)Diaphoresis
C)Dry mouth
D)Pupil constriction
Q3) Indications for the use of oxybutynin (Ditropan)include which of the following?
A)Irritable bowel disease
B)Induction of mydriasis
C)Antispasmodic for neurogenic bladder
D)Reduction of secretions preoperatively
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Chapter 22: Positive Inotropic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following assessments is the most important indicator of an exacerbation of heart failure in a patient?
A)Increased weight
B)Hypokalemia
C)Increased pulse
D)Increased oxygen saturation
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving intravenous (IV)digitalis and recognizes that the drug has a negative chronotropic effect.How is this drug effect made evident in the patient?
A)Increased heart rate
B)Decreased heart rate
C)Decreased conduction
D)Increased ectopic beats
Q3) A patient about to receive his morning dose of digoxin (Lanoxin)has an apical pulse of 70.What should the nurse do?
A)Administer the dose
B)Withhold the dose and notify the physician
C)Notify the physician and monitor the patient's vital signs
D)Recheck the pulse,making sure to count for 1 full minute
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24
Chapter 23: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amiodarone is categorized on the Vaughan Williams classification as a Class III drug.Which of the following best describes how this drug works?
A)By blocking slow calcium channels
B)By prolonging action potential duration
C)By blocking sodium channels and affecting phase 0
D)By decreasing spontaneous depolarization and affecting phase 4
Q2) A patient has been started on lidocaine (Xylocaine).The nurse will monitor the patient for which of the following adverse effects of this drug?
A)Drowsiness
B)Nystagmus
C)Dry mouth
D)Convulsions
Q3) Which of the following nursing diagnoses is appropriate for a patient receiving antidysrhythmics?
A)Risk for infection
B)Risk for injury to self
C)Excess fluid volume
D)Impaired skin integrity
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Chapter 24: Antianginal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been prescribed transdermal nitroglycerin patches.What important information should the nurse tell the patient about applying these patches?
A)Use the patches on any nonhairy area on the body.
B)Use the patches only on the chest area.
C)Temporarily remove the patch while swimming.
D)Apply the patch to the same site consistently.
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement concerning the administration of topical nitroglycerin ointment?
A)The ointment should be applied on the chest over the heart.
B)The ointment should be used only in the case of a mild angina episode.
C)The old ointment should be removed before the new ointment is applied.
D)The ointment should be massaged gently into the skin and then covered with plastic wrap.
Q3) Most available -blockers demonstrate antianginal efficacy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Women should maintain a sodium intake of less than 3 grams per day.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Antihypertensive Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36287
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following adverse effects commonly occurs in male patients who are taking antihypertensive medications?
A)Impotence
B)Bradycardia
C)Increased libido
D)Increased weight
Q2) Antihypertensive drug therapy has been prescribed for a Black male patient newly diagnosed with stage 1 hypertension.Which of the following is most likely included in his medication therapy?
A)Vasodilators alone
B)Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)inhibitors alone
C)Calcium channel blockers with thiazide diuretic
D) -blockers with thiazide diuretic
Q3) Why does a physician examine the fundus of a patient's eyes during antihypertensive therapy?
A)To monitor for drug toxicity
B)To assess for increased intraocular pressure
C)To assess for visual changes that may occur with drug therapy
D)To evaluate long-term effectiveness of the treatment
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Diuretic Drugs
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who are placed on spironolactone (Aldactone)should be assessed continuously for which of the following?
A)Hypokalemia
B)Hyperkalemia
C)Hyponatremia
D)Hypercalcemia
Q2) A patient with a new prescription for furosemide (Lasix)is being discharged.What important information should the nurse tell this patient about his new prescription?
A)"Keep a weekly journal or log of your weight."
B)"Avoid foods high in potassium,such as bananas,oranges,fresh vegetables,and dates."
C)"If you experience weight gain, such as 2.27 kg (5 lb) or more a week, be sure to tell your physician during your next routine visit."
D)"Be sure to change your body position slowly and rise slowly after sitting or lying.Making slow movements will prevent dizziness and possible fainting because of blood pressure changes."
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Chapter 27: Fluids and Electrolytes
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36289
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning to transfuse a patient with a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs).Which of the following patients is most likely be treated with this transfusion?
