Pharmacology for Physical Therapists
Review Questions
Course Introduction
Pharmacology for Physical Therapists provides an essential overview of the principles of pharmacology as they apply to physical therapy practice. This course explores the mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, and side effects of the common drug classes encountered in rehabilitation settings, including pain medications, muscle relaxants, anti-inflammatory agents, and drugs affecting cardiovascular, respiratory, endocrine, and nervous systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding how pharmacological agents may influence patient outcomes, therapy scheduling, and intervention strategies. The course also addresses the recognition of adverse drug reactions, drug interactions, and safety considerations, equipping students to collaborate effectively with interdisciplinary healthcare teams to optimize patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology in Rehabilitation 5th Edition by Charles D. Ciccone
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37 Chapters
343 Verified Questions
343 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1007
Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Principles of Pharmacology
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19949
Sample Questions
Q1) Toxicology is
A) the study of the harmful effects of chemicals
B) the study of a drug's beneficial effects
C) the analysis of drug absorption, distribution, and metabolism
D) the preparation and dispensing of therapeutic medications
E) the analysis of a drug's molecular structure
Answer: A
Q2) When two drugs are compared,the drug that requires a lower dosage to produce the same effect as a higher dose of the second drug is said to
A) be more potent
B) be impotent
C) have a great maximal efficacy
D) have a greater therapeutic index
E) be pharmacosuperior
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics IDrug
Administration,Absorption,and Distribution
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary site for drug storage in the body is
A) muscle
B) bone
C) skin
D) adipose tissue
E) the brain
Answer: D
Q2) Drug developers are exploring nanotechnology (i.e.,the use of very small particles with specific physical properties)as a way to
A) target and deliver drugs to specific tissues within the body
B) facilitate drug absorption from the GI tract
C) enable drugs to cross the blood brain barrier more easily
D) all the above
E) none of the above
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Pharmacokinetics II: Drug Elimination
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19951
Sample Questions
Q1) Most drugs are metabolized by _____ to the drug molecule,and the enzymes that catalyze these reactions are typically located at the ____ of specific cells.
A) adding an oxygen or removing a hydrogen; mitochondria
B) adding a hydrogen or removing an oxygen; mitochondria
C) adding an oxygen or removing a hydrogen; rough (granular) endoplasmic reticulum
D) adding a hydrogen or removing an oxygen; rough (granular) endoplasmic reticulum
E) adding an oxygen or removing a hydrogen; smooth (agranular) endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: E
Q2) Drug oxidation occurs when ______ the original compound.
A) oxygen is added to
B) hydrogen is removed from
C) an endogenous substance such as acetyl coenzyme is coupled to D) all of the above are true
E) only A and B are true
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Drug Receptors
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The acetylcholine receptor located on the postsynaptic membrane of the skeletal neuromuscular junction is an example of a membrane receptor that
A) is linked directly to an intracellular enzyme
B) is linked directly to a regulatory G protein
C) functions as an ion channel or pore
D) moves (translocates) to the cell's nucleus when stimulated
E) none of the above are true
Q2) A noncompetitive antagonist
A) has a more or less equal opportunity to occupy the receptor as the agonist
B) forms rather weak bonds with the receptor
C) produces inhibition that can be overcome by administering high concentrations of the agonist
D) all of the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q3) In contrast to an agonist,a pharmacologic antagonist
A) has affinity for the receptor, but lacks efficacy
B) is also known as a "blocker"
C) can be used prevent endogenous chemicals from overstimulating the receptor
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 5: General Principles of Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Certain drugs are not able to pass from the bloodstream into the CNS because of the unique structure and function of the CNS capillaries,known commonly as the
A) blood-brain barrier
B) circle of Willis
C) glomerulus
D) septum pellucidum
E) corpus callosum
Q2) All of the following substances are considered central nervous system neurotransmitters EXCEPT
A) monoamines such as norepinephrine
B) second messengers such as cyclic AMP
C) amino acids such as glycine
D) hormones such as vasopressin
E) acetylcholine
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Chapter 6: Sedative Hypnotic and Anti-anxiety Agents
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When certain sedative-hypnotics are suddenly discontinued,sleep disturbances may actually increase.This situation is known commonly as
A) tardive dyskinesia
B) anterograde amnesia
C) rebound insomnia
D) malignant hyperthermia
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Benzodiazepines such as diazepam (Valium)act by increasing the inhibitory effects of the neurotransmitter
A) acetylcholine
B) norepinephrine
C) dopamine
D) gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
E) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
Q3) Drugs used to relax the patient and promote sleep are classified as
A) sedative-hypnotics
B) antidepressants
C) antipsychotics
D) neuroleptics
E) antidyskinetics
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Chapter 7: Drugs to Treat Affective Disorders Depression and Bipolar Syndrome
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who begin antidepressant drug therapy often experience a delay of at least ______ before they notice a decrease in depression.
