Pharmacology for Occupational Therapists
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course introduces occupational therapy students to the fundamental principles of pharmacology as they relate to therapeutic practice. Students will explore the mechanisms of action, therapeutic effects, side effects, and potential interactions of commonly prescribed medications that may impact occupational performance. Special emphasis is placed on medications used to manage conditions frequently encountered in occupational therapy settings, including neurological, musculoskeletal, psychiatric, and chronic medical disorders. The course also covers safe medication management, patient education, and the role of the occupational therapist in interdisciplinary healthcare teams, preparing students to make informed decisions that support holistic patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology for Rehabilitation Professionals 2nd Edition by Barbara Gladson
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27 Chapters
430 Verified Questions
430 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical trials of a new drug are divided into 4 phases.Which description is correct?
A)Phase I tests the drug in only 20 patients who are mildly ill.
B)Phase II tests the drug in about 40-50 patients who are seriously ill.
C)Phase III tests the drug in about 3000-10,000 patients.
D)Phase IV re-tests the drug in about 500 patients who were previously drug non-responders.
Answer: C
Q2) Controlled substances are divided into schedules.Which of the following schedule descriptions is false?
A)Schedule I: Substances used for research only with no clinical use.
B)Schedule II: Drugs with a high potential for physical and psychological abuse but limited medical use with no refills.
C)Schedule III: Drugs with moderate potential for abuse and wider therapeutic use but refills allowed.
D)Schedule IV: Drugs with no potential for abuse and wide therapeutic use and unlimited refills allowed.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Pharmacodynamics: Mechanism of Action
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the dose-response curve (increasing doses vs.physiological effects)of an agonist is plotted and then another curve is obtained when an antagonist has been added to the agonist,then the second curve is moved _________.
A)parallel to the left in case of a competitive antagonist
B)parallel to the right in case of a competitive antagonist
C)parallel to the left in case of a non-competitive antagonist
D)parallel to the right in case of a non-competitive antagonist
Answer: B
Q2) With a dose-response curve,the Kd ______________.
A)is the dose necessary to achieve Emax
B)is the dose at half the Emax
C)determines efficacy
D)is equivalent to the toxic index
Answer: B
Q3) Agonists _________.
A)bind selectively to a receptor but do not change its conformation
B)can be divided into reversible and irreversible agonists
C)after chronic use can decrease the number of receptors
D)All of the above
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Pharmacokinetics and Drug Dosing
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following may affect the duration of a drug's effects except
A)the rate of metabolism from active drugs to inactive metabolites
B)the rate of absorption into the bloodstream
C)the rate of excretion of inactive metabolites
D)the amount of protein binding
Answer: C
Q2) First pass effect means that a drug ___________.
A)causes full clinical response the first time it passes through the target organ
B)penetrates very quickly through cell membranes
C)is very quickly absorbed from the GI tract
D)is quickly metabolized after absorption from the intestines by the liver
Answer: D
Q3) A drug has a half-life of 3 hours,which means ___________.
A)it takes 2 doses to achieve steady state drug levels in the body
B)it takes 21 hours for the body to be drug free after drug therapy has stopped
C)the drug should be taken every 3 hours
D)none of the above
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Adverse Drug Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A food-drug interaction can be caused by __________.
A)acidic foods and weak basic drugs
B)milk
C)grapefruit juice
D)All of the above
Q2) Adverse drug reactions (ADRs)__________.
A)are caused solely by the drug
B)can be predicted if a drug has been used for a long period of time
C)occur less in the elderly
D)none of the above
Q3) An adverse drug event or ADE refers to __________.
A)toxic reactions of a drug
B)prescription errors
C)administration errors
D)All of the above
Q4) A type I allergic drug reaction __________.
A)starts after about 10-20 hrs after drug ingestion
B)involves the action of serotonin
C)can be life-threatening
D)is quite resistant to treatment
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Chapter 5: Drugs Acting on the Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nicotinic receptors are located at all of the following except the ______________.
A)skeletal muscles
B)autonomic ganglia
C)brain
D)heart
Q2) -Adrenoceptors show the strongest response to which of the following agonists?