A)A patient with a coagulation disorder
B)A patient with severe anemia
C)A patient who has lost a massive amount of blood after emergency surgery
D)A patient who has a clotting factor deficiency
Q2) Potassium supplements are contraindicated in patients with a history of which of the following?
A)Burns
B)Diarrhea
C)Kidney disease
D)Cardiac tachydysrhythmias
Q3) Which of the following is a symptom of early hypokalemia?
A)Seizures
B)Lethargy
C)Stomach cramps
D)Muscle weakness
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29
Chapter 28: Coagulation Modifier Drugs
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has started on anticoagulant drugs.When the nurse is explaining the drug therapy,which of the following best describes the primary goal?
A)To prevent thrombus formation
B)To dissolve an existing thrombus
C)To stabilize an existing thrombus
D)To prevent the thrombus from becoming an embolus
Q2) A female patient has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin)in addition to a heparin infusion.What is the reason for her receiving two anticoagulants?
A)The oral and injection forms work synergistically.
B)The combination of heparin and an oral anticoagulant results in fewer adverse effects than heparin used alone.
C)Oral anticoagulants are used to reach an adequate level of anticoagulation when heparin alone is unable to do so.
D)When oral anticoagulants are prescribed,heparin is often used to initiate therapy until laboratory tests indicate an adequate therapeutic response.
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Chapter 29: Antilipemic Drugs
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking gemfibrozil (Lopid)to lower her cholesterol level.What adverse effects should the nurse tell the patient about this medication?
A)Constipation
B)Diarrhea
C)Joint pain
D)Dry mouth
Q2) Cholestyramine (Nov-Cholamine)and colestipol (Colestid)are most effective in the treatment of which of the following?
A)Type V hyperlipidemia
B)Mixed hyperlipidemias
C)All types of hyperlipidemias
D)Both type IIa and type IIb hyperlipidemias
Q3) A patient is taking a statin drug.What important information should the nurse tell this patient?
A)Have a hearing assessment done.
B)Have an ophthalmic assessment done.
C)See a physiotherapist.
D)Take the medication with breakfast.
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Chapter 30: Pituitary Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hormones is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?
A)Growth hormone
B)Follicle-stimulating hormone
C)Antidiuretic hormone
D)Prolactin
Q2) A patient is about to receive a dose of octreotide (Sandostatin).Which of the following contraindications or cautions should the nurse assess for? Select all that apply.
A)Carcinoid crisis
B)Diarrhea
C)Diabetes with insulin orders
D)Chronic renal failure
E)Orders for oral hypoglycemic drugs
F)Flushing
Q3) A patient is receiving vasopressin (Pressyn).Which of the following therapeutic responses should the nurse expect to see?
A)Improved appetite
B)Increased serum albumin levels
C)Increased serum potassium levels
D)Decreased urinary output
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Chapter 31: Thyroid and Antithyroid Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking levothyroxine (Synthroid)for more than a decade for primary hypothyroidism.She tells the nurse that her cousin can get her the same medication in a generic form from a pharmaceutical supply company.What is the nurse's best response to the patient?
A)"That would be a great way to save money."
B)"There's no difference in brands of this medication."
C)"Switching the form of medication should never be done; once you start with a certain brand, you must stay with it."
D)"It's better not to switch brands until we check with your doctor."
Q2) Which of the following signs indicate a too-high dose of thyroid replacement hormone?
A)Bradycardia,somnolence,and ataxia
B)Anxiety,weight loss,and insomnia
C)Dry skin, weakness, and weight gain
D)Drowsiness,coughing,and neck pain
Q3) The nurse is giving morning medications.The medication administration record has an order for "levothyroxine,75 mcg." The drug dispensing cabinet contains levothyroxine tablets in milligram strengths,not in micrograms.Calculate the mg equivalent dose of 75 mcg.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Antidiabetic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus gives herself insulin injections as part of the therapy.What should the nurse teach this patient to do if she has hypoglycemia?
A)Call her physician.
B)Administer regular insulin.
C)Take an oral form of glucose.
D)Rest until the symptoms pass.
Q2) Which of the following types of insulin can be administered intravenously?