A) 1 to 2 minutes
B) 1 to 2 hours
C) 1 to 2 days
D) 1 to 2 weeks
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Lithium has a tendency to accumulate in the body and reaches toxic levels (lithium toxicity)because
A) lithium elimination takes place almost exclusively through excretion in the urine
B) lithium is metabolized by hepatic enzymes
C) lithium is not absorbed easily from the GI tract
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 8: Antipsychotic Drugs
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antipsychotics are often used in Alzheimer disease and other cases of dementia
A) to improve cognition and memory
B) to improve balance
C) to help control aggression and agitation
D) to increase vomiting and diarrhea
E) none of the above
Q2) Traditional antipsychotic drugs such as haloperidol and chlorpromazine are _____ receptor ______.
A) dopamine; agonists
B) dopamine; antagonists
C) acetylcholine; agonists
D) acetylcholine; antagonists
E) 5-hydroxytryptamine; agonists
Q3) Schizophrenia appears to be caused primarily by an overactivity of _______ pathways in certain parts of the brain such as the limbic system.
A) dopamine
B) acetylcholine
C) norepinephrine
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) gama-amino butyric acid (GABA)
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Chapter 9: Antiepileptic Drugs
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neuropathic pain and certain other chronic pain syndromes may respond to treatment with _____,presumably because these drugs reduce excitation in specific pain pathways in the CNS.
A) amphetamines such as dextroamphetamine
B) antiseizure drugs such as gabapentin (Neurontin) and pregabalin (Lyrica)
C) anticholinergic drugs such as atropine
D) all the above
E) none of the above
Q2) Benzodiazepines such as clonazepam (Klonopin)are effective in controlling certain seizures because they increase the inhibitory effects of ______ in the CNS.
A) norepinephrine
B) acetylcholine
C) serotonin
D) dopamine
E) gamma amino-butyric acid (GABA)
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11
Chapter 10: Pharmacologic Management of Parkinson Disease
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Upon entering the brain,levodopa is then transformed into dopamine the enzyme
A) dopa transmutase
B) dopa decarboxylase
C) monoamine oxidase
D) acetylcholinesterase
E) sodium-potassium ATPase
Q2) Oral administration of dopamine is NOT effective in the treatment of Parkinson disease because dopamine is
A) degraded into L-DOPA in the blood stream
B) digested in the stomach
C) unable to pass from the blood stream into the brain
D) degraded by dopa decarboxylase in the blood stream
E) none of the above
Q3) Parkinson disease typically occurs because of the slow,progressive degeneration of specific _______-secreting neurons in the ______.
A) acetylcholine; cortex
B) norepinephrine; cerebellum
C) dopamine; basal ganglia
D) serotonin; limbic system
E) glutamate; brain stem
Page 12
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Chapter 11: General Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19959
Sample Questions
Q1) Adipose tissue is a primary site for the absorption and temporary accumulation of general anesthetics because
A) adipose tissues are highly perfused by the bloodstream
B) general anesthetics are very water soluble
C) general anesthetics are very lipid soluble
D) adipose tissue is the primary site where general anesthetics are metabolized
E) none of the above are true; general anesthetics are not absorbed by adipose tissue
Q2) Ideally,a general anesthetic should produce all of the following properties EXCEPT
A) loss of consciousness and sensation
B) amnesia (i.e., no recollection of what occurred during the surgery)
C) slow onset of anesthesia
D) inhibition of sensory and autonomic reflexes
E) a minimum of toxic side effects (i.e., be relatively safe)
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13
Chapter 12: Local Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19960
Sample Questions
Q1) Local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST)is typically treated by administering A) general anesthetics
B) an emulsion of lipid compounds that soak up the lipophilic local anesthetic molecules
C) an amphetamine or other CNS stimulant to reduce CNS excitation caused by the local anesthetic
D) a beta blocker to reverse myocardial depression caused by the local anesthetic
E) other drugs that block sodium channels throughout the body
Q2) Absorption of local anesthetics into the system circulation is dangerous because these drugs can
A) decrease the force of cardiac contraction
B) cause bradycardia
C) inhibit respiratory control centers in the CNS
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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14
Chapter 13: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tizanidine (Zanaflex)may help reduce spasticity in some patients by ______ receptors in the spinal cord.
