Pharmacology for Nursing Question Bank
Course Introduction
Pharmacology for Nursing provides a comprehensive introduction to the principles of drug action, therapeutic uses, and safe medication administration within the clinical setting. Emphasizing the nurses critical role in pharmacologic therapy, this course covers major drug classifications, mechanisms of action, adverse effects, interactions, and the legal-ethical considerations nurses face when administering medications. Students will develop a solid foundation in pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, and evidence-based approaches to managing patient care, preparing them to optimize medication outcomes, ensure patient safety, and educate patients and families about drug therapies.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology An Introduction 7th Edition by Henry Hitner
PhD
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46 Chapters
1602 Verified Questions
1602 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pharmacology
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64228
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of a drug?
A) The effects produced by a drug are always desirable.
B) The properties of a drug do not influence the effects it produces.
C) A drug does not produce more than one effect.
D) A pure drug is a chemical compound with a specific chemical structure.
Answer: D
Q2) During a pharmaceutical class,Dr.Patrick explains how a certain class of antipsychotic drugs prevents dopamine from producing its effects by blocking specific membrane receptors for dopamine.As a result,dopamine cannot stimulate its receptors to trigger certain cellular functions,and its effects are no longer experienced.After the discussion,Dr.Patrick asks his students to describe the action of the antipsychotic drugs.Which of the following responses from his students is the most accurate?
A) The antipsychotic drugs act as agonists.
B) The antipsychotic drugs act as antagonists.
C) The antipsychotic drugs act as modulators.
D) The antipsychotic drugs act as inducers.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics and Factors of Individual
Variation
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient's dose of an analgesic agent that he uses to manage chronic pain is increased twice over a span of six months.In the context of the terms drug tolerance,drug dependence,and drug addiction,identify the reason for the increase in the dosage.
A) Repeated administration decreases the effect of a drug.
B) Reliance on the administration of a drug leads to a psychological dependence on the drug.
C) Compulsive dependence on a drug dominates all other activities in the patient's life.
D) None of the above statements are correct.
Answer: A
Q2) A patient is instructed to take two tablets orally on the first day and then take one tablet orally daily for the next four days.Select the term that refers to the instruction to take two tablets by mouth on the first day.
A) Maintenance dose
B) Therapeutic dose
C) Loading dose
D) None of the above
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Geriatric Pharmacology
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adequate nutrition in elderly patients is important for synthesizing drug-metabolizing enzymes.The body produces these enzymes from foods that are high in:
A) fat.
B) protein.
C) carbohydrate.
D) sugar.
Answer: B
Q2) How would one expect the plasma creatinine levels in a person's body to change with age?
A) Slightly decrease with age
B) Remain unchanged
C) Dramatically decrease with age
D) Increase with age
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Math Review and Dosage Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the correct volume of a drug required to administer a dosage of 5 mg/kg for a patient who weighs 88 pounds and is 12 years old.The drug is available as a 1-g tablet,which will be mixed in enough water to make 100 ml of final solution (W/V).
A) 12 ml
B) 20 ml
C) 37 ml
D) 42 ml
Q2) Identify the term that refers to the liquid portion of a solution that is capable of dissolving another substance.
A) Solute
B) Plasma
C) Solvent
D) None of these
Q3) Use a recommended dose of 10 mcg/kg to calculate the loading dose of digoxin for a patient weighing 143 pounds.
A) 600 mcg
B) 625 mcg
C) 650 mcg
D) 675 mcg
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Autonomic Nervous System
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A parasympathetic stimulating medication would be good for which condition?
A) Hypertension
B) Constipation
C) Diarrhea
D) Conjuctivitis
Q2) During an anatomical class,Dr.Hales removes the heart of a frog and places it in a beaker of oxygenated Ringer's solution.He then instructs his health care trainees to observe how the muscles of the frog's heart continue to contract even without external stimulation.What property of the muscles of the heart is Dr.Hales asking his students to observe?
A) Autorhythmicity
B) Bradycardia
C) Tachycardia
D) Biorhythmicity
Q3) An increase in blood pressure is associated with a(n):
A) decrease in sympathetic activity.
B) increase in parasympathetic activity.
C) decrease in parasympathetic activity.
D) increase in sympathetic activity.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Drugs Affecting the Sympathetic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Use your critical-thinking skills to determine the effects of beta-adrenergic blocking drugs on the heart.