A)Regular insulin
B)Neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH)insulin
C)insulin glargine (Lantus)
D)insulin detemir (Levemir)
Q3) What early signs of hypoglycemia should the nurse should tell the patient about?
A)Urticaria and rash
B)Nausea and diarrhea
C)Irritability and confusion
D)Fruity,acetone odour to the breath
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Chapter 33: Adrenal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What important information is appropriate for the nurse to tell a patient about taking adrenal drugs?
A)Oral drugs should be taken before meals to maximize absorption.
B)Rinse the oral cavity after using the steroid inhalers.
C)Take the corticosteroids before bedtime to minimize adrenal suppression.
D)Discontinue the medication immediately if a weight gain of more than 2.25 kg is experienced in 1 week.
Q2) Which of the following are indications for glucocorticoid drugs? Select all that apply.
A)Glaucoma
B)Cerebral edema
C)Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and asthma
D)Organ transplantation
E)Varicella
F)Spinal cord injury
G)Septicemia
H)Rhinitis
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Chapter 34: Womens Health Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an effect of a tocolytic drug?
A)Uterine relaxation
B)Uterine stimulation
C)Ovulation stimulation
D)Ovulation suppression
Q2) A patient will be taking bisphosphonate alendronate (Fosamax).The nurse should instruct the patient to take this medication at which time?
A)In the evening just before bedtime
B)In the morning with an 250-ml glass of water
C)With the first bite of the morning meal
D)Between meals on an empty stomach
Q3) The nurse is reviewing the risk factors for osteoporosis.Which of the following is considered a risk factor for osteoporosis?
A)White or Asian race
B)African race
C)History of participation in active sports
D)Obesity
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36
Chapter 35: Mens Health Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Uses for the synthetic androgen danazol (Cyclomen)include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A)Porphyria
B)Endometriosis
C)Decreased sexual libido
D)Postpartum breast engorgement
E)Fibrocystic breast disease
F)Hereditary angioedema
G)Metastatic breast cancer
Q2) When administering finasteride (Proscar),which important precaution should the nurse remember?
A)It must be taken on an empty stomach.
B)Finasteride should not be handled by pregnant women.
C)It is given by deep intramuscular (IM) injection to avoid tissue irritation.
D)The patient should be warned that alopecia is a common adverse effect.
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Expectorants
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Sample Questions
Q1) What systemic effect may occur with the administration of a topically applied adrenergic nasal decongestant?
A)Heartburn
B)Bradycardia
C)Hypotension
D)Nervousness
Q2) A patient has been advised to add a nasal spray (an adrenergic decongestant)to treat a cold.What important information should the nurse tell the patient about the nasal spray?
A)Expect the effects to be delayed at least 1 week.
B)Limit use of this spray to 3 to 5 days.
C)Continue the spray until nasal stuffiness has resolved.
D)Avoid use of this spray if a fever develops.
Q3) Because of many reported adverse events,which of the following children should not be given cough and cold medication?
A)Children younger than 2 years old
B)Children younger than 4 years old
C)Children younger than 6 years old
D)Children younger than 8 years old
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Bronchodilators and Other Respiratory Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an adverse effects associated with the use of xanthine derivatives?
A)Diarrhea
B)Palpitations
C)Bradycardia
D)Drowsiness
Q2) Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of acute attacks of bronchial asthma?
A)nedocromil
B)salbutamol (Ventolin)
C)zafirlukast (Accolate)
D)triamcinolone (Nasacort AQ)
Q3) A patient has recently been placed on inhaled corticosteroids.Which of the following common adverse effects should the nurse discuss with the patient?
A)Fatigue and depression
B)Anxiety and peripheral vasoconstriction
C)Headache and rapid heart rate
D)Oral candidiasis and dry mouth
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Chapter
Cephalosporins, Macrolides, and Tetracyclines
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Sample Questions
Q1) During antibiotic therapy,the nurse should monitor the patient closely for signs and symptoms of a hypersensitivity reaction.Which of the following may be an indication of a hypersensitivity reaction? Select all that apply.
A)Wheezing
B)Diarrhea
C)Shortness of breath
D)Swelling of the feet
E)Swelling of the tongue
F)Itching
G)Black,hairy tongue
H)Rash
Q2) A patient has received an antibiotic to take for 1 week before planned oral surgery.This treatment is an example of what type of therapy?
