Pharmacology for Physical Therapists
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of pharmacological principles relevant to physical therapy practice. It covers the mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, side effects, and interactions of common medications affecting the neuromuscular, cardiovascular, respiratory, and musculoskeletal systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding how pharmacologic agents influence patient response to physical therapy interventions, recognizing adverse drug reactions, and collaborating effectively with other healthcare professionals in medication management. The course equips physical therapy students with the knowledge to optimize patient outcomes through safe and informed integration of pharmacological considerations into clinical decision-making.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology in Rehabilitation 5th Edition by Charles D. Ciccone
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37 Chapters
343 Verified Questions
343 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1007 Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Principles of Pharmacology
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19949
Sample Questions
Q1) Prescription use of a drug to treat conditions other than those that the drug was originally approved to treat (off label prescribing)
A) is illegal and punishable by revoking a physician's license
B) is legal only if the Center for Disease Control provides written permission to the physician
C) is legal only if the drug is not a controlled substance
D) is legal and quite common in the United States
E) is legal only after the patent for a drug has expired
Answer: D
Q2) Toxicology is
A) the study of the harmful effects of chemicals
B) the study of a drug's beneficial effects
C) the analysis of drug absorption, distribution, and metabolism
D) the preparation and dispensing of therapeutic medications
E) the analysis of a drug's molecular structure
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics IDrug
Administration,Absorption,and
Distribution
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ______ effect occurs when drugs are transported initially to the liver where a significant amount of the drug may be metabolized and destroyed before the drug reaches its primary site of action.
A) malabsorptive
B) first pass
C) Bohr
D) bioequivalence
E) pharmacodynamic
Answer: B
Q2) Iontophoresis,phonophoresis,and medicated patches all use the _____ route to administer drugs.
A) oral
B) inhalation
C) injection
D) transdermal
E) rectal
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Pharmacokinetics II: Drug Elimination
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19951
Sample Questions
Q1) The process of breaking the original drug compound into separate parts is known as A) oxidation
B) reduction
C) conjugation
D) hydrolysis
E) biodestruction
Answer: D
Q2) Biotransformation usually results in an altered version of the original compound known as
A) bile
B) a metabolite
C) an antidrug
D) albumin
E) a steroid
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Drug Receptors
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Signals from the surface receptor are transduced into the appropriate response within the cell via intermediate regulatory proteins that are activated by binding guanine nucleotides,hence they are often termed ______ proteins.
A) activating
B) binding
C) controlling
D) nucleotide
E) G
Q2) A noncompetitive antagonist
A) has a more or less equal opportunity to occupy the receptor as the agonist
B) forms rather weak bonds with the receptor
C) produces inhibition that can be overcome by administering high concentrations of the agonist
D) all of the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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6
Chapter 5: General Principles of Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that must cross the blood brain barrier and enter the brain to exert therapeutic effects will be clinically useful if
A) they are lipophilic
B) they are hydrophilic but are able to enter the brain by active transport or facilitated diffusion
C) they are not subject to active transport enzymes (efflux pumps) that move the drug out of the brain and back into the systemic circulation
D) all the above
E) none of the above
Q2) Certain drugs are not able to pass from the bloodstream into the CNS because of the unique structure and function of the CNS capillaries,known commonly as the
A) blood-brain barrier
B) circle of Willis
C) glomerulus
D) septum pellucidum
E) corpus callosum
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Chapter 6: Sedative Hypnotic and Anti-anxiety Agents
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antidepressants such as paroxetine or venlafaxine can also be used to treat anxiety because
A) they may be an effective substitute for people who cannot tolerate the side effects of traditional antianxiety drugs
B) they may resolve certain cases of anxiety with less chance of addiction
C) many patients with anxiety also have symptoms of depression
D) all of the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) When certain sedative-hypnotics are suddenly discontinued,sleep disturbances may actually increase.This situation is known commonly as A) tardive dyskinesia
B) anterograde amnesia
C) rebound insomnia
D) malignant hyperthermia
E) none of the above are true
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8
Chapter 7: Drugs to Treat Affective Disorders Depression and Bipolar Syndrome
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19955
Sample Questions
Q1) Tricyclic antidepressants work by ______ the reuptake of ______ into the presynaptic terminal of certain CNS neurons.