A) stimulating alpha-1
B) inhibiting alpha-1
C) stimulating alpha-2
D) inhibiting alpha-2
E) stimulating GABA
Q2) The muscle relaxant that directly inhibits acetylcholine release from presynaptic terminals at the skeletal neuromuscular junction is
A) baclofen
B) botulinum toxin
C) dantrolene sodium
D) tizanidine
E) none of the above are true
Q3) Intrathecal administration of baclofen typically refers to drug delivery into
A) the epidural space
B) the subarachnoid space
C) a sympathetic chain ganglion
D) the third ventricle of the brain
E) the gray matter of the spinal cord
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Chapter 14: Opioid Analgesics
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19962
Sample Questions
Q1) By blocking all opioid receptors,opioid antagonists such as nalmefene and naloxone are used primarily to
A) treat severe, acute postoperative pain
B) treat severe chronic pain
C) treat opioid overdose
D) treat diarrhea
E) opioid antagonists have no therapeutic value
Q2) Preliminary studies on animals suggest that opioids can exert analgesic effects when administered directly into peripheral tissues (e.g.,injected into an inflamed joint)because
A) opioids decrease the production of inflammatory substances in peripheral tissues
B) opioids increase vasodilation in peripheral tissues
C) opioids cause vasoconstriction in peripheral tissues
D) opioids may bind to receptors located on the distal (peripheral) ends of primary afferent (sensory) neurons.
E) there is no evidence that opioids can produce analgesic effects outside to the CNS
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Chapter 15: Non-steroidal Anti Inflammatory Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19963
Sample Questions
Q1) NSAIDs exert their therapeutic effects by _____ the ______ enzyme.
A) inhibiting; cyclooxygenase
B) stimulating; cyclooxygenase
C) inhibiting; acetylcholinesterase
D) stimulating; acetylcholinesterase
E) inhibiting; monoamine oxidase type A
Q2) Aspirin and acetaminophen are different because
A) acetaminophen is less toxic to the liver than aspirin
B) acetaminophen is more toxic to the stomach than aspirin
C) acetaminophen does not have antipyretic effects
D) acetaminophen does not have anti-inflammatory effects
E) none of the above are true; aspirin and acetaminophen are virtually identical in terms of therapeutic effects and side effects
Q3) High doses of acetaminophen (e.g.,15 g)can be especially toxic to the:
A) heart
B) liver
C) kidneys
D) stomach
E) brain
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pharmacologic Management of Rheumatoid
Arthritis and Osteoarthritis
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) NSAIDs are effective in treating rheumatoid arthritis because these drugs inhibit the _______ enzyme that initiates ______synthesis.
A) cyclooxygenase; prostaglandin
B) cyclooxygenase; steroid
C) monoamine oxidase; dopamine
D) monoamine; norepinephrine
E) choline acetyltransferase; acetylcholine
Q2) All of the following drugs are considered "disease-modifying" antirheumatic drugs EXCEPT
A) NSAIDs such as aspirin
B) gold compounds such as auranofin (Ridaura),
C) tumor necrosis factor-alpha inhibitors such as etanercept (Enbrel)
D) antimalarials such as chloroquine (Aralen)
E) methotrexate
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Chapter 17: Patient Controlled Analgesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) When opioids (e.g.,morphine,meperidine)are administered via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA),a low dose of ____ can be administered along with the opioid to reduce the amount of opioid needed to produce an adequate analgesic effect.
A) an NSAID such as toradol
B) a general anesthetic such as ketamine
C) an antipsychotic such as droperidol
D) an opioid receptor antagonist (blocker) such as naloxone
E) all the above
Q2) Patient controlled epidural analgesia (PCEI)is achieved by administering drugs directly into the
A) superior vena cava
B) right atrium of the heart
C) third ventricle of the brain
D) subarachnoid space
E) none of the above are true
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19
Chapter 18: Introduction to Autonomic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drug that inhibits muscarinic cholinergic receptors will selectively
A) increase sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
B) decrease sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
C) increase parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
D) decrease parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
E) increase responses in all tissues innervated by the autonomic nervous system
Q2) All preganglionic neurons and parasympathetic postganglionic neurons are said to be _____ in nature because of the presence of ______ at their respective synapses.