A)Empirical therapy
B)Prophylactic therapy
C)Bactericidal therapy
D)Resistance therapy
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Fluoroquinolones, and Other Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications is commonly prescribed to treat recurrent pulmonary infections associated with cystic fibrosis?
A)gentamicin
B)tobramycin
C)amikacin
D)norfloxacin (Apo-Norflox)
Q2) Metronidazole (Flagyl)is widely used for which type of infection?
A)Skin
B)Gynecological
C)Aerobic
D)Respiratory
Q3) Which laboratory values are sometimes increased by quinolones?
A)Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)levels
B)Creatinine levels
C)Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels
D)Glucose levels
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Chapter 40: Antiviral Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking a combination of antiretroviral drugs as treatment for early stages of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)infection.He asks the nurse whether the drugs will kill the virus.Which of the following statements is the nurse's best response to this patient?
A)Antiretroviral drugs are rarely beneficial and are given for palliative reasons only.
B)Antiretroviral drugs will be effective as long as the patient is not exposed to the virus again.
C)Antiretroviral drugs can be given in large enough doses to eradicate the virus without harming the body's healthy cells.
D)Antiretroviral drugs are effective only while the virus is replicating,and replication is often finished by the time symptoms appear.
Q2) A patient with late-stage acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)has developed Kaposi's sarcoma.What type of infection is Kaposi's sarcoma?
A)A drug-resistant infection
B)An opportunistic infection
C)A co-infection
D)A superinfection
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Antituberculosis Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following indicates a patient's therapeutic response to antituberculosis drugs?
A)A cessation of the chronic cough
B)Two consecutive negative purified protein derivative (PPD)tuberculin skin test results over 2 months
C)An increased tolerance to the medication therapy and fewer reports of adverse effects
D)A decrease in symptoms of tuberculosis (TB)and improved chest X-rays and sputum cultures
Q2) Which antituberculosis drug may cause a decrease in visual acuity resulting from optic neuritis?
A)rifampin (Rifadin)
B)isoniazid (Isotamine)
C)ethambutol (Etibi)
D)streptomycin
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43
Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is administering an antifungal medication.What assessment finding may indicate medication-induced renal damage?
A)Rash and chills
B)Increased urinary output
C)Decreased levels of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine
D)Weight gain of more than 1 kg in 1 week
Q2) The nurse is administering one of the newer formulations of amphotericin B,Amphotec.When giving this drug,what important information does the nurse need to remember?
A)The new formulation may be given in an oral form.
B)The newer doses are much lower than the older doses.
C)The newer doses are much higher than the older doses.
D)The newer and older forms have no differences in their doses.
Q3) A patient has been prescribed ketoconazole.What important instructions should the nurse tell the patient about this drug?
A)Have your liver function tested.
B)Take antacids with the drug to minimize gastrointestinal upset.
C)Take the drug with a large glass of orange juice or water.
D)Take the drug 2 hours before a meal or 2 hours after a meal.
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Page 44
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl)to treat the most common intestinal protozoal infection,caused by Giardia lamblia.What important information should the nurse tell the patient about using this drug?
A)The urine may become dilute and pale during therapy.
B)Taking the medications with food reduces gastrointestinal upset.
C)The medication should be taken on an empty stomach.
D)The drug may be discontinued once the diarrhea subsides.
Q2) Which of the following drugs is used to kill flukes?
A)praziquantel (Biltricide)
B)pyrantel (Combantrin)
C)mebendazole (Vermox)
D)diethylcarbamazine
Q3) A patient is travelling to a country where malaria is endemic.Which of the following antimalarial drugs will a health care provider likely recommend as prophylaxis?
A)quinine
B)chloroquine
C)mefloquine (Lariam)
D)primaquine
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Chapter 44: Antiseptic and Disinfectant Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a true statement regarding the application of topical agents?
A)Sterile gloves must be worn when applying topical agents.
B)Creams and ointments should be applied with the fingers.
C)Always use an occlusive dressing after applying a topical agent.
D)Hands should be washed thoroughly before and after applying any topical medication.