A) increasing; amine neurotransmitters
B) inhibiting; amine neurotransmitters
C) increasing; amino acids
D) inhibiting; amino acids
E) increasing; acetylcholine
Q2) Patients who begin antidepressant drug therapy often experience a delay of at least ______ before they notice a decrease in depression.
A) 1 to 2 minutes
B) 1 to 2 hours
C) 1 to 2 days
D) 1 to 2 weeks
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 8: Antipsychotic Drugs
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19956
Sample Questions
Q1) Antipsychotic drugs can result in the production of abnormal movement patterns known as
A) intra-articular symptoms
B) extrapyramidal symptoms
C) spinocerebellar symptoms
D) dorsal column symptoms
E) malignant hyperthermia
Q2) Schizophrenia appears to be caused primarily by an overactivity of _______ pathways in certain parts of the brain such as the limbic system.
A) dopamine
B) acetylcholine
C) norepinephrine
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) gama-amino butyric acid (GABA)
Q3) Newer or "atypical" antipsychotics are often preferred because
A) they bind more effectively to dopamine receptors in the basal ganglia
B) they offer a greater chance of curing schizophrenia
C) they are less expensive than traditional agents
D) they have a reduced risk of causing motor side effects
E) they are available without prescription
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Chapter 9: Antiepileptic Drugs
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Newer or "second-generation" antiseizure drugs are helpful in treating certain patients because
A) newer agents generally have milder side effects than traditional antiseizure drugs
B) newer agents have favorable pharmacokinetic characteristics (absorption, distribution, metabolism, and so forth)
C) newer agents can be combined with a traditional antiseizure drug to provide adequate seizure control in patients who did not respond to a single traditional antiseizure agent
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Barbiturates are considered to be very safe and effective in the treatment of seizures,but their use is often limited because of their strong tendency to produce A) sedation
B) myopathy
C) cardiac dysrhythmias
D) hair loss
E) glaucoma
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Chapter 10: Pharmacologic Management of Parkinson Disease
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19958
Sample Questions
Q1) Neuronal death that occurs in Parkinson disease may ultimately be caused by the formation of harmful byproducts of oxygen metabolism,better know as
A) free radicals
B) dopamine antagonists
C) cholinesterase inhibitors
D) monoamine oxidase inhibitors
E) decarboxylase inhibitors
Q2) With regard to levodopa administration,"end-of-dose akinesia" describes the phenomenon where
A) a patient experiences hallucinations and other psychotropic effects of levodopa
B) drug effects follow an on-off pattern throughout the day
C) levodopa seems to become less effective when it is administered for prolonged periods (3 to 4 years)
D) the effectiveness of levodopa seems to wear off prior to the next dose
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 11: General Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following general anesthetics is typically administered by inhalation?
A) barbiturate drugs such as thiopental, thiamylal
B) volatile liquids such as desflurane, enflurane,
C) benzodiazepines such as diazepam, lorazepam, and midazolam
D) opioid analgesics such as fentanyl, morphine, and meperidine
E) ketamine
Q2) Place the stages listed below in the proper sequence that occurs as the dosage of general anesthesia increases.
1) medullary paralysis
2) surgical anesthesia
3) excitement (delirium)
4) analgesia without amnesia
A) 3, 4, 1, 2
B) 4, 3, 2, 1
C) 1, 3, 2, 4
D) 4, 3, 1, 2
E) 3, 4, 2, 1
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13
Chapter 12: Local Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Differential nerve block occurs because small diameter,unmyelinated neurons that convey _______ are the most sensitive to local anesthetics.