A) Increase in heart rate, increase in the force of contractions, and increase in impulse conduction through the heart
B) Decrease in heart rate, decrease in the force of contractions, and decrease in impulse conduction through the heart
C) Decrease in heart rate, decrease in the force of contractions, and increase in impulse conduction through the heart
D) Increase in heart rate, increase in the force of contractions, and decrease in impulse conduction through the heart
Q2) Use the low-dose range of 0.5-2 mcg/kg/min to determine the appropriate dose range of dopamine that would result in vasodilation and increased renal blood flow for a patient who weighs 132 pounds.
A) 0.3-6.2 mg/hr
B) 1-4.5 mg/hr
C) 1.8-7.2 mg/hr
D) None of these are correct.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Drugs Affecting the Parasympathetic Nervous System
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a desirable property that would need to be enhanced while developing a new direct-acting cholinergic drug?
A) Longer duration of action
B) Shorter duration of action
C) Slower absorption
D) Slower elimination
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of the drug nicotine?
A) It is an alkaloid derived from a particular type of mushroom.
B) It produces the same effects as the neurotransmitter epinephrine.
C) It stimulates the autonomic ganglia of both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the nervous system in low doses.
D) It behaves like a ganglionic blocker at low doses.
Q3) Why do clinicians favor the drug donepezil over the drug tacrine in the treatment of Alzheimer's disease?
A) Because tacrine is associated with more side effects than donepezil
B) Because tacrine is only used to treat very mild forms of the disease
C) Because tacrine produces less intense drugs effects than donepezil
D) Because tacrine is an irreversible anticholinesterase inhibitor
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Chapter 8: Drugs Affecting the Autonomic Ganglia
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ interact with ganglionic blocking drugs to produce hypotension and possible cardiovascular collapse.
A) Adrenergic drugs
B) Vasodilator drugs
C) Cholinergic drugs
D) Anticholinergic drugs
Q2) Both bupropion and varenicline impact the central nervous system (CNS).However,bupropion differs from varenicline in that it:
A) blocks nicotine receptors in the brain.
B) blocks acetylcholine receptors in the brain.
C) reduces the CNS effects of nicotine toxicity.
D) reduces the CNS effects of nicotine withdrawal.
Q3) Varenicline,which is used in the treatment of smoking cessation,is sold under the trade name _____.
A) Zyban
B) Commit
C) Chantix
D) Wellbutrin
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10
Chapter 9: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ella has been taking large doses of a particular neuromuscular blocker over a very long period of time.Consequently,she has developed signs of respiratory paralysis and has severe trouble breathing.After Dr.Kurt examines her,he concludes that Ella's deteriorating health is the result of the growing concentration of the neuromuscular blocker drug in her system.He prescribes the drug neostigmine to relieve her symptoms.How will the drug neostigmine help counteract the effects of the neuromuscular blocker drug?
A) It will inhibit the enzyme acetylcholinesterase so that acetylcholine (ACH) accumulates within the synaptic junctions.
B) It will attach itself to the synaptic vesicles containing ACH and prevent ACH from being released into the synaptic cleft.
C) It will damage the nicotinic-muscle receptors, thereby altering the ability of these receptors to become stimulated.
D) It will enhance the activity of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase so that the concentration of ACH in the synaptic cleft decreases.
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Chapter 10: Local Anesthetics
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should one avoid applying local anesthetic agents to damaged,open,or broken skin?
A) The broken skin allows the anesthetic agent to reach the blood vessels.
B) The patient may develop overdose effects.
C) The patient may develop hypotension.
D) All of the above are true
Q2) Bupivacaine contains a black box warning against epidural use of 0.75% concentration during labor and delivery.Why is the 0.75% concentration of bupivacaine contraindicated for this use?
A) Cardiac arrest with difficult resuscitation may occur.
B) Convulsions may occur.
C) Ischemia and gangrene may occur.
D) None of the above are true.
Q3) Which of the following are the two anesthetics used in the preparation of EMLA?
A) Lidocaine and epinephrine
B) Procaine and lidocaine
C) Lidocaine and prilocaine
D) None of the above
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Chapter 11: Introduction to the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hans is 75 years old.He is suffering from a degenerative disease that is characterized by muscular rigidity and tremors.Hans has trouble moving and sitting up straight.His doctor,Dr.Ross,suspects that Hans's condition is a result of the degeneration of the neurons within the basal ganglia of his brain.Based on the information provided in this scenario,Dr.Ross is most likely to diagnose Hans with _____.
A) Alzheimer's disease
B) Parkinson's disease
C) bipolar disorder
D) schizophrenia
Q2) The two main components of the central nervous system are:
A) the brain and the spinal cord.
B) the brain and the spinal nerves.
C) the cranial nerves and the spinal cord.
D) the cranial nerves and the spinal nerves.
Q3) Degeneration of the neurons in the basal ganglia leads to _____.