Q2) 1% acetic acid solution
A)Antiseptics
B)Disinfectants
C)Both antiseptics and disinfectants
Q3) A patient with a long-term intravenous catheter is going home.If he is allergic to seafood,which antiseptic drug is contraindicated?
A)povidone-iodine (Betadine)
B)Any peroxide drug
C)Any antibiotic drug
D)benzalkonium chloride (Amino-Prophyl)
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Chapter 45: Anti-Inflammatory, Anti-arthritic, and Related Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has a history of coronary artery disease has been instructed to take one 81 mg tablet of acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)each day.What is the purpose of this dose of acetylsalicylic acid?
A)To prevent fever
B)To reduce inflammation
C)To relieve pain
D)To prevent thrombus formation
Q2) An older adult patient tells the nurse that he uses acetylsalicylic acid (ASA)for "anything that ails me." What are the most common signs of chronic salicylate intoxication in adults?
A)Photosensitivity and nervousness
B)Tinnitus and hearing loss
C)Acute gastrointestinal bleeding and anorexia
D)Hyperventilation and central nervous system (CNS)effects
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Chapter 46: Immunosuppressant Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of sirolimus (Rapamune)can increase the chances of which of the following?
A)Lymphoma
B)Leukemia
C)Breast cancer
D)Bowel cancer
Q2) Which immunosuppressant is the only one currently indicated for the treatment of multiple sclerosis?
A)azathioprine (Imuran)
B)glatiramer acetate (Copaxone)
C)daclizumab (Zenapax)
D)sirolimus (Rapamune)
Q3) How is cyclosporine (Neoral)usually given intravenously?
A)In a single intravenous (IV)injectable form to minimize adverse effects
B)Initiated by an oral test dose;then,after 2 hours,an IV infusion is begun
C)Diluted with normal saline or 5% dextrose in water and infused over 2 to 6 hours
D)Given as an IV bolus for the first dose,then with an infusion pump for following doses
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Chapter 47: Immunizing Drugs and Pandemic
Preparedness
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what age is the first dose of diphtheria,tetanus,and acellular pertussis,and inactivated polio vaccine (DTaP-IPV)given?
A)Age 1 month
B)Age 2 months
C)Age 4 months
D)Age 6 months
Q2) Two patients arrive at the clinic: a young boy with sickle-cell anemia and a 57-year-old woman with early-stage Hodgkin's disease.Both patients require the same vaccine.What vaccine do they require?
A)The Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG)vaccine
B)Tetanus,diphtheria,and pertussis
C)Hepatitis B virus vaccine, inactivated
D)Haemophilus influenzae type b conjugate vaccine
Q3) A health care employee has experienced a needle stick with a contaminated needle.Which drug is used to provide passive immunity to hepatitis B infection?
A)Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)vaccine
B)Varicella zoster immune globulin (VariZIG [VZIG])
C)Hepatitis B immune globulin (H-BIG)
D)HB vaccine inactivated (Recombivax HB)
Page 49
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving her third course of 5-fluorouracil therapy and knows that stomatitis is a potential adverse effect of antineoplastic therapy.What important information should the nurse tell the patient about this adverse effect?
A)Aspirin should be taken to prevent development of stomatitis.
B)She should watch for and report black tarry stools immediately.
C)She should increase her intake of foods containing fibre and citric acid.
D)She should examine her mouth daily for bleeding,white spots,and ulcerations.
Q2) A patient is at risk for infection due to neutropenic effects of antineoplastic drug therapy.Which of the following statements by the patient indicates that he needs further teaching about his care?
A)"I can't wait to go to the buffet restaurant for supper."
B)"I should eat plenty of fresh fruit to improve my nutrition."
C)"I should report a sore throat, cough, or low-grade temperature."
D)"It is important for both my family and me to practise good hand washing."
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement regarding nadir?
A)It is a therapeutic effect of radiation.
B)It is the lowest level reached by bone marrow cells following chemotherapy.
C)It occurs 30 days after chemotherapy treatment.
D)Antiemetics will prevent it.
Page 50
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving alkylating drugs.The nurse knows that which of the following signs may indicate an oncological emergency?
A)Cracked lips
B)Temperature of 37.8°C
C)Diarrhea
D)Dry cough
Q2) Patients receiving antineoplastic drugs should be advised to take which of the following medications for minor aches and pains?
