Pharmacology for Occupational Therapists Review
Questions
Course Introduction
This course introduces occupational therapy students to fundamental concepts of pharmacology relevant to clinical practice. It covers the basic principles of drug actions, pharmacokinetics, and pharmacodynamics, with emphasis on the classes of medications most commonly encountered in rehabilitation settings. Students will explore the therapeutic effects, adverse reactions, and interactions of drugs frequently prescribed to individuals with physical, cognitive, or psychosocial impairments. The course also highlights the occupational therapists role in medication management, patient education, and the collaborative healthcare team, preparing students to integrate pharmacological knowledge into safe and effective intervention planning.
Recommended Textbook Pharmacology for Rehabilitation Professionals 2nd Edition by Barbara Gladson
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27 Chapters
430 Verified Questions
430 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approval for marketing of a drug is done by the __________.
A)Food and Drug Administration
B)U.S.Health Department
C)American Medical Association
D)National Institute of Health
Answer: A
Q2) Before a drug is approved,the company must submit data verifying that the drug
A)is efficacious
B)has acceptable toxicity
C)should be marketed at a particular dose and indication
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) Drugs can be classified and grouped pharmacologically and therapeutically according to their __________.
A)chemical structures
B)source or origin
C)mode of action
D)All of the above
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Pharmacodynamics: Mechanism of Action
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9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following receptor types causes the formation of second messengers?
A)Ion channel linked receptors
B)G-protein linked receptors
C)Kinase linked receptors
D)DNA coupled receptors
Answer: B
Q2) The correct sequence of the second messenger forming elements is _________.
A)drug, receptor, enzyme, G-protein, second messenger
B)drug, receptor, G-protein, enzyme, second messenger
C)drug, G-protein, receptor, enzyme, second messenger
D)drug, enzyme, receptor, G protein, second messenger
Answer: B
Q3) Chemical groups or sites on the cell surface with which drugs combine to produce effects are _________.
A)antagonist
B)agonists
C)molecular targets (receptors)
D)placebos
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Pharmacokinetics and Drug Dosing
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rate of passive diffusion ___________.
A)follows the law of mass action
B)is independent of molecular weight of the drug
C)depends mostly on the concentration gradient
D)All of the above
Answer: C
Q2) Elimination of drugs ___________.
A)is enhanced at old age
B)is reduced markedly during cardiovascular diseases
C)is most frequently increased during multiple drug therapies
D)none of the above
Answer: D
Q3) All of the following statements concerning p450 enzymes are true except that they ___________.
A)are located in the endoplasmic reticulum of liver cells
B)consist of hundreds of isoenzymes
C)are classified using the abbreviation CYP
D)specifically metabolize drugs
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Adverse Drug Reactions
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8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A type IV allergic drug reaction __________.
A)responds well to antihistamines and steroids
B)shows drug specific toxic reactions
C)is more severe as the dose of the drug is increased
D)involves T-lymphocytes
Q2) A type I allergic drug reaction __________.
A)starts after about 10-20 hrs after drug ingestion
B)involves the action of serotonin
C)can be life-threatening
D)is quite resistant to treatment
Q3) A drug should only be prescribed if the __________.
A)benefit outweighs the risk
B)drug has no serious adverse reactions
C)drug is affordable by the patient
D)patient is not pregnant
Q4) An adverse drug event or ADE refers to __________.
A)toxic reactions of a drug
B)prescription errors
C)administration errors
D)All of the above
6
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Chapter 5: Drugs Acting on the Autonomic Nervous System
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscarinic receptors are located at all of the following except the
A)blood vessels
B)bladder
C)bronchi
D)adrenal medulla
Q2) Noradrenergic neurotransmission involves ______________.
A)synthesis of norepinephrine (NE) by monoamine oxidase or MAO
B)synthesis of NE from epinephrine
C)interaction with adrenergic gamma and delta receptors
D)termination of action which is usually via re-uptake into the neuron
Q3) -Adrenoceptors show the strongest response to which of the following agonists?
A) agonists
B)Catcholamines
C) agonists
D) blockers
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Chapter 6: Antihypertensive
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a vasodilator?
A)Nitric oxide
B)Prostaglandins, specifically PGI
C)Angiotensin II
D)C natriuretic peptides
Q2) Therapeutic actions of -blockers include __________.
A)bronchoconstriction
B)reflex peripheral vasoconstriction
C)decreased renin release
D)increased sodium retention
Q3) To maintain normal blood pressure,the body has reflex mechanisms available.Which of the following reflex mechanisms helps to maintain normal blood pressure?
A)Increased pressure increases heart rate
B)Increased pressure reduces heart rate
C)Decreased blood pressure decreases heart rate
D)Decreased blood pressure decreases peripheral resistance
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Chapter 7: Drug Therapy of Coronary Atherosclerosis and Its Repercussions
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following interventions is contraindicated in patients receiving anticoagulant therapy?