A) stroke
B) Alzheimer's disease
C) schizophrenia
D) Parkinson's disease
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs and Alcohol
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the correct indication of use for zaleplon (Sonata).
A) Zaleplon is used in individuals who have difficulty falling asleep, but it does not increase total sleep time.
B) Zaleplon is used in individuals who have difficulty falling asleep and need to stay asleep longer.
C) Zaleplon decreases awakenings during the night and increases total sleep time.
D) None of the above are correct.
Q2) Use your critical-thinking skills to determine a pharmacokinetic effect of barbiturates as a result of enzyme induction.
A) Enzyme induction leads to slower metabolism of the barbiturate in the liver and increased duration of action.
B) Enzyme induction leads to faster metabolism of the barbiturate in the liver and decreased duration of action.
C) Enzyme induction leads to slower metabolism of the barbiturate in the liver and decreased duration of action.
D) None of these are correct.
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14
Chapter 13: Antipsychotic and Antianxiety Drugs
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35 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alex has been diagnosed with schizophrenia.Her doctor,Dr.Paris,prescribes her with a phenothiazine antipsychotic.After several weeks,Alex begins to experience the antipsychotic effects of the drug.How else is Alex going to be affected by the drug?
A) She will demonstrate increased interest in the surroundings.
B) She will demonstrate less behavioral activation.
C) She will communicate less rationally.
D) She will have high blood pressure and diarrhea.
Q2) Which of the following classes of antipsychotic medication is the most useful in the treatment of the manic phase of manic-depressive personality disorder?
A) Butyrophenones
B) Phenothiazines
C) Thioxanthenes
D) Atypical antipsychotics
Q3) One way to suppress the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia is to:
A) administer supportive therapy.
B) completely discontinue the use of the antipsychotic drug.
C) taper the dose of the antipsychotic drug.
D) increase the dose of the antipsychotic drug.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Antidepressants,psychomotor Stimulants,and
Lithium
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35 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Analyze the different FDA pregnancy categories and determine the appropriate category for lithium.
A) Pregnancy Category B
B) Pregnancy Category C
C) Pregnancy Category D
D) Pregnancy Category X
Q2) Identify the type of depression that originates from within an individual and may not be linked to easily identifiable causes.
A) Exogenous depression
B) Mania
C) Major depressive disorder
D) Bipolar mood disorder
Q3) You have been asked to explain to tell a patient about the common side effects that he should report while taking SSRIs.Which of the following should be included in the reportable side effects?
A) Excessive agitation and seizures
B) Loss of appetite and nausea
C) Headache and nervousness
D) All of the above
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Chapter 15: Psychotomimetic Drugs of Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alex takes a large dose of LSD.In an hour's time,his sensory perceptions become distorted,and he begins to experience true hallucinations.Alex begins to believe that everything he sees and feels is real.Alex is experiencing the dose-related effects of the _____ phase.
A) sensory
B) psychic
C) somatic
D) modification
Q2) Phencyclidine produces its psychotomimetic effects by blocking the _____ receptor.
A) 5HT<sub>2A</sub>
B) N-methyl-D-aspartate
C) D<sub>2</sub>
D) CB<sub>1</sub>
Q3) Cocaine produces less intense effects when administered _____.
A) intravenously
B) orally
C) parenterally
D) intranasally
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Antiepileptic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the parameters used when deciding to treat a patient with lacosamide (Vimpat).
A) Lacosamide is used with lamotrigine for the treatment of generalized tonic-clonic seizures and myoclonic seizures.
B) Lacosamide is primarily used in patients over 12 years of age in combination with other antiepileptic drugs in the treatment of absence seizures.
C) Lacosamide is used as adjunct therapy with other drugs for the treatment of partial seizures in patients 17 years or older.
D) Lacosamide is used as a single therapy for the treatment of partial seizures in patients 17 years or older.
Q2) When a series of seizures occur without any interruption,the treatment option should ideally include immediate administration of _____.
A) phenytoin
B) topiramate
C) diazepam
D) lamotrigine
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Chapter 17: Antiparkinson Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is an inhibitory neurotransmitter released by neurons from the substantia nigra.
A) Acetylcholine
B) Dopamine
C) Serotonin
D) Gamma-aminobutyric acid
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of the drug selegiline?
A) Selegiline prolongs the duration of action of dopamine by inhibiting the enzyme monoamine oxidase-B (MAO-B).
B) Selegiline decreases the concentration of dopamine that is formed in the brain.
C) The adverse effects of selegiline are more intense and occur more frequently than those of the drug levodopa.
D) Selegiline is considered more potent and is more effective than the drug rasagiline.
Q3) Identify a drug that inhibits the metabolism of dopamine.