A)ibuprofen (Motrin)
B)acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)
C)acetaminophen (Tylenol)
D)naproxen
Q3) Estrogen antagonists can cause hypercalcemia.Which of the following are symptoms of hypercalcemia?
A)Constipation and urinary changes
B)Confusion and tachycardia
C)Lethargy and diarrhea
D)Weakness and hypoventilation
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Chapter 50: Biological Responsemodifying Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient is being treated with biological response-modifying drugs.After completion of her treatment,she should be cautioned to avoid pregnancy for what time period?
A)6 months
B)12 months
C)18 months
D)24 months
Q2) A patient is receiving therapy with interferons.What expected adverse effect should the nurse tell this patient about?
A)Anemia
B)Increased appetite
C)Constipation
D)Flu-like effects
Q3) Which intervention is appropriate during therapy with interferon drugs?
A)Dosages given at bedtime minimize central nervous system (CNS)adverse effects.
B)Fluids should be limited while patients are taking these medications.
C)Oral dosing is preferred to minimize allergic reactions.
D)Shake the drug vial well before drawing up a dose.
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Chapter 51: Gene Therapy and Pharmacogenomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is manufactured as a result of indirect gene therapy?
A)Vitamin K
B)epoetin (Eprex)
C)Human insulin
D)Heparin
Q2) Which of the following is the most important compound that transfers genes from parents to offspring?
A)Chromatin
B)Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
C)Alleles
D)Ribonucleic acid (RNA)
Q3) Eugenics is defined as which of the following?
A)Using gene therapy to prevent disease
B)Developing new drugs based on gene therapy
C)Intentional selection, before birth, of genotypes that are considered more desirable than others
D)The determination of genetic factors that influence a person's response to medications
Q4) Name one clinical application of pharmacogenomics.
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Chapter 52: Acid-Controlling Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 75-year-old woman complains of indigestion,stomach pain,and frequent belching.She tells the nurse that she has been taking sodium bicarbonate five or six times a day for the past 3 weeks.The nurse knows that which of the following possible hazards exists with excessive use of sodium bicarbonate?
A)Excess belching
B)Constipation
C)Systemic alkalosis
D)The stomach secretes excess mucus.
Q2) Which classification of medications is considered first-line therapy for treatment of erosive esophagitis?
A)H antagonists
B)Proton pump inhibitors
C)General antacids
D)Prostaglandin inhibitors
Q3) Antacids that contain aluminum salts may result in which adverse effect?
A)Diarrhea
B)Constipation
C)Intestinal flatulence
D)Abdominal cramping
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54
Chapter 53: Antidiarrheal Drugs and Laxatives
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Q1) Which class of laxatives is most likely to cause dependence if overused?
A)Emollient laxatives
B)Bulk-forming laxatives
C)Hyperosmotic laxatives
D)Stimulant laxatives
Q2) A patient is on laxative therapy.What important information should the nurse tell the patient about this therapy?
A)Crush all laxative tablets for improved action.
B)Bisacodyl and cascara sagrada should be given with water only.
C)A normal bowel pattern is when a bowel movement occurs daily.
D)Psyllium (Metamucil Preparations)can be mixed in food,such as applesauce,or stirred into fruit juice.
Q3) The nurse advises a patient to try bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)to control his diarrhea.Which of the following medications will interact significantly with the Pepto-Bismol?
A)digoxin (Lanoxin)
B)Antacids
C)acetaminophen (Tylenol)
D)tricyclic antidepressants
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Antiemetic and Antinausea Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient receiving chemotherapy is prescribed ondansetron (Zofran)for treatment of nausea.Which of the following is an adverse effect from this antiemetic drug?
A)Dizziness
B)Headache
C)Dry mouth
D)Blurred vision
Q2) Nabilone (Cesamex)is an antiemetic used for treatment of nausea and vomiting associated with which of the following conditions?
A)Ménière's disease
B)Motion sickness
C)Chemotherapy treatment
D)Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)
Q3) Which of the following interventions is correct regarding the management of nausea and vomiting?
A)Give antiemetics immediately after chemotherapy is administered.