A)Rigorous manual techniques
B)Chest percussions
C)Deep tissue massages
D)All of the above
Q2) A patient who has been taking oral anticoagulants (warfarin)for stroke prevention is admitted to the emergency room with GI bleeding.The therapist should anticipate the patient receiving which of the following?
A)Vitamin K
B)Vitamin E
C)A plasmin supplement
D)Vitamin C
Q3) Which of the following statements about statin drugs is false?
A)They inhibit endogenous formation of cholesterol.
B)They vary greatly in efficacy.
C)They carry the risk of liver and muscle damage.
D)Cost can be a factor in choosing the right drug.
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Chapter 8: Drug Therapy for Congestive Heart Failure and Cardiac Arrhythmias
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ACE inhibitors __________.
A)reduce mostly contractility
B)are the drugs of last choice
C)can increase the development of atherosclerosis
D)can cause a severe cough and angioedema
Q2) Which of the following statements is false?
A)Many anti-arrhythmic drugs have a positive inotropic effect and lead to exercise enhancement.
B)Drug controlled arrhythmias can again emerge during exercise.
C)Checking the pulse can detect rhythm irregularities.
D)Hypokalemia increases the risk of arrhythmias.
Q3) Hyperkalemia can occur with all of the following drugs except __________.
A)ACE inhibitors
B)angiotensin II receptor blockers
C)aldosterone blockers
D)loop diuretics
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10
Chapter 9: Drug Therapy for Pulmonary Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inflamed bronchi can become hyper-active in response to all of the following except
A)exercise
B)cold, dry air
C)allergens
D)All of the above
Q2) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is treated with all of the following drugs except ______________.
A)corticosteroids
B)beta 2 agonists
C)muscarinic antagonists
D)antihistamines
Q3) Leukotriene affecting drugs ______________.
A)can be divided into synthesis inhibitors and receptor blockers
B)are only used as monotherapy
C)are contraindicated in children
D)are highly effective but carry many adverse reactions
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Chapter 10: Anesthetic Agents
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rate at which an inhaled anesthetic agent reaches the brain is least determined by ____________.
A)solubility of the anesthetic in the blood
B)concentration of the anesthetic in the inspired air
C)rate and depth of respiration
D)metabolism of the anesthetic
Q2) Local anesthetics ____________.
A)can be divided into ester and acid drugs
B)are often combined with alpha antagonists
C)if accidentally injected into a blood vessel cause paralysis and respiratory failure
D)block Na channels and prevent initiation of pain impulses
Q3) A patient seen post-op for therapy ____________.
A)may still be confused
B)should suppress coughing
C)should be encouraged to breathe slowly
D)may engage in strengthening activities
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Chapter 11: Drugs for the Treatment of Pain and Inflammation
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The action of prostaglandins includes which of the following?
A)uterine relaxation
B)reduction in body temperature
C)stabilization of gastric mucosa
D)vasodilatation of renal blood supply
Q2) Adverse effects of opioids include which of the following?
A)Respiratory depression
B)Pupil dilation
C)Increased GI smooth muscle tone
D)Weight loss
Q3) NSAIDs drugs can be divided into _______________.
A)COX 1 and 2 inhibitors
B)COX 2 inhibitors
C)COX 3 inhibitors
D)All of the above
Q4) NSAIDs drugs _______________.
A)block the conversion of arachadonic acid to prostaglandin formation
B)are antiinflammatory at lower and analgesic at higher doses
C)differ markedly in efficacy
D)differ significantly in their adverse reactions
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Chapter 12: Drug Treatment for Arthritis-Related Conditions
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements is false?
A)Indomethacin is used frequently to reduce the inflammation and pain of acute gout.
B)Patients who do not respond to indomethacin or colchicine can be treated with prednisone.
C)Thiazide diuretics are often added to indomethacin to increase uric acid excretion by the kidneys.
D)Low doses of aspirin can decrease uric acid excretion by the kidneys.
Q2) Which one of the following statements concerning methotrexate is false?
A)It should only be used as monotherapy.
B)It can cause some hepatotoxicity.
C)NSAIDs can increase the drug's adverse reactions.
D)It can reduce the risk of cardiac mortality linked to RA.
Q3) Therapists should observe patients being treated with anti-rheumatic drugs for
A)skin rashes
B)easy bruising
C)dehydration
D)All of the above
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14
Chapter 13: Selective Topics in Endocrine Pharmacology
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Exogenous estrogens ________________.
A)increase the risk of manic episodes
B)increase the risk of endometrial cancer
C)decrease bone density
D)cause muscle weakness
Q2) Plan B drug ________________.