A) agonists
B)Catcholamines
C) agonists
D) blockers
Q3) Beta 1 receptors are predominantly located at the ______________.
A)heart
B)bronchi
C)GI tract
D)All of the above
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Chapter 6: Antihypertensive
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Sample Questions
Q1) To maintain normal blood pressure,the body has reflex mechanisms available.Which of the following reflex mechanisms helps to maintain normal blood pressure?
A)Increased pressure increases heart rate
B)Increased pressure reduces heart rate
C)Decreased blood pressure decreases heart rate
D)Decreased blood pressure decreases peripheral resistance
Q2) Which of the following statements is false?
A)Normal blood pressure is considered to be 130 over 90
B)Prehypertension is usually treated with diet and exercise
C)Stage I hypertension may be treated first with thiazide diuretics followed by other antihypertensive drugs if needed
D)Severe hypertension is usually treated with two or even three drug combinations
Q3) The ethnic group most affected by hypertension is ___________.
A)white Americans
B)black Americans
C)Hispanics
D)there is no difference among ethnic groups
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8
Chapter 7: Drug Therapy of Coronary Atherosclerosis and Its Repercussions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients using aspirin _________.
A)should be watched for bruising and joint swelling
B)and NSAIDs simultaneously experience reduced aspirin effects
C)can expect adverse GI-effects
D)and experiencing the first signs of a MI or stroke should take one 325 mg aspirin
Q2) Which one of the following combinations is false?
A)Nitrates can cause a throbbing headache.
B)Beta-blockers can cause dyspnea during exercise.
C)Calcium channel blockers can cause a severe cough.
D)All of the above
Q3) Which one of the following statements concerning warfarin is false?
A)It interferes with the synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors.
B)Ingestion of large amounts of broccoli and cauliflower enhance its activity.
C)It should not be used during pregnancy.
D)It takes as many as 5 days to reach therapeutic levels.
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Chapter 8: Drug Therapy for Congestive Heart Failure and Cardiac Arrhythmias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hyperkalemia can occur with all of the following drugs except __________.
A)ACE inhibitors
B)angiotensin II receptor blockers
C)aldosterone blockers
D)loop diuretics
Q2) Class III drugs include amiodarone which __________.
A)is less commonly used because of low efficacy
B)has low toxicity
C)is frequently used for ventricular arrhythmias
D)can cause a bluish discoloration of exposed areas of the skin
Q3) Early typical warning signs of arrhythmias include all of the following except
A)fatigue
B)nausea and vomiting
C)irregular heart beat
D)absence of any signs or symptoms
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Chapter 9: Drug Therapy for Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inflamed bronchi can become hyper-active in response to all of the following except
A)exercise
B)cold, dry air
C)allergens
D)All of the above
Q2) Status asthmaticus ______________.
A)can be caused by too frequent applications of leukotriene antagonists
B)can be precipitated by the formation of airflow impairing mucus plugs
C)is usually self-limiting
D)All of the above
Q3) Further questioning of this patient revealed that she suffers at least four asthmatic episodes per week.Which of the following drugs would be most useful in providing a sustained resolution of her symptoms?
A)IV steriods
B)Leukotriene antagonists
C)Inhaled agonists
D)Coffee
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Chapter 10: Anesthetic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients being seen soon after a nerve block might ____________.
A)be somewhat confused
B)show slightly increased muscular strength
C)show slightly decreased sensory function
D)be treated aggressively
Q2) Which one of the following drugs is used in a balanced anesthesia?
A)NSAIDs
B)Opioids
C)Respiratory stimulants
D)Oral antidiabetic drugs
Q3) A patient with COPD should receive which of the following drugs prior to surgery?
A)Bronchodilators
B)Aspirin
C)Anti-viral agents
D)Opioids
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12
Chapter 11: Drugs for the Treatment of Pain and Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Opioids are classified into _______________.
A)strong opioids like codeine and propoxyphene
B)weak opioids like fentanyl and meperidine
C)mixed agonists like naloxone and naltrexone
D)none of the above
Q2) The action of prostaglandins includes which of the following?