A) pain
B) temperature
C) touch
D) proprioception
E) motor impulses
Q2) Intravenous regional anesthesia (Bier block)is achieved by
A) injecting a local anesthetic into a peripheral vein located in a selected limb
B) injecting a general anesthetic into a peripheral vein located in a selected limb
C) injecting a local anesthetic into the superior vena cava
D) injecting a local anesthetic into the inferior vena cava
Q3) Local anesthetics can be administered via all of the following routes EXCEPT
A) transdermally
B) subcutaneous infiltration
C) direct injection into the epidural space
D) direct injection into the third ventricle of the brain
E) direct injection into the subarachnoid space
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14
Chapter 13: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Centrally-acting antispasm drugs such as cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)and carisoprodol (Soma)were originally thought to inhibit polysynaptic reflexes in the spinal cord (polysynaptic inhibitors)but these drugs most likely work by producing
A) decreased acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction
B) decreased calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) generalized sedation in the CNS
D) inhibition of myosin ATPase activity
E) increased vasodilation of skeletal muscle vasculature
Q2) The drug that inhibits spasticity by selectively inhibiting calcium release from skeletal muscle sarcoplasmic reticulum is
A) diazepam
B) baclofen
C) dantrolene sodium
D) tizanidine
E) botulinum toxin
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15
Chapter 14: Opioid Analgesics
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19962
Sample Questions
Q1) Certain patients may fail to respond to opioids or may report increased pain (hyperalgesia)when given opioid drugs.This opioid-induced hyperalgesia is likely due _____ in nociceptive pathways in susceptible patients.
A) increased activity of glutamate
B) decreased activity of substance P
C) increased activity of GABA
D) decreased activity of acetylcholine
E) opioids never cause increased pain when administered in clinical situations
Q2) Opioid drugs exert their analgesics effects by binding to the same receptors as
A) the catecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine)
B) glucocorticoids (cortisol)
C) anabolic steroids (testosterone)
D) endogenous opioids (endorphins, enkephalins)
E) insulin-like growth factor
Q3) Which of the following side effects is NOT associated with opioid drugs?
A) sedation
B) increased respiration
C) constipation
D) orthostatic hypotension
E) mood changes (euphoria)
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Chapter 15: Non-steroidal Anti Inflammatory Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19963
Sample Questions
Q1) It has been suggested that aspirin and other NSAIDs _______ be used to treat pain following surgeries such as spinal fusion because these drugs may ______.
A) should not; inhibit bone healing
B) should; inhibit bone healing
C) should not; enhance bone healing
D) should; enhance bone healing
E) should not; cause excessive sedation and psychotropic effects (hallucinations, etc.)
Q2) High doses of acetaminophen (e.g.,15 g)can be especially toxic to the:
A) heart
B) liver
C) kidneys
D) stomach
E) brain
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17
Chapter 16: Pharmacologic Management of Rheumatoid
Arthritis and Osteoarthritis
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) NSAIDs are effective in treating rheumatoid arthritis because these drugs inhibit the _______ enzyme that initiates ______synthesis.
A) cyclooxygenase; prostaglandin
B) cyclooxygenase; steroid
C) monoamine oxidase; dopamine
D) monoamine; norepinephrine
E) choline acetyltransferase; acetylcholine
Q2) Because of its ability to decrease pain with minimal side effects such as gastric irritation,________ is often considered the drug of choice in mild-to-moderate osteoarthritis.
A) aspirin
B) acetaminophen
C) prednisone
D) cortisone
E) methotrexate
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18
Chapter 17: Patient Controlled Analgesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of drug that is self-administered by the patient each time he or she activates a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)device is known as the
A) loading dose
B) demand dose
C) background infusion rate
D) minimal dosage rate
E) maximal dosage rate
Q2) When opioids (e.g.,morphine,meperidine)are administered via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA),a low dose of ____ can be administered along with the opioid to reduce the amount of opioid needed to produce an adequate analgesic effect.
A) an NSAID such as toradol
B) a general anesthetic such as ketamine
C) an antipsychotic such as droperidol
D) an opioid receptor antagonist (blocker) such as naloxone
E) all the above
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19
Chapter 18: Introduction to Autonomic Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drug that inhibits muscarinic cholinergic receptors will selectively
A) increase sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
B) decrease sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
C) increase parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
D) decrease parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
E) increase responses in all tissues innervated by the autonomic nervous system
Q2) Alpha and beta receptors are the two primary subcategories of
A) muscarinic cholinergic receptors
B) nicotinic cholinergic receptors
C) dopamine receptors
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) adrenergic
Q3) In most peripheral tissues,sympathetic postganglionic neurons release ____ that binds directly to ____ receptors.