A)uses levonorgestrel which expels the implanted egg
B)is now available on the pharmacy shelf without a prescription C)must be taken within 72 hours
D)can terminate an existing pregnancy
Q3) Testosterone is indicated in the treatment of anemia for which of the following reasons?
A)It facilitates the effect of growth hormone.
B)It stimulates erythropoietin release.
C)It interacts with estrogen receptors.
D)It stimulates the synthesis of protein.
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15
Chapter 14: Drug Treatment for Osteoporosis and Diabetes
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hyperglycemia can be recognized not only by excessive thirst and polyuria but also by ______________.
A)slow healing wounds and cuts
B)vision problems
C)cold and insensitive feet
D)All of the above
Q2) The following diagnostic tests use ______________.
A)blood glucose measurements to evaluate current glucose levels
B)A1C tests to evaluate blood glucose levels after a sugar load
C)blood creatinine levels to evaluate liver damage
D)fasting blood glucose level to measure pre-prandial glucose levels
Q3) Which of the following activities is contraindicated in type 1 diabetes shortly after an insulin injection?
A)Ankle pumps
B)Fine motor activities
C)Grip strengthening
D)Abdominal curl-ups
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Chapter 15: Drugs for Epilepsy and Attention
Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with partial seizures needs a drug which is less sedating.The physician might prescribe _________.
A)Phenytoin
B)Zonisamide
C)Carbamazepine
D)Lamotrigine
Q2) Seizure(s)_________.
A)manifest themselves as convulsions
B)result usually from diminished brain activity
C)type is determined by which brain area is affected
D)are acute events and do not produce after effects
Q3) Which of the following may be given with an opioid for the treatment of neuropathic pain syndromes?
A)Antihistamines
B)Anticholinergics
C)Anticonvulsants
D)NSAIDs
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Antispasticity Medications and Skeletal Muscle
Relaxants
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14 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient treated with antispastic medications would not be expected to experience
A)muscle weakness
B)decreased walking speed
C)renal problems
D)sedation
Q2) The drug with the longest duration of action is _____________.
A)botulinus toxin
B)diazepam
C)cyclobenzaprine
D)baclofen
Q3) Botulinus toxins _____________.
A)consist of two distinct species
B)begin working within 2 hours
C)have been associated with some muscle necrosis
D)might cause some transient muscle weakness
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Chapter 17: Pharmacologic Management of Degenerative Neurologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is assumed that in the brains of patients with Parkinson's disease there exists an imbalance between the _____________.
A)serotonin and norepinephrine systems
B)acetylcholine and dopamine systems
C)glutamine and GABA systems
D)endorphin and enkephalin systems
Q2) Glatiramar _____________.
A)is a mixture of carbohydrates with lipids resembling myelin
B)prevents the autoimmune response but is not antiinflammatory
C)is more efficacious but also more toxic than the interferons
D)acts as a myelin decoy
Q3) Which one of the following causes does not seem to be involved in the pathogenesis of multiple sclerosis?
A)Autoimmune/inflammatory processes involving T cell activities
B)Selective destruction of myelin sheet
C)Increased glutamate release
D)Selective destruction of axons
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Chapter 18: Drug Treatment for Depression and Anxiety
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) SSRIs have _______________.
A)anticholinergic effects
B)antihistaminic effects
C)antiadrenergic effects
D)None of the above
Q2) Which of the following statements is correct?
A)Barbiturates but not benzodiazepines can cause physical dependence.
B)Barbiturates and benzodiazepines have the same mode of action.
C)Barbiturates and benzodiazepines can cause tolerance.
D)Benzodiazepines are more efficacious in inducing p450 enzymes.
Q3) All of the following can be ADRs of tricyclic treatment except _______________.
A)anticholinergic reactions
B)antihistaminic reactions
C)antiadrenergic reactions
D)antidopaminergic reactions
Q4) Which of the drug class-drug combinations is a mismatch?
A)Tricyclics - amitriptyline
B)SSRIs - fluoxetine
C)MAO inhibitors - moclobenide
D)anti-pychotic - paroxetine
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Drug Treatment for Schizophrenia and Bipolar Illness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs for biopolar disorder have the lowest therapeutic index?
A)Lithium
B)Valproate
C)Carbamazepine
D)Lamotrigine
Q2) Anti-psychotic agents may cause osteoporosis secondary to elevation of which of the following hormones?
A)Thyroid releasing hormone
B)Prolactin
C)Cortisol
D)Estrogen
Q3) Treatment for tardive dyskinesia may include which of the following?
A)Adding an anticholinergic agent
B)Increasing the dose of the antipsychotic agent
C)Eliminating all dopaminergic blockade
D)Reducing GABAergic activity
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21
Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common cause of resistance to penicillins?
A)Inactivation of -lactamases
B)Alteration of target penicillin-binding proteins
C)Permeability barriers
D)Altered metabolic pathway
Q2) The treatment choice for serious infections caused by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is which of the following?