A) Levodopa
B) Selegiline
C) Bromocriptine
D) Amantadine
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Chapter 18: General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the true statement about the solubility characteristics of drugs.
A) The higher the blood:gas partition coefficient, the more soluble the drug is in the blood.
B) The more soluble anesthetics have a longer onset of action.
C) Volatile liquids have higher blood:gas partition coefficients.
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) A doctor is scheduled to perform an endoscopic procedure on a child.The anesthetic should have a rapid onset of action as the child is agitated.Which of the following anesthetics is the best choice in this scenario?
A) Midazolam
B) Diazepam
C) Propofol
D) Methohexital
Q3) Which of the following anesthetics has an antiemetic effect on the patient?
A) Propofol
B) Methohexital
C) Ketamine
D) Etomidate
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20
Chapter 19: Opioid Narcoticanalgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following classes of opioid receptors in the central nervous system (CNS)is responsible for respiratory depression?
A) Kappa receptors
B) Mu<sub>1</sub> receptors
C) Mu<sub>2</sub> receptors
D) Delta receptors
Q2) Pain resulting from abnormal signals or nerves damaged by entrapment,amputation,or diabetes is known as _____.
A) hyperalgesia
B) dysphoria
C) referred pain
D) neuropathic pain
Q3) Which of the following changes takes place when opioids bind to their mu receptors?
A) Calcium ion channels on presynaptic neurons close.
B) The release of glutamate increases.
C) Postsynaptic mu receptor binding closes potassium ion channels.
D) Calcium ions flow into the cells.
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21
Chapter 20: Nonnarcotic Analgesics
Anti-Inflammatory,and Antigout Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the correct statement about cyclooxygenase (COX).
A) COX increases uric acid production and deposition in the joints, leading to gout.
B) COX makes various prostaglandins from arachidonic acid.
C) COX production is stimulated with the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
D) None of the above are correct.
Q2) _____ is involved in the production of erythema (abnormal redness),edema,and pain that accompany the inflammatory process.
A) PGE<sub>2</sub>
B) PGF<sub>2</sub>
C) PGE<sub>1</sub>
D) PGF<sub>2</sub>1<sub>\(\alpha\)</sub>
Q3) Identify the correct dose of acetaminophen for a 5-year-old boy weighing 45 pounds.
A) 240 mg every 4 to 6 hours
B) 160 mg every 4 to 6 hours
C) 320 mg every 4 to 6 hours
D) 650 mg every 4 to 6 hours
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Cardiac Glycosides and the Treatment of
Congestive Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ carry all the deoxygenated blood from the body and drain it into the right atrium of the heart.
A) superior and inferior venae cavae
B) coronary arteries
C) pulmonary veins
D) pulmonary arteries
Q2) A decrease in myocardial function will immediately result in:
A) thromboembolisms.
B) myocardial infarction.
C) ischemia.
D) arteriosclerosis.
Q3) What does the QRS wave of an electrocardiogram (ECG)represent?
A) The repolarization of the ventricles
B) The repolarization of the atria
C) The depolarization of the ventricles
D) The depolarization of the atria
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23
Chapter 22: Antiarrhythmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)?
A) The effect of using ARBs is similar to the effect of using the ACE inhibitors except that ARBs do not increase bradykinin.
B) The effect of using ARBs is similar to the effect of using the ACE inhibitors except that ARBs do not decrease pre- and afterload.
C) The effect of using ARBs is similar to the effect of using the ACE inhibitors except that ARBs do not increase cardiac output.
D) The effect of using ARBs is similar to the effect of using the ACE inhibitors except that ARBs only decrease preload and not afterload.
Q2) A patient is administered 1250 mcg of digoxin.When is the concentration of digoxin in the patient's body likely to reduce to 625 mcg?
A) Within an hour
B) Within 1 to 2 hours
C) Within a day
D) Within 1.5 to 2 days
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24
Chapter 23: Antianginal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The duration of the PR interval on an electrocardiogram (ECG)reflects the time required for:
A) depolarization and conduction through the ventricles.
B) conduction from the sinoatrial (SA) to the atrioventricular (AV) node.
C) depolarization and repolarization of the ventricles.
D) conduction from the atrioventricular (AV) node to the sinoatrial (SA) node.
Q2) Ectopic foci are often caused due to:
A) an increase in the activity of the sinoatrial (SA) node.
B) an increase in the activity of the atrioventricular (AV) node.
C) a delay or blockage in the conduction of electrical impulses.
D) a decrease in the number of cholinergic neurons innervating the heart.
Q3) Class 3 antiarrhythmic drugs work by blocking the:
A) adrenergic beta-1 receptors.