A)uterine relaxation
B)reduction in body temperature
C)stabilization of gastric mucosa
D)vasodilatation of renal blood supply
Q3) The hallmarks of an early inflammation are _______________.
A)redness and pain
B)swelling and warmth
C)tissue destruction
D)All of the above
Q4) Adverse effects of opioids include which of the following?
A)Respiratory depression
B)Pupil dilation
C)Increased GI smooth muscle tone
D)Weight loss
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Chapter 12: Drug Treatment for Arthritis-Related Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements is correct?
A)Probenicid and sulfinpyrazone increase renal uric acid excretion.
B)Increased fluid intake is ineffective since it does not increase uric acid secretion.
C)Allopurinol increases the metabolism of uric acid by the body.
D)All of the above
Q2) Tumor necrosis factor inhibitors ________________.
A)include etanercept, adalimumab and infliximab
B)are used orally or by injection
C)have also been shown to reduce the risk of infections
D)All of the above
Q3) Which one of the following statements is false?
A)Indomethacin is used frequently to reduce the inflammation and pain of acute gout.
B)Patients who do not respond to indomethacin or colchicine can be treated with prednisone.
C)Thiazide diuretics are often added to indomethacin to increase uric acid excretion by the kidneys.
D)Low doses of aspirin can decrease uric acid excretion by the kidneys.
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Chapter 13: Selective Topics in Endocrine Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) HRT with estrogen and medroxyprogesterone is not recommended for which of the following patients?
A)52-year-old women with recurrent colon polyps
B)60-year-old women with histories of steroid use and hip fractures
C)Postmenopausal women with strong family histories of breast cancer
D)Women undergoing menopause who are experiencing severe vasomotor instability
Q2) Which one of the following is contraindicated for the treatment of a 52-year-old woman who suffers from vasomotor instability related to menopause and who also has high risk factors for cardiac disease?
A)Hormone replacement therapy (estrogen and medroxyprogesterone)
B)SSRIs
C)Antiepilepsy drugs
D)Phytoestrogens such as soy
Q3) Which one of the following statements concerning erectile dysfunction or ED is correct?
A)Smoking, hypertension and diabetes have only negligible effects on ED.
B)Drugs used to treat ED stimulate muscarinic receptors promoting an erection.
C)Drugs can cause a runny nose and taste disturbances.
D)Drugs can cause a dangerous drop in blood pressure when taken with nitrates.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Drug Treatment for Osteoporosis and Diabetes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insulin requires particular care in that ______________.
A)it must always be kept in a refrigerator
B)it can be stored in syringes in the refrigerator for a few days
C)freezing unused insulin prolongs its shelf life
D)All of the above
Q2) The following diagnostic tests use ______________.
A)blood glucose measurements to evaluate current glucose levels
B)A1C tests to evaluate blood glucose levels after a sugar load
C)blood creatinine levels to evaluate liver damage
D)fasting blood glucose level to measure pre-prandial glucose levels
Q3) Which of the following insulin regimens offers the greatest flexibility in terms of food intake and timing of meals?
A)Multiple dosing with bedtime intermediate
B)Split and mixed
C)Multiple dosing with morning peakless insulin
D)Split and mixed with bedtime intermediate
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Chapter 15: Drugs for Epilepsy and Attention
Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient receiving anti-epileptic medications might mostly experience
A)sedation and ataxia
B)tachycardia and hypertension
C)weight loss and kidney stone formation
D)All of the above
Q2) The main action of anti-epileptic drugs include all except _________.
A)enhancement of GABA action
B)blockade of Na channels
C)blockade of Ca channels
D)reduction of acetylcholine synthesis
Q3) Phenytoin _________.
A)blocks GABA action
B)can cause gingival hyperplasia
C)can lower blood glucose
D)shows mostly renal toxicity
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Chapter 16: Antispasticity Medications and Skeletal Muscle
Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tizanidine _____________.
A)interacts with beta 1 receptors in the CNS
B)affects mostly monosynaptic pathways
C)treated patients must be watched for signs of tachycardia and hypertension
D)shows the least muscle weakness among antispastic medications
Q2) Which of the following statements is correct?