A) adrenergic; norepinephrine
B) cholinergic; norepinephrine
C) adrenergic; acetylcholine
D) cholinergic; acetylcholine
E) adrenergic; epinephrine
Q3) Alpha and beta receptors are the two primary subcategories of
A) muscarinic cholinergic receptors
B) nicotinic cholinergic receptors
C) dopamine receptors
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) adrenergic
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Cholinergic Drugs
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3 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cholinergic antagonists can be useful in the treatment of the following conditions
EXCEPT
A) motion sickness
B) irritable bowel syndrome
C) overactive urinary bladder
D) tachycardia
E) Parkinson disease
Q2) Indirect-acting cholinergic stimulants increase activity at cholinergic synapses by inhibiting the _______ enzyme
A) monoamine oxidase type A
B) monoamine oxidase type B
C) acetylcholinesterase
D) choline acetyltransferase
E) dopa decarboxylase
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Chapter 20: Adrenergic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) To increase cardiac output,a drug should selectively _____ receptors on the heart.
A) stimulate; alpha-1
B) inhibit; alpha-1
C) stimulate; alpha-2
D) inhibit; alpha-2
E) stimulate; beta-1
Q2) Stimulation of alpha-2 adrenergic receptors on spinal interneurons typically results in a _______ in excitability of ______ supplied by these interneurons.
A) increase; motor neurons
B) decrease; motor neurons
C) increase; sensory
D) decrease; sensory
E) alpha-2 receptors are not located in the spinal cord
Q3) A drug that selectively stimulates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors will cause
A) vasoconstriction of peripheral arterioles
B) increased heart rate
C) decreased blood pressure
D) bronchodilation
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22
Chapter 21: Antihypertensive Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Beta blockers are so named because they block the effects of _______ on the heart.
A) epinephrine
B) norepinephrine
C) acetylcholine
D) all the above are true
E) A and B only are true
Q2) Systemic heat (e.g.Hubbard tank)should be avoided in patients taking ______ drugs because the combination of these two interventions will cause excessive
A) vasodilators
B) alpha-2 antagonists
C) beta-1 agonists
D) beta-2 agonists
E) all the above are true
Q3) Calcium channel blockers can help reduce high blood pressure by
A) stimulating the sinoatrial node in the heart
B) stimulating the atrioventricular node in the heart
C) inhibiting the vasomotor control center in the brainstem
D) inhibiting vascular smooth muscle contraction
E) increasing renal sodium and water excretion
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Chapter 22: Treatment of Angina Pectoris
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aspirin and other antiplatelet drugs are often administered to people with angina pectoris to
A) prevent headache
B) decrease myocardial oxygen demand
C) prevent coronary artery infarction
D) all the above are true
Q2) Nitroglycerin patches are typically used intermittently (e.g.,12 hours on,12 hours off)to prevent
A) skin irritation from the patch
B) liver toxicity
C) kidney damage
D) pulmonary toxicity
E) tolerance to the drug
Q3) To avoid the first pass effect,nitroglycerin can be administered
A) sublingually
B) buccally
C) via transdermal patches
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Treatment of Cardiac Arrhythmias
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Sample Questions
Q1) An antiarrhythmic drug that prolongs the effective refractory period of the cardiac action potential
A) will speed up repolarization of cardiac muscle cells
B) will generally increase heart rate
C) will decrease the time interval between cardiac action potentials
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) An antiarrhythmic drug used to treat bradycardia inadvertently creates tachycardia.The most likely reason is that this drug causes _____ of the ______.
A) inhibition; sinoatrial node
B) excitation; sinoatrial node
C) inhibition; bundle of His
D) excitation; bundle of His E) inhibition; atrioventricular node
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Chapter 24: Treatment of Congestive Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digitalis exerts its primary mechanical effect by _____ the sodium-potassium pump on the myocardial cell membrane,which leads directly to an _____ intracellular sodium concentration.
A) stimulating; increase
B) inhibiting; increase
C) stimulating; decrease
D) inhibiting; decrease
Q2) In people with heart failure,the best drugs for reducing excessive sympathetic stimulation of the failing heart are
A) alpha blockers
B) beta blockers
C) angiotensin II receptor blockers
D) calcium channel blockers
E) diuretics
Q3) The primary cardiac problem in digitalis toxicity is
A) decreased coronary blood flow
B) increased coronary oxygen demand
C) decreased cardiac intracellular sodium concentration.