B) influx of calcium ions during Phase 2 of the cardiac potential.
C) influx of sodium ions during the depolarization phase.
D) efflux of potassium ions during the repolarization phase.
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Chapter 24: Diuretics
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Q1) Which of the following explains the inability of the nitrates to act as coronary dilators during angina?
A) Arteriolar dilation is greater than venodilation is at low-dose ranges.
B) Nitrates do not act on vascular smooth muscle.
C) The most common route of administration is sublingual.
D) The arteries are already maximally dilated by ischemia.
Q2) How are verapamil and diltiazem different from other calcium channel blockers?
A) Verapamil and diltiazem block the influx of calcium ions into vascular smooth muscle.
B) Verapamil and diltiazem block the influx of calcium ions in cardiac muscle.
C) Verapamil and diltiazem are chemically classified as dihydropyridines.
D) Verapamil and diltiazem have very little direct actions on the heart.
Q3) Which of the following is true of nitroglycerin ointment?
A) It has an onset of action of about 2 to 5 minutes.
B) It is used sublingually to relieve intense pain during attacks of angina.
C) It has a duration of action of about 1 to 2 hours.
D) It is applied topically to an area of the chest and absorption occurs through the skin.
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26
Chapter 25: Antihypertensive Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diuretics is most likely to produce ototoxicity in patients?
A) Chlorothiazide
B) Bumetanide
C) Metolazone
D) Triamterene
Q2) _____ is used in the short-term management of ascites due to malignancy and lymphedema.
A) Chlorothiazide
B) Ethacrynic acid
C) Isosorbide
D) Triamterene
Q3) _____ is a refractory diuretic.
A) Mannitol
B) Acetazolamide
C) Chlorothiazide
D) Isosorbide
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Chapter 26: Anticoagulants and Coagulants
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)?
A) It interferes with insulin and blood glucose regulation.
B) Overdosage can cause hypotension and reflex tachycardia.
C) It increases plasma lipids.
D) Increase in the release of aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone.
Q2) Identify the definition of the physiological factor known as cardiac output that determines blood pressure.
A) Cardiac output is the amount of blood that is pumped out of the heart per minute.
B) Cardiac output is the friction that the arterioles have against the flow of blood.
C) Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped per heartbeat.
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) Essential hypertension differs from secondary hypertension in that:
A) the cause of essential hypertension is unknown.
B) essential hypertension is an acute disease.
C) essential hypertension requires no treatment.
D) the occurrence of essential hypertension is almost negligible.
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28
Chapter 27: Nutrition and Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) An advantage of the LMW heparins over standard heparin is that:
A) their bioavailability is almost complete following subcutaneous administration.
B) they are less effective at binding active factor X.
C) they seldom interfere with the coagulation cascade but can produce the same spectrum of interference as standard heparin.
D) they can be administered orally.
Q2) Heparin or LMW heparin is preferred for pregnant patients needing an anticoagulant because:
A) its molecular size allows it to cross the placenta and thus help the offspring.
B) the offspring receives the full anticoagulant effect.
C) its molecular size does not allow it to cross the placenta to affect the offspring.
D) the offspring receives only a partial anticoagulant effect.
Q3) One disadvantage of cellulose hemostatic sponges compared to gelatin sponges is:
A) thrombocytopenia.
B) agranulocytosis.
C) anaphylactic shock.
D) bone regeneration interference.
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Chapter 28: Hypolipidemic Drugs
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Q1) Diana works as a health-care professional in Redwood Nursing Home.Which of the following instructions should she give her patients when they are taking their nutritional supplements?
A)Always take nutritional supplements on an empty stomach.
B)Chew extended-release formulations of vitamins.
C)Brief periodic exposure to sunlight is essential for maintaining a normal level of vitamin D
D)It is imperative to notify the physician of any changes in the color of urine while taking riboflavin.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of vitamin A?
A) Provitamin A is converted to retinol in the stomach.
B) A deficiency of vitamin A can lead to night blindness.
C) Vitamin A usage leads to increased sebum production.
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) The human body can synthesize _____.
A) vitamins
B) minerals
C) carbohydrates
D) essential amino acids
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Chapter 29: Antianemic
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Q1) Unlike stable plaque,unstable plaque:
A) has a thin cap that can erode, rupture, and break away.
B) has a cholesterol core.
C) develops in arteries rather than in veins.
D) builds slowly over the years.
Q2) Why is unstable plaque more dangerous than stable plaque?
A) Unlike stable plaque, unstable plaque is associated with an increased likelihood of hemorrhage that can lead to shock.
B) Unlike stable plaque, unstable plaque is associated with an increased likelihood of hemorrhage that can lead to arrhythmias.