B)Antiemetics are often administered 30 minutes to 3 hours before a chemotherapy drug is given.
C)Taking antiemetics at night may cause restlessness and interfere with sleep.
D)Antiemetics may be taken with a glass of wine to help settle the stomach.
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Pharmaconutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient needs to take an enteral supplement to improve her overall nutritional status.Which of the following formulations provides complex nutrients?
A)Ensure
B)Moducal
C)ProMod
D)Microlipid
Q2) During the night shift,a patient's total parenteral nutrition (TPN)infusion finished,but no TPN solution is on hand.The nurse is aware that which of the following may occur if the TPN infusion is discontinued abruptly?
A)Fluid overload
B)Hyperglycemia
C)Dumping syndrome
D)Rebound hypoglycemia
Q3) Which of the following is the most common adverse effect from nutritional supplements?
A)Diarrhea
B)Constipation
C)Fluid overload
D)Peptic ulcer disease
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Blood-Forming Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before the administration of iron supplements,the nurse should assess for which of the following contraindications?
A)Poor nutrition
B)Hemolytic anemia
C)Weakness and fatigue
D)Decreased hemoglobin
Q2) A patient is to receive iron dextran (Dexiron)injections.What technique should the nurse use to administer this medication?
A)Intravenous (IV)mixed with 5% dextrose
B)Intramuscular (IM)injection in the upper arm
C)IM injection using the Z-track method
D)Subcutaneous injection with a half-inch,29-gauge needle
Q3) Which of the following may occur as a result of therapy with iron preparations?
A)Palpitations
B)Dizziness and syncope
C)Black and red tarry stools
D)Yellow discoloration of the urine
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Chapter 57: Dermatological Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a true statement regarding the dermis layer of the skin?
A)None of its layers has a direct blood supply.
B)It forms the protective layer for the entire body.
C)Outer dead cells contain a water-repellent protein known as keratin.
D)It provides extra support with blood vessels,nerves,elastic tissue,and connective tissue.
Q2) A father calls the clinic because his son has head lice.He reports to the nurse that he has used "that special,medicated shampoo three times now but nothing is happening." What should be the nurse's first recommendation?
A)Get a prescription for a second product,malathion.
B)Add a lotion product that remains on the scalp for 8 hours.
C)Use a nit comb to remove nits from the hair shafts.
D)Comb through the hair with mineral oil to loosen the lice from the hair shafts.
Q3) Which of the following is likely to be prescribed for a child with impetigo?
A)lindane (Hexit)
B)nystatin (Flagistatin)
C)acyclovir (Zovirax)
D)bacitracin (Bacitin)
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Chapter 58: Ophthalmic Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following drugs is used to reduce intraocular pressure?
A)cromolyn (Opticrom)
B)Polypeptides
C)Osmotic diuretics
D)Hyperosmolar sodium chloride
Q2) A patient has developed toxic effects after prolonged high doses of topically applied miotic drugs.Which of the following drugs does the nurse expect will be used as an antidote?
A)Atropine
B)epinephrine (Epinrin)
C)acetylcholine (Miochol E)
D)Diphenhydramine
Q3) A patient with an eye injury requires an ocular examination to detect the presence of a foreign body.Which of the following drugs is used for this examination?
A)dapiprazole
B)fluorescein sodium (AK-Fluor)
C)atropine sulfate
D)cromolyn sodium
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Chapter 59: Otic Drugs
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Q1) For what reason is hydrocortisone commonly used in combination with otic antibiotics?
A)To soften and eliminate cerumen
B)To reduce pain associated with ear infections
C)To act as an antifungal agent in certain types of ear infections
D)To reduce inflammation and itching associated with ear infections
Q2) A patient is prescribed ear drops.What important information should the nurse teach the patient about the proper use of ear drops?
A)Remove cerumen with a cotton-tipped swab before instilling drops.
B)The drops should be instilled while still cool from refrigeration.
C)Warm the eardrops to room temperature before instillation.
D)Massage the ear lobe after instillation.
Q3) Contraindications to the use of chloramphenicol otic preparations include which of the following?
A)Escherichia coli infection
B)Perforated eardrum
C)Haemophilus influenzae infection
D)Drug hypersensitivity to pramoxine
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