D) arrhythmia
E) isolated systolic hypotension
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Chapter 25: Treatment of Coagulation Disorders and Hyperlipidemia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who develop muscle pain and weakness when taking lipid lowering drugs such as atorvastatin (Lipitor)and simvastatin (Zocor)
A) should continue on the lipid lowering drugs because these muscle symptoms are usually not severe
B) should continue on the lipid lowering drugs but resolve the muscle pain through strenuous resistance exercises
C) should continue on the lipid lowering drugs but take an analgesic such as aspirin to control the pain
D) should be removed immediately from the drug because these symptoms may represent potentially serious myopathies
E) these drugs are not associated with muscle pain or weakness
Q2) Patient taking statins to improve plasma lipid profiles may be at increased risk for statin-induced myopathy if they
A) are elderly
B) have multiple diseases
C) have frail stature
D) are taking immunosuppressant drugs
E) all the above
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most common nasal decongestants act by _____ receptors in the nasal mucosa.
A) stimulating alpha-1
B) inhibiting alpha-1
C) stimulating beta-1
D) inhibiting beta-1
E) stimulating histamine
Q2) Newer "second-generation" antihistamines such as cetirizine (Zyrtec)and desloratidine (Clarinex)may be preferred to traditional antihistamines because these newer drugs
A) cross the blood brain barrier more easily than traditional drugs
B) produce less gastric irritation than traditional drugs
C) bind to more subtypes of histamine receptors (i.e., newer drugs are less selective for the H1 receptor subtype)
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 27: Gastrointestinal Drugs
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Q1) Drugs such as cimetidine and ranitidine that selectively block histamine type 2 (H2)receptors on stomach parietal cells
A) prevent the histamine-activated release of gastric acid
B) are available only by prescription
C) are known as antihistamines
D) all of the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Daily or indiscriminate use of laxatives should be avoided because excessive use of these drugs can cause
A) excessive loss of fluids and electrolytes
B) irritation of the lower GI tract
C) impairment of loss of normal mechanisms governing evacuation and defecation
D) all of the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 28: Introduction to Endocrine Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anti-inflammatory steroids (glucocorticoids)produced by the adrenal cortex are under the control of ____ from the hypothalamus which stimulates ______release from the anterior pituitary.
A) corticotropin-releasing hormone; adrenocorticotropic hormone
B) adrenocorticotropic hormone; corticotropin-releasing hormone
C) follicle stimulating hormone; luteinizing hormone
D) luteinizing hormone; follicle stimulating hormone
E) thyrotropin releasing hormone; growth hormone
Q2) Hormones released from the posterior pituitary are synthesized by neurons originating in the
A) anterior pituitary
B) intermediate lobe of the pituitary
C) hypothalamus
D) thalamus
E) cerebellum
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Chapter 29: Adrenocorticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) From a physical therapy perspective,the most important adverse effect seen in patients taking systemic glucocorticoid (anti-inflammatory steroid)drugs is
A) hypertension
B) aggravation of diabetes mellitus
C) aggravation of stomach ulcers
D) increased chance of infection
E) tissue catabolism (breakdown)
Q2) In humans,the primary mineralocorticoid produced by the adrenal cortex is _____,and the primary glucocorticoid produced by the adrenal cortex is _______.
A) progesterone; testosterone
B) testosterone; estrogen
C) estrogen; aldosterone
D) aldosterone; cortisol
E) cortisol; progesterone
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Chapter 30: Male and Female Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) In postmenopausal women,estrogen replacement may provide beneficial effects on _____,but may also increase the risk of ____.
A) the heart; osteoporosis
B) bone; cardiovascular disease
C) the kidney; severe hypotension
D) the liver; Alzheimer disease
E) GI function; fibromyalgia
Q2) Drugs that block progesterone receptors (i.e.,antiprogestins)such as mifepristone can be used clinically to
A) terminate pregnancy during the early stages of gestation
B) decrease pain and bleeding caused by benign uterine fibroid growths (leiomyomas, endometriois)
C) prevent hyperglycemia caused by excess cortisol production in Cushing syndrome
D) all the above
E) A and B only
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Chapter 31: Thyroid and Parathyroid Drugs: Agents
Affecting Bone Mineralization
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following drug strategies can be used as part of a comprehensive plan to increase bone mineral density in postmenopausal women EXCEPT
A) estrogen replacement
B) bisphosphonates
C) Vitamin C
D) calcium supplements
E) calcitonin
Q2) Bisphosphonates such as alendronate (Fosamax)and pamidronate (Aredia)reduce bone resorption in osteoporosis and similar conditions by A) inhibiting osteoclast activity
B) increasing calcium absorption for the GI tract
C) decreasing calcium excretion by the kidneys
D) providing a dietary source of calcium
E) all the above are true
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33
Chapter 32: Pancreatic Hormones and the Treatment of
Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glugagon-like peptide type 1 (GLP-1)receptor agonists such as exenatide (Byetta)and liraglutide (Victoza)sensitize pancreatic ____ cells so that a relatively greater amount of _____ is released when these cells sense a rise in blood glucose.