C) Unlike stable plaque, unstable plaque is associated with thrombus formation that can cause hypertension.
D) Unlike stable plaque, unstable plaque is associated with thrombus formation that can block blood flow and tissue oxygenation.
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Chapter 30: Antiallergic and Antihistaminic Drugs
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Q1) How can anemia resulting from altered RBC production or from increased RBC destruction be best treated?
A) By replacing iron or cyanocobalamin in the diet
B) By replacing iron or copper through supplements
C) By giving a blood transfusion
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of cobalamin (vitamin B<sub>12</sub>)?
A) Cobalamin is primarily found is green vegetables and fruits.
B) Strict vegetarians are more likely to develop a deficiency of cobalamin.
C) The anemia resulting from cobalamin deficiency is a microcytic hypochromic anemia.
D) Cobalamin has recognized therapeutic value in the treatment of hepatitis, allergies, and sterility.
Q3) Why should liquid iron preparations be taken through a straw or with juice or water?
A) So that the iron does not erode the lining of the esophagus
B) To prevent or decrease the staining of the teeth
C) So that the iron does not come in contact with the tongue, causing glossitis
D) All of these are correct.
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32
Chapter 31: Bronchodilator Drugs and the Treatment of Asthma
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Q1) The best time to administer cromolyn sodium is _____.
A) before an allergic reaction has begun
B) immediately after an allergic reaction has begun
C) about 1 hour after an allergic reaction has begun
D) anytime after an allergic reaction has begun
Q2) Antihistaminics are used in cold remedies because of their anticholinergic properties responsible for _____.
A) inhibiting the degranulation process in mast cells
B) promoting sedation
C) slowing the breathing process
D) drying nasal secretions
Q3) Which of the following is true of fexofenadine?
A) Fexofenadine should not be taken with an antacid.
B) Fexofenadine decreases the blood level of nasally administered azelastine.
C) Fexofenadine absorption is delayed when taken closely with high fatty meals.
D) Fexofenadine does not undergo drug interactions with other drugs.
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Chapter 32: Respiratory Pharmacology, treatment of
Asthma and Copd
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Q1) What causes chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
A) Arthritis and chronic fatigue syndrome
B) Emphysema and chronic bronchitis
C) Nephritis and chronic viral hepatitis
D) Synovitis and chronic esophagitis
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of prostaglandins?
A) Aspirin inhibits the formation of prostaglandins.
B) Prostaglandins cause bronchodilation.
C) Prostaglandins are derived from eosinophils.
D) Whenever there is injury to body tissue, prostaglandins are rapidly released from mast cells.
Q3) Considering the onset of action as the primary factor,determine the preferred therapy for the treatment of any sudden onset of asthma symptoms for patients who experience less than two asthmatic episodes per week.
A) Cromolyn sodium
B) Advair
C) Singulair
D) Albuterol
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Chapter 33: Agents That Affect Intestinal Motility
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Q1) Stopping the acid secretion completely between meals would put a person at an increased risk of _____.
A) metabolic acidosis
B) metabolic alkalosis
C) GI infections
D) constipation
Q2) Raymond,a patient with Zollinger-Ellison (ZE)syndrome,is administered a dose of 6 mg of cimetidine.How long will it take for peak absorption to occur?
A) Within 90 minutes
B) 10 minutes
C) 2 to 3 hours
D) 6 hours
Q3) Omeprazole works by _____.
A) inhibiting a hydrogen-potassium pump in mucosal cells
B) inhibiting a sodium-potassium pump in mucosal cells
C) inhibiting a hydrogen-potassium pump in parietal cells
D) inhibiting a sodium-potassium pump in parietal cells
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Chapter 34: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Q1) Difenoxen is a _____ receptor agonist.
A) serotonin
B) glycine
C) mu
D) gamma-amino butyric acid (GABA)
Q2) Which of the following is the most frequent side effect produced by antidiarrheal drugs?
A) Vomiting
B) Constipation
C) Renal failure
D) Hypertension
Q3) Select the group of drug agents that contribute to increased intestinal motility,resulting in diarrhea.
A) NSAIDs, antacids, chemotherapy medications
B) Antiarrhythmic and blood pressure medications
C) Antibiotics and laxatives
D) All of these
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Chapter 35: Introduction to the Endocrine System Adrenal
Steroids
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of the hormones in the posterior pituitary lobe?
A) They are secreted when the hypothalamus produces releasing hormones.
B) They are produced in the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
C) They are stored in the hypothalamus until they are needed.
D) They travel from the hypothalamus to the posterior lobe down nerve axons.