A) epinephrine; adrenergic
B) epinephrine; cholinergic
C) norepinephrine; adrenergic
D) norepinephrine; cholinergic
E) acetylcholine; adrenergic
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Cholinergic Drugs
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3 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Indirect-acting cholinergic stimulants increase activity at cholinergic synapses by inhibiting the _______ enzyme
A) monoamine oxidase type A
B) monoamine oxidase type B
C) acetylcholinesterase
D) choline acetyltransferase
E) dopa decarboxylase
Q2) Cholinergic antagonists can be useful in the treatment of the following conditions EXCEPT
A) motion sickness
B) irritable bowel syndrome
C) overactive urinary bladder
D) tachycardia
E) Parkinson disease
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Chapter 20: Adrenergic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drug that selectively stimulates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors will cause
A) vasoconstriction of peripheral arterioles
B) increased heart rate
C) decreased blood pressure
D) bronchodilation
Q2) To increase cardiac output,a drug should selectively _____ receptors on the heart.
A) stimulate; alpha-1
B) inhibit; alpha-1
C) stimulate; alpha-2
D) inhibit; alpha-2
E) stimulate; beta-1
Q3) Stimulation of alpha-2 adrenergic receptors on spinal interneurons typically results in a _______ in excitability of ______ supplied by these interneurons.
A) increase; motor neurons
B) decrease; motor neurons
C) increase; sensory
D) decrease; sensory
E) alpha-2 receptors are not located in the spinal cord
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Chapter 21: Antihypertensive Drugs
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19 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Systemic heat (e.g.Hubbard tank)should be avoided in patients taking ______ drugs because the combination of these two interventions will cause excessive
A) vasodilators
B) alpha-2 antagonists
C) beta-1 agonists
D) beta-2 agonists
E) all the above are true
Q2) Presynaptic adrenergic inhibitors such as reserpine decrease activity at peripheral arterioles by impairing the release of
A) epinephrine
B) norepinephrine
C) acetylcholine
D) dopamine
E) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
Q3) Patients who overdose on diuretics
A) may become hyponatremic
B) may become hypokalemic
C) may lose too much fluid from the vascular system
D) all the above are true
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Treatment of Angina Pectoris
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sudden rupture of atherosclerotic plaques in the coronary artery is a characteristic of ______,and is typically treated with ____.
A) stable; sublingual nitroglycerin combine with a beta blocker or calcium channel blocker
B) unstable; beta blockers combined with nitrates, calcium channel blockers, and antithrombotic drugs
C) stable; norepinephrine and epinephrine
D) unstable; norepinephrine and epinephrine
E) variant; calcium channel blockers
Q2) To avoid the first pass effect,nitroglycerin can be administered
A) sublingually
B) buccally
C) via transdermal patches
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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24
Chapter 23: Treatment of Cardiac Arrhythmias
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Sample Questions
Q1) An antiarrhythmic drug used to treat bradycardia inadvertently creates tachycardia.The most likely reason is that this drug causes _____ of the ______.
A) inhibition; sinoatrial node
B) excitation; sinoatrial node
C) inhibition; bundle of His D) excitation; bundle of His E) inhibition; atrioventricular node
Q2) Calcium channel blockers are useful in treating certain cardiac arrhythmias because they
A) decrease the rate of discharge of the SA node
B) increase conduction velocity through the AV node
C) block the effects of catecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine) on cardiac tissues
D) inhibit the ability of sodium to excite cardiac membranes
E) none of the above are true; calcium channel blockers are not used to treat arrhythmias
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Chapter 24: Treatment of Congestive Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phosphodiesterase inhibitors such as inamrinone and milrinone may help increase myocardial contraction in heart failure by ______ breakdown of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP),which leads to a(n)______ in calcium in cardiac cells.
A) inhibiting; increase
B) stimulating; increase
C) inhibiting; decrease
D) stimulating; decrease
Q2) Digitalis may exert some of its beneficial effects by decreasing heart rate via a(n)_______ in _______ stimulation of the heart.
A) increase; parasympathetic
B) decrease; sympathetic
C) increase; sympathetic
D) decrease; parasympathetic
E) A and B are true
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26
Chapter 25: Treatment of Coagulation Disorders and Hyperlipidemia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oral anticoagulants such as warfarin (Coumadin)decrease the production of several clotting factors in the liver by interfering with the regeneration of
A) tissue thromboplastin
B) tissue plasminogen activator
C) vitamin K
D) vitamin D
E) vitamin C
Q2) Statin drugs such atorvastatin (Lipitor)and simvastatin (Zocor)inhibit the HMG-CoA reductase enzyme,thereby ______ the production of ______.