A) alpha; insulin
B) beta; insulin
C) alpha; glucagon
D) beta; glucagon
E) delta; somatostatin
Q2) At the present time,insulin must be administered by parenteral (non-oral)routes because
A) insulin will irritate the stomach
B) insulin will be destroyed during "first-pass" metabolism in the liver
C) the insulin molecule is too large to be absorbed through the gastrointestinal wall
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 33: Treatment of Infections I: Antibacterial Drugs
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Q1) Certain antibacterial drugs such as trimethoprim and the sulfonamide drugs (e.g.,sulfadiazine,sulfamethoxazole)selectively inhibit the synthesis and function of nucleic acids and certain essential amino acids by impairing the production of ______ in bacterial cells.
A) ATP
B) glucose
C) folic acid
D) fatty acids
E) mitochondria
Q2) Antibacterial drugs work by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT inhibition of A) bacterial intracellular calcium release
B) bacterial cell wall synthesis and function
C) bacterial protein synthesis
D) bacterial nucleic acid synthesis
E) none of the above are true; antibacterial drugs use all the mechanisms listed
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35
Chapter 34: Treatment of Infections II: Antiviral Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viral infections are often more difficult to treat than other types of infections because A) viruses contain organelles (ribosomes, mitochondria, etc.) that are naturally resistant to antiviral drugs
B) virus particles are much larger in size than other infectious microorganisms such as bacteria
C) viruses penetrate into human cells, and cannot be easily killed without harming the human cell
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors such as zidovudine,didanosine,and lamivudine are especially important for physical therapists because they may cause side effects such as
A) peripheral neuropathy
B) myopathy
C) joint pain
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 35: Treatment of Infections III: Antifungal and Antiparasitic Drugs
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Q1) Tapeworms (cestodes),roundworms (nematodes),and flukes (trematodes)are treated with
A) antifungal drugs
B) antiprotozoal drugs
C) anthelmintic drugs
D) antibacterial drugs
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Severe,systemic fungal infections are more likely if
A) patients are taking systemic doses of glucocorticoids
B) patients are taking systemic doses of other antibiotics
C) patients have AIDS
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q3) Cutaneous and mucocutaneous infections such as tinea (ringworm)infections and candidiasis are typically treated with
A) local or topical antibacterial drugs
B) local or topical antifungal drugs
C) systemic doses of antibacterial drugs
D) systemic doses of antifungal drugs
E) antiviral drugs
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Cancer Chemotherapy
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Q1) Anti-cancer drugs are classified as cell-cycle-nonspecific if they exert antineoplastic effects on the cell only when it is in the _______ phase of the cell cycle.
A) G1
B) G2
C) S
D) M
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Monoclonal antibodies may be especially effective in treating certain cancers because these drugs
A) create a strong alkyl reaction with the DNA molecule
B) directly inhibit the topoisomerase enzyme responsible for DNA synthesis
C) are attracted directly to the cancer cell, without an appreciable affect on healthy tissues
D) directly inhibit the mitotic apparatus that is responsible for controlling cell division (mitosis)
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 37: Immunomodulating Agents
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Q1) Sirolimus,a relatively new immunosuppressant,is especially helpful following kidney transplants because
A) it causes sodium retention
B) it increases renin release from the kidneys
C) it does not reduce glomerular filtration and other aspects of kidney function
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) All of the following drugs can be used to suppress the immune system EXCEPT A) azathioprine
B) cyclophosphamide
C) cyclosporine
D) immunoglobulin G
E) methotrexate
Q3) Drugs are used to suppress the immune system
A) to prevent rejection of transplanted organs or tissues
B) to limit immune-mediated damage to the body's tissues
C) to treat autoimmune diseases
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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