Q2) The hormones of the anterior lobe that control the activities of the other endocrine glands are known as _____ hormones.
A) tropic
B) source
C) inter
D) counter
Q3) Noah, a 42-year-old, consults Dr. Miller as he has enlarged bones in his hands and feet. Dr. Miller diagnoses him with acromegaly and prescribes lanreotide to him. Dr. Miller should consider switching Noah to octreopeptide if Noah has _____.
A) adrenal insufficiency
B) stents in his blood vessels
C) Cushing's disease
D) carcinoid tumors
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Gonadal Hormones and the Oral Contraceptives
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Q1) Where are the adrenal glands located?
A) On the upper surface of each kidney
B) At the base of the brain
C) On the anterior side of the neck
D) On the lower surface of the left kidney
Q2) Maddison experiences muscle weakness and dehydration and visits Dr.Clark's clinic for a medical checkup.Dr.Clark runs a couple of tests and discovers that Maddison has hypotension.After examining Maddison's medical reports,Dr.Clark orders the administration of the adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH)and then proceeds to measure the plasma levels of cortisol and 17-hydroxycorticosteroids (17-OHCS)in Maddison's bloodstream.When he observes no change in the levels of these steroids,he diagnoses Maddison with a particular condition.Based on the information provided in this scenario,from which of the following conditions is Maddison most likely suffering?
A)Hashimoto's thyroiditis
B)Cushing's disease
C)Tourette's syndrome
D)Addison's disease
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Drugs Affecting the Thyroid and Parathyroid Glands and Bone Degeneration
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Q1) The most effective treatment for relief of hot flashes,sleep disturbances,and vaginal dryness is _____.
A) oral contraceptives
B) clomiphene
C) hormone replacement therapy
D) androgen therapy
Q2) Which of the following is true of selective oral PDE5 inhibitors such as tadalafil?
A) They selectively block cGMP in the penis.
B) They do not affect erection that is not a result of sexual stimulation.
C) They increase or affect erection in men who are not impotent.
D) They are approved for use in women to treat impotence.
Q3) What is the regular duration of menstruation?
A) 4 days
B) 8 days
C) 12 days
D) 16 days
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Chapter 38: Pancreatic Hormones and Antidiabetic Drugs
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Q1) Bella suffers from hypotension and bradycardia.She cannot endure cold temperatures,and her skin is very dry.She visits Dr.Solomon for a checkup.Upon examination,Dr.Solomon observes that Bella's face is round and puffy.After running a few tests,he discovers that there is a total absence of the thyroid hormones T<sub>3</sub> and T<sub>4</sub> in Bella's bloodstream.Based on the information provided in this scenario,with which of the following conditions is Dr.Solomon most likely to diagnose Bella?
A) Cretinism
B) Toxic nodular goiter
C) Myxedema
D) Agranulocytosis
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of calcium homeostasis?
A)Calcitriol is a form of vitamin D that facilitates calcium absorption from the GI tract,thus increasing the level of circulating calcium.
B)Hypercalcemia stimulates calcitonin secretion,while hypocalcemia stimulates the secretion of parathormone (PTH).
C)All of these are correct.
D)Plasma calcium is maintained at 9.0 to 10.4 mg/dL for men and 8.9 to 10.2 mg/dL for women.
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Chapter 39: Posterior Pituitary Hormones and Drugs
Affecting Uterine Muscle
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Q1) Which of the following is a secretagogue?
A) Meglitinides
B) Metformin
C) Thiazolidinediones
D) Biguanides
Q2) Metabolic acidosis in diabetics occurs as a result of:
A) the breakdown of carbohydrates.
B) the breakdown of fats.
C) the breakdown of proteins.
D) the breakdown of nucleic acids.
Q3) Identify the accurate statement about insulin pens.
A) The pens increase accuracy in dose delivery.
B) Once a cartridge is loaded and opened, the loaded pen should be refrigerated.
C) The needle should be inserted at a 45<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>angle into pinched skin.
D) Insulin pens should be capped in order to avoid air being introduced in to the cartridge through the needle.
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Chapter 40: Antibacterial Agents
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Q1) Meera experiences premature rupture of obstetrical membranes (PROM),which might lead to the premature birth of her baby during the 32nd week of gestation.Which of the following would be true of this situation?
A) Meera can continue smoking cigarettes because it does not have a significant link with PROM.
B) There is a high probability that Meera's baby will have significantly underdeveloped respiratory functions.
C) Magnesium sulfate will slow Meera's uterine contractions but may increase her heart and respiratory rate.
D) Terbutaline will inhibit uterine contractions but decrease the heart rates of Meera and the fetus.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of diabetes insipidus (DI)?