A) increasing; cholesterol
B) decreasing; cholesterol
C) increasing; low-density lipoproteins
D) decreasing; high-density lipoproteins
E) increasing; triglycerides
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs will promote bronchodilation?
A) drugs that stimulate acetylcholine receptors on airway smooth muscle
B) drugs that block (antagonize) beta-2 receptors on airway smooth muscle
C) xanthine derivatives such as theophylline
D) all of these drugs cause bronchodilation
E) none of these drugs cause bronchodilation
Q2) Treatment of bronchospasm in conditions like asthma are often treated with commercial products that combine ____ with _____.
A) an anti-inflammatory steroid; a beta-2 receptor antagonist
B) an anti-inflammatory steroid; a beta-2 receptor agonist
C) a beta-2 receptor agonist; an acetylcholine agonist
D) an acetylcholine agonist; a beta-2 receptor antagonist
E) a leukotriene blocker; a beta-2 receptor antagonist
Q3) Drugs that antagonize (block)the H1 subtype of histamine receptors
A) are effective in treating gastric ulcers
B) are effective in treating sedation
C) are known as antihistamines
D) all the above are true
E) A and B only are true
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Gastrointestinal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) In many people with gastric ulcers,antibacterial drugs are often combined with proton pump inhibitors to help eliminate ________ infection as a potentiating factor in ulcer formation.
A) h. pylori
B) streptococcal
C) e. coli
D) girardia
E) p. aeruginosa
Q2) Drugs such as cimetidine and ranitidine that selectively block histamine type 2 (H2)receptors on stomach parietal cells
A) prevent the histamine-activated release of gastric acid
B) are available only by prescription
C) are known as antihistamines
D) all of the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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29
Chapter 28: Introduction to Endocrine Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hormones released from the posterior pituitary are synthesized by neurons originating in the
A) anterior pituitary
B) intermediate lobe of the pituitary
C) hypothalamus
D) thalamus
E) cerebellum
Q2) A toxin that selectively destroys the alpha cells of the pancreas would impair the production of
A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) somatostatin
D) digestive proteases
E) digestive lipases
Q3) Steroid hormones share a common chemical framework that is derived from
A) proteins such as insulin
B) insulin-like growth factor
C) carbohydrates such as glucose
D) glycogen
E) lipids such as cholesterol
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Chapter 29: Adrenocorticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs with mineralocorticoid-like activity (aldosterone agonists)are typically administered
A) to treat hypertension
B) to treat inflammation
C) as replacement therapy in people with low renin-angiotensin system activity
D) as replacement therapy whenever the natural production of mineralocorticoids is impaired
E) all the above are true
Q2) Replacement doses of glucocorticoids (e.g.cortisol)and mineralocortoids (e.g.aldosterone)are typically administered to maintain optimal health in patients with A) Addison disease
B) Cushing syndrome
C) hypertension
D) severe muscle wasting (hypercatabolic state)
E) all the above
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Chapter 30: Male and Female Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) In postmenopausal women,estrogen replacement may provide beneficial effects on _____,but may also increase the risk of ____.
A) the heart; osteoporosis
B) bone; cardiovascular disease
C) the kidney; severe hypotension
D) the liver; Alzheimer disease
E) GI function; fibromyalgia
Q2) Drugs that block progesterone receptors (i.e.,antiprogestins)such as mifepristone can be used clinically to
A) terminate pregnancy during the early stages of gestation
B) decrease pain and bleeding caused by benign uterine fibroid growths (leiomyomas, endometriois)
C) prevent hyperglycemia caused by excess cortisol production in Cushing syndrome
D) all the above
E) A and B only
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Chapter 31: Thyroid and Parathyroid Drugs: Agents
Affecting Bone Mineralization
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Q1) Bisphosphonates such as alendronate (Fosamax)and pamidronate (Aredia)reduce bone resorption in osteoporosis and similar conditions by A) inhibiting osteoclast activity
B) increasing calcium absorption for the GI tract
C) decreasing calcium excretion by the kidneys
D) providing a dietary source of calcium
E) all the above are true
Q2) All of the following drug strategies can be used as part of a comprehensive plan to increase bone mineral density in postmenopausal women EXCEPT
A) estrogen replacement
B) bisphosphonates
C) Vitamin C
D) calcium supplements
E) calcitonin
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33
Chapter 32: Pancreatic Hormones and the Treatment of
Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that stimulate insulin secretion (e.g.,sulfonylureas)or increase tissue sensitivity to insulin (e.g.metformin)
A) are used to treat patients with poor glucagon production
B) are effective in some patients with Type I diabetes.