A)Penicillin G
B)Tetracyclines
C)Vancomycin
D)Amoxicillin
Q3) A difference between gram-positive organisms and gram-negative organisms is that the negative organisms contain which of the following?
A) -lactamases
B)Peptidoglycan strands
C)Penicillin-binding proteins
D)An outer and inner membrane
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22
Chapter 21: Antiviral Agents and Selected Drugs for Fungal
Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primary HIV infection is characterized by which of the following?
A)Kaposi's sarcoma
B)Flu-like symptoms
C)CD8 counts under 200
D)Lypodystrophy
Q2) Patients with chronic viral infections (hepatitis and/or HIV)who are taking anti-viral agents may show lower exercise performance due to which of the following mechanisms?
A)Myelosuppression
B)Fatigue
C)Peripheral neuropathy
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding viruses?
A)Replication reaches peak before symptoms appear.
B)Viruses can replicate independently from the host cells.
C)Viruses uncoat in a basic environment.
D)Antiviral agents inhibit multiple steps in the replication cycle.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Cytotoxic Agents and Immune Modulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a transplant is treated with an immunosuppressant drug.to help reduce the risk of _______________.
A)infections
B)hepatotoxicity
C)nephrotoxicity
D)neurotoxicity
Q2) Which of the following therapeutic interventions would you most likely be using with a patient taking a tubulin-binding agent for bladder cancer?
A)Measurement of the VO m on a treadmill
B)Whirlpool
C)Extension splinting of the wrist
D)Ultrasound to the knee
Q3) Monoclonal antibodies _______________.
A)are now used solely for the treatment of leukemias
B)can easily be recognized since they end in -cab
C)have more selective actions
D)show a large number of adverse reactions
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24
Chapter 23: Drugs for Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following explains the mechanism of action of antacids?
A)Reduces secretion of mucus
B)Stimulates somatostatin
C)Neutralizes the gastric acidity
D)Reduces prostaglandin release
Q2) Which of the following drug categories may be used as an anti-emetic?
A)Anticholinerigcs
B)Antihistamines
C)Neuroleptic agents
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following defines probiotics?
A)Microorganisms that stimulate the growth of beneficial organisms within the gastrointestinal
B)Bulking agents that reduce constipation predominant IBS
C)Antispasmodic agents that act directly on intestinal smooth muscle
D)Saline laxatives that increase osmotic pressure in the small intestine
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25
Chapter 24: Vitamins and Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is using phenytoin and might be told to supplement with ____________.
A)vitamin B
B)vitamin D
C)chromium
D)magnesium
Q2) The intake of large doses of vitamins or minerals might not help but is safe since ____________.
A)these are natural products necessary for bodily functions
B)excesses are quickly metabolized before toxicity occurs
C)excesses are quickly excreted before toxicity occurs
D)None of the above
Q3) It is possible to overdose on MVMPs if taken in excess by ____________.
A)toddlers
B)AIDS patients
C)frail older individuals
D)cancer patients
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26
Chapter 25: Topical Drugs and Treatments Used in Wound Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) ALUs ______________.
A)are often associated with use of antihypertensive drugs
B)can be helped by revascularization
C)debridement should be done before re-vascularization
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following has been shown to significantly promote wound healing?
A)Silver based dressings
B)Human platelet derived growth factor
C)Human growth factor
D)Interferons
Q3) The most distinguishing sign between an inflammation and an infection is ______________.
A)color of redness
B)presence of pus
C)degree of swelling
D)All of the above
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Chapter 26: Complementary and Alternative Medicine in Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is contraindicated for the treatment of a 52-year-old woman who suffers from vasomotor instability related to menopause and who also has high risk factors for cardiac disease?
A)Hormone replacement therapy (estrogen and medroxyprogesterone)
B)SSRIs
C)Antiepilepsy drugs
D)Phytoestrogens such as soy
Q2) Which of the following may be beneficial effects of CoQ10?
A)Lowers blood pressure
B)Reduces the myopathy that may occur with statin drugs
C)Improves exercise tolerance in patients with heart failure
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following would be a legal claim for marketing a dietary supplement?
A)Lowers blood pressure
B)Is heart healthy
C)Lowers cholesterol
D)Prevents cardiovascular disease
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Chapter 27: Drugs of Abuse: Anabolic Steroids and Other Doping Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pharmacological treatment of alcoholism involves the use of all of the following drugs except ___________.
A)antabuse
B)naltrexone
C)acamprosate
D)varenicline
Q2) The neurotransmitter system that has been mostly implicated in addiction is the ___________ system.
A)cholinergic
B)dopamine
C)norepinephrine
D)serotonin
Q3) Alcohol is metabolized in the average individual at about ___________.
A)1-2 ml/hr
B)3-5 ml/hr
C)5-10 ml/hr
D)10-20 ml/hr
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