A)Botulinus toxin selectively destroys skeletal muscle cholinergic receptors.
B)A nerve block is caused by an injected chemical which impairs nerve function.
C)Ethanol causes a nerve block lasting up to 6 months.
D)Ethanol selectively destroys the spinal nerve terminals.
Q3) Baclofen _____________.
A)is an analog of the neurotransmitter glutamic acid
B)may improve memory and attention
C)in overdose causes extreme agitation and seizures
D)can reduce spasticity and improve gait and ADLs
Q4) Which of the following drugs is used for muscle spasms?
A)Tizanidine
B)Cyclobenzaprine
C)Botulinus toxin
D)Dantrolene
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Chapter 17: Pharmacologic Management of Degenerative Neurologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is designed to bridge the gap between NSAIDs and DMARDs?
A)Corticosteroid
B)Interferons
C)Glatiramer
D)Methotrexate
Q2) Alzheimer's disease or AD is characterized by plaques and tangles as well as a marked loss of _____________.
A)cholinergic receptors
B)melatonin receptors
C)enkephalin receptors
D)norepinephrine receptors
Q3) Modafinil _____________.
A)reduces inflammation by suppression of T cells
B)is antispastic but causes severe fatigue
C)is associated with anorexia
D)increases wakefulness and alertness
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Chapter 18: Drug Treatment for Depression and Anxiety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Buspirone _______________.
A)acts mostly on norepinephrine receptors
B)has a delayed (about 3 weeks) onset of action
C)is more effective than the benzodiazepines but also more toxic
D)All of the above
Q2) A patient treated with SSRIs might experience _______________.
A)sedation
B)orthostatic hypotension
C)arrhythmias
D)akathisia
Q3) All of the following are typical side effects of benzodiazepine except
A)unsteadiness
B)sleepiness
C)agitation
D)memory lapses
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Drug Treatment for Schizophrenia and Bipolar
Illness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following signs of Schizophrenia respond poorly to anti-psychotic agents?
A)Hallucinations
B)Flattened emotions
C)Posturing
D)Echopraxia
Q2) Therapists treating exercising patients on anti-psychotic agents should be especially concerned about which of the following?
A)Impaired thermoregulation
B)Prolactinemia
C)Amenorrhea
D)Agranulocytosis
Q3) Patients taking anti-psychotic medications are at risk for which of the following cardiac abnormalities?
A)Congestive heart failure
B)Prolonged Q-T syndrome
C)Mitral valve stenosis
D)Aortic stenosis
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Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primary use for penicillins is in the treatment of which of the following?
A)Gram-positive bacteria
B)Acid-fast bacilli
C)Spirochetes
D)Rickettsiae
Q2) A difference between gram-positive organisms and gram-negative organisms is that the negative organisms contain which of the following?
A) -lactamases
B)Peptidoglycan strands
C)Penicillin-binding proteins
D)An outer and inner membrane
Q3) A side effect of the long-term use of antibiotics for nearly all in the category includes which of the following?
A)Discoloration of the teeth
B)Clostridium difficile enteritis
C)Kidney failure
D)Liver failure
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Chapter 21: Antiviral Agents and Selected Drugs for Fungal
Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Current treatment for HCV includes which of the following regimens?
A)AZT and ritonavir
B)Amantedine and zanamivir
C)Peginterferon and ribavarin
D)Adefovir and ritonavir
Q2) Nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase inhibitors work by which of the following actions?
A)Bind to the reverse transcriptase enzyme to inactivate it
B)Act as a DNA chain terminator
C)Bind to the surface of the glycoprotein on the viral envelope
D)Fuse to the new viral envelope
Q3) Which of the following represents innate immunity to viruses?
A)Phagocytes
B)B cells
C)Antibodies
D)Nucleocapsids
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Chapter 22: Cytotoxic Agents and Immune Modulation
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Q1) Combination drug therapy is based on the principle that all drugs must
A)reach the cancer target
B)have different modes of therapeutic action
C)show different toxic reactions
D)All of the above
Q2) Cancer chemotherapy while reducing primary cancers can promote the later occurrence of secondary cancers.Which of the following anti-cancer drug classes are mostly associated with a secondary cancer?