C) are effective in some patients with Type II diabetes.
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true; these drugs have no clinical indications
Q2) Insulin _____ the storage of glucose in skeletal muscle and other tissues,thereby _____ plasma glucose levels after a meal.
A) increases; increasing
B) increases; decreasing C) decreases; increasing
D) decreases; decreasing
E) none of the above are true
Q3) The primary problem in type 2 diabetes is _____.
A) decreased release of glucagon from pancreatic alpha cells
B) increased release of glucagon from pancreatic alpha cells
C) decreased sensitivity of peripheral tissues to circulating insulin
D) increased sensitivity of peripheral tissues to circulating insulin
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E) decreased production of antidiuretic hormone
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Chapter 33: Treatment of Infections I: Antibacterial Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19981
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Q1) Penicillin,cephalosporins,and several other commonly used antibacterial drugs exert their antibacterial effects by inhibiting the function of ______,which results in impaired production of _________ that are essential for normal membrane structure and function.
A) folic acid; nucleic acids
B) penicillin-binding proteins; ribosomes
C) folic acid; ribosomes
D) penicillin-binding proteins; peptidoglycans
E) nucleic acids; folic acids
Q2) Bacteria can become resistant to antibacterial drugs by
A) developing enzymes that destroy the drug
B) modifying or masking the site where the antibacterial drug typically binds on or within the bacterial cell
C) modifying the bacterial enzymes normally targeted by the drug
D) developing drug efflux pumps that expel the drug from the bacterial cell
E) all the above are true
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Chapter 34: Treatment of Infections II: Antiviral Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19982
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Q1) Interferons are small proteins that
A) exert nonspecific antiviral activity
B) control cell differentiation
C) limit excessive cell proliferation
D) modify certain immune processes
E) all the above are true
Q2) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors such as zidovudine,didanosine,and lamivudine are especially important for physical therapists because they may cause side effects such as
A) peripheral neuropathy
B) myopathy
C) joint pain
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 35: Treatment of Infections III: Antifungal and Antiparasitic Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19983
Sample Questions
Q1) Severe,systemic fungal infections are more likely if
A) patients are taking systemic doses of glucocorticoids
B) patients are taking systemic doses of other antibiotics
C) patients have AIDS
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Cutaneous and mucocutaneous infections such as tinea (ringworm)infections and candidiasis are typically treated with
A) local or topical antibacterial drugs
B) local or topical antifungal drugs
C) systemic doses of antibacterial drugs
D) systemic doses of antifungal drugs
E) antiviral drugs
Q3) Tapeworms (cestodes),roundworms (nematodes),and flukes (trematodes)are treated with A) antifungal drugs
B) antiprotozoal drugs
C) anthelmintic drugs
D) antibacterial drugs
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 36: Cancer Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anti-cancer drugs are classified as cell-cycle-nonspecific if they exert antineoplastic effects on the cell only when it is in the _______ phase of the cell cycle.
A) G1
B) G2
C) S
D) M
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Monoclonal antibodies may be especially effective in treating certain cancers because these drugs
A) create a strong alkyl reaction with the DNA molecule
B) directly inhibit the topoisomerase enzyme responsible for DNA synthesis
C) are attracted directly to the cancer cell, without an appreciable affect on healthy tissues
D) directly inhibit the mitotic apparatus that is responsible for controlling cell division (mitosis)
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 37: Immunomodulating Agents
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19985
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs are used to suppress the immune system
A) to prevent rejection of transplanted organs or tissues
B) to limit immune-mediated damage to the body's tissues
C) to treat autoimmune diseases
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Glucocorticoids such as prednisone are often used to suppress immune function following organ transplant,but long-term use of these drugs can also cause A) hypertension
B) increased chance of infection
C) adrenocortical suppression
D) breakdown of muscle, bone, skin, and various other tissues
E) all the above are true
Q3) All of the following drugs can be used to suppress the immune system EXCEPT
A) azathioprine
B) cyclophosphamide
C) cyclosporine
D) immunoglobulin G
E) methotrexate
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