A) Central DI is caused by a resistance to ADH in the kidney.
B) Nephrogenic DI is caused by a decreased secretion of ADH.
C) Treatment of hypothalamic DI mainly involves replacement therapy with endogenic vasopressin.
D) Diabetes insipidus is not related to the other hormone deficiency condition, diabetes mellitus.
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Chapter 41: End of Chapter Questions
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Q1) Which one of the following reactions requires emergency medical attention?
A) Disulfiram reaction
B) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
C) Fanconi syndrome
D) Pruritis and photosensitivity
Q2) Which antibiotics can cause photosensitivity as a reaction?
A) Macrolides and fluoroquinolones
B) Chloramphenicol and metronidazole
C) Tetracyclines and sulfonamides
D) Isoniazid and pyrazinamide
Q3) Certain bacteria are resistant to the antibiotic penicillin.This can be attributed to:
A) the broad-spectrum nature of penicillin.
B) the ineffective response toward gram-positive bacteria.
C) chemoprophylaxis.
D) the beta-lactamase enzyme produced by the resistant bacteria.
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Chapter 42: Antifungal and Antiviral Aidsdrugs
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Q1) Select the correct mechanism of action in the ophthalmic treatment with idoxuridine (Dendrid,Herplex).
A) It inhibits viral DNA synthesis by blocking incorporation of thymidine.
B) It inhibits viral DNA synthesis by inhibiting viral replication.
C) It inhibits viral DNA synthesis by inhibiting viral DNA synthesis and the replacement of the protein guanosine.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Select the statement that describes the theoretical method by which the activity of a virus may be interrupted.
A) Viral activity could be interrupted by inhibiting the initial attachment of the virus to the human host cells.
B) Viral activity could be interrupted by inhibiting the injection of viral contents into the host cell or inhibiting the enzymes that transcribe or synthesize viral proteins.
C) Viral activity could be interrupted by inhibiting the virus from shedding into the circulation.
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 43: Antiprotozoal and Anthelmintic Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following can be best defined as a thick-walled structure in which parasitic protozoal sex cells develop for transfer to new hosts?
A) An antigen
B) A kerion
C) A sebum
D) An oocyst
Q2) Which two methods can campers use to remove Giardia cysts from a natural water source?
A) Boiling and filters
B) Boiling and chemical treatment
C) Filters and chemical treatment
D) Freezing and chemical treatment
Q3) Which of the following does the malaria parasite occupy?
A) The brain and the urinary system
B) The kidneys and the digestive system
C) The liver and the circulatory system
D) The pancreas and the immune system
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Chapter 44: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of the cleaning techniques used to eliminate bacteria?
A) Glutaraldehyde solution is used to remove microorganisms on the skin prior to puncturing the vein to obtain blood.
B) An iodophor swab is used for a short swabbing procedure before obtaining blood for a routine blood test.
C) Alcohol or iodophor solutions should be used to disinfect surfaces before the use of soap or detergent if dirt or organic matter has accumulated on the surface.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Identify the appropriate information that must be given to a patient about the use of antiseptics and disinfectants.
A) Chlorhexidine can be used as an oral rinse, but it should not be ingested.
B) Antiseptics and disinfectants may contain ethyl alcohol or isopropyl alcohol, which are poisonous if they are ingested.
C) The aldehydes are never used as antiseptics because of the potential damage to human tissue at any concentration.
D) All of these are correct.
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Agents
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Q1) Why would leucovorin be administered after methotrexate therapy?
A) To resume blood cell production
B) To reduce oxygen supply to cancer cells
C) To reestablish normal blood glucose levels
D) To reduce plasma cortisol levels
Q2) Busulfan is used to treat _____.
A) chronic myelogenous leukemia
B) multiple myeloma
C) non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
D) Hodgkin's disease
Q3) _____ is used in combination with capecitabine to treat metastatic and advanced breast cancer.
A) Fludarabine
B) Irinotecan
C) Paclitaxel
D) Ixabepilone
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Chapter 46: Immunopharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following is the main immunosuppressive effect of the corticosteroids?
A) The corticosteroids inhibit the synthesis of purine nucleotides that are required for the synthesis of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
B) The corticosteroids kill and suppress the function of lymphocytes.
C) The corticosteroids cause lymphocytes in the blood to be redistributed into the bone marrow.
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) _____ is administered using intralesional injections and is used to treat the human papillomavirus (HPV)infection.
A) Intron A
B) Roferon-A
C) Alferon N
D) Avonex
Q3) _____ is an immunomodulating agent that is used to treat anal warts.
A) Neupogen
B) Alferon N
C) Actimmune
D) Intron A
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