A)Alkylating agents
B)Antimetabolites
C)Tubulin binding drugs
D)All of the above
Q3) The tubulin-binding drugs _______________.
A)are cell cycle unspecific
B)interfere with the synthesis of DNA strands
C)bind to the protein tubulin
D)are especially useful for hormone sensitive tumors
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24
Chapter 23: Drugs for Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Q1) In what way does regular exercise benefit patients with Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)with constipation?
A)Causes fluid release into the large intestine
B)Reduces oral intake
C)Improves gastric emptying
D)Promotes reabsorption of fatty acids
Q2) Helicobacter pylori infection may lead to peptic ulcer disease due to which of the following mechanisms?
A)A reduction in acid secretion
B)Induction of a host immune response to eliminate the organism
C)Production of an anticholinergic effect
D)Stimulation of pancreatic lipase
Q3) What is the role of serotonergic agonists in the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome with constipation?
A)Block reabsorption of fluids from the intestine
B)Increase intestinal motility
C)Promote increased fluid intake
D)Relax intestinal smooth muscle
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Chapter 24: Vitamins and Minerals
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Q1) The intake of large doses of vitamins or minerals might not help but is safe since
A)these are natural products necessary for bodily functions
B)excesses are quickly metabolized before toxicity occurs
C)excesses are quickly excreted before toxicity occurs
D)None of the above
Q2) If MVMPs are used,it is best to use preparations that ____________.
A)are approved by the Department of Health
B)have been tested by the National Institute of Health
C)are recommended by the American Medical Association
D)are manufactured by a reputable manufacturing company
Q3) If an adverse reaction to a MVMP is experienced,either alone or in combination with a drug,this should be reported to the ____________.
A)National Institute of Health
B)American Medical Association
C)Medwatch program of the FDA
D)Department of Consumer Affairs
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Chapter 25: Topical Drugs and Treatments Used in Wound Management
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Q1) The most distinguishing sign between an inflammation and an infection is
A)color of redness
B)presence of pus
C)degree of swelling
D)All of the above
Q2) Wound dressings ______________.
A)should keep wounds dry
B)should keep wounds moist
C)should prevent drainage from the wound
D)can slightly damage surrounding healthy tissue
Q3) To clean a wound,saline or tap water can be used.Studies have shown that
A)tap water is superior to saline
B)saline is superior to tap water
C)both are equally effective
D)both are actually detrimental in wound healing
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Complementary and Alternative Medicine in Pharmacology
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Q1) The premise behind using soy isoflavones in menopause includes which of the following?
A)May replace lost estrogen during menopause
B)Enhances calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
C)Blocks sodium channels
D)Blocks sweat glands
Q2) Which one of the following is contraindicated for the treatment of a 52-year-old woman who suffers from vasomotor instability related to menopause and who also has high risk factors for cardiac disease?
A)Hormone replacement therapy (estrogen and medroxyprogesterone)
B)SSRIs
C)Antiepilepsy drugs
D)Phytoestrogens such as soy
Q3) Which of the following would be a legal claim for marketing a dietary supplement?
A)Lowers blood pressure
B)Is heart healthy
C)Lowers cholesterol
D)Prevents cardiovascular disease
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Chapter 27: Drugs of Abuse: Anabolic Steroids and Other Doping Agents
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Q1) Heroin ___________.
A)stimulates the respiratory center in the brain
B)causes widely dilated pupils as a tell tale sign
C)causes severe diarrhea during withdrawal
D)acts on norepinephrine receptors
Q2) Smoke contains a number of toxic and/or pleasure provoking chemicals.The least toxic of these is ___________.
A)carbon monoxide
B)nicotine
C)carbon dioxide
D)benz-alpha-pyrene
Q3) Alcohol is metabolized by all of the following except ___________.
A)alcohol dehydrogenase
B)aldehyde dehydrogenase
C)alcohol esterase
D)p450 system
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