Pharmacology for Nursing Practice
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pharmacology for Nursing Practice introduces students to the fundamental principles of pharmacology and their direct application to nursing care. This course emphasizes the mechanisms of drug actions, pharmacokinetics, and pharmacodynamics, along with the therapeutic uses, adverse effects, and interactions of major drug classifications. Students will develop skills necessary to safely administer medications, accurately calculate dosages, and monitor patient responses. Through case studies and clinical scenarios, learners will explore the role of nurses in promoting medication safety, providing patient education, and collaborating with healthcare teams to optimize pharmacological therapies across the lifespan.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Pharmacology 2nd Edition by Workman
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32 Chapters
1305 Verified Questions
1305 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Drug Regulation, Actions, and Responses
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with severe heart failure asks why the prescriber has lowered the dosages of most of the patient's daily medications.What is your best response?
A) "With a weaker heart,the drugs stay in your system longer,so you don't need as high a dosage."
B) "Your heart drugs enhance the action of your other drugs,reducing the need for higher dosages."
C) "Your heart is not strong enough to tolerate these drugs,making the risk for a heart attack higher."
D) "The drugs are very expensive,and with these heart problems your health is not expected to improve."
Answer: A
Q2) Which drug administration route is the least predictable?
A) Enteral
B) Intravenous
C) Transdermal
D) Subcutaneous
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Safely Preparing and Giving Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best way to make sure that the right patient is receiving a prescribed drug when the patient is alert and oriented?
A) Ask the patient to state his or her social security number.
B) Check the patient's wrist band.
C) Look at the patient's chart.
D) Have the patient state his or her name and birth date.
Answer: D
Q2) What temperature should ear drops be when applying them?
A) Just above freezing -33 <sup>\(\circ\)</sup>F
B) Warmed to 104 <sup>\(\circ\)</sup>F
C) Refrigerated to 40 <sup>\(\circ\)</sup>F
D) Room temperature
Answer: D
Q3) When is it acceptable to take a verbal order from the prescriber before giving a drug to a patient?
A) During the nightshift when the prescriber is not at the hospital
B) In an emergency situation such as a cardiac arrest
C) When a patient is experiencing severe pain
D) At any time it is convenient
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Mathematics Review and Introduction to Dosage Calculation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which fraction is reduced to its lowest common denominator?
A) 3/17
B) 4/8
C) 2/20
D) 5/15
Answer: A
Q2) A patient is prescribed aspirin 650 mg orally.The aspirin form on hand is 325 mg/tablet.How many tablets is the correct dose?
_____ tablet(s)
Answer: 2
Want 650 mg/Have 325 mg; 11ea681a_4365_1dac_b611_6da88a19f984_TB1177_11 = 2.
Q3) Which fraction is improper?
A) 20/15
B) 15/15
C) 10/15
D) 5/15
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Medical Systems of Weights and Measures
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prescriber tells a patient to call if a temperature higher than 39° C develops.The patient asks what this temperature is in Fahrenheit.What is your response?
A) 99.2°
B) 100.2°
C) 101.2°
D) 102.2°
Q2) A patient is prescribed 300 mg of ribavirin oral suspension.What you have on hand is ribavirin oral suspension at a concentration of 50 mg/mL.How many milliliters is the correct dose?
Q3) A patient tells you he usually takes two aspirin tablets every morning and every evening.Each tablet contains 325 mg.How many total milligrams of aspirin does this patient take every day?
A) 650
B) 1000
C) 1300
D) 1625
Q4) A child who weighs 42 lb is to receive procainamide 5 mg/kg IV.The injectable drug available is procainamide 100 mg/mL.How many milliliters should you prepare for the correct dose?
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Chapter 5: Dosage Calculation of Intravenous Solutions and Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is to receive 125 mL of intravenous fluid per hour and the drop factor is 10 gtt/mL.You count the 15-second drip rate to be 8 gtt/min.What is your best action?
A) Nothing,the IV flow rate is correct.
B) Turn the rate down to 5 gtt/15 s.
C) Turn the rate up to 11 gtt/15 s.
D) Turn the rate up to 15 gtt/15 s.
Q2) How does the "drop factor" affect IV infusions?
A) Fluid with a larger drop factor infuses more slowly than fluid with a smaller drop factor.
B) Smaller drop factors occur with smaller needles (or cannulas)and larger drop factors occur with larger needles.
C) The smaller the drop factor,the fewer the number of drops needed to administer 1 mL of infusion fluid.
D) The larger the drop factor,the fewer the number of drops needed to administer 1 mL of infusion fluid.
Q3) What is the hourly flow rate for 250 mL of normal saline to be administered over 2 hours?
_____ mL/h
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Chapter 6: Anti-Inflammatory Drugs
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43 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who usually takes 40 mg of prednisone daily for a chronic problem has been vomiting for 12 hours.What will you tell the patient about the drug therapy?
A) "Go to the prescriber's office immediately for an injectable dose of the drug."
B) "If you stop vomiting by tomorrow,take two doses of the drug."
C) "Take no drugs until you stop vomiting for at least 24 hours."
D) "Take the drug even though you are vomiting."
Q2) Which statement about corticosteroid use and pediatric patients is true?
A) Adrenal atrophy does not occur during long-term use because this organ is younger and healthier in children.
B) Because these drugs slow cell division,they can interfere with normal growth and are not used in children.
C) Children are at the same risk for every side effect of long-term corticosteroid use that adults experience.
D) Drug doses are usually higher than for adults because children metabolize corticosteroids faster than adults.
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8
Chapter 7: Drugs for Pain Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)relieve a patient's pain?
A) By promoting release of anti-inflammatory chemicals and altering the sensitivity of nerve tracts.
B) By binding to opioid receptors in the central nervous system and altering the perception of pain.
C) By reducing the amount of bradykinin at the site of injury and altering the stimulation of nociceptors.
D) By inhibiting the generation of impulses along sensory nerve tracts and altering pain transmission.
Q2) A patient is taking acetaminophen (Tylenol)for mild headache pain.Which precaution is most important for you to teach the patient?
A) "Avoid alcoholic beverages while taking this drug."
B) "Avoid coffee and other caffeinated drinks while taking this drug."
C) "If any decrease in vision occurs,stop the drug and notify your prescriber immediately."
D) "Do not drive or operate dangerous machinery until you know how this drug affects you."
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Chapter 8: Anti-Infectives: Antibacterial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient who is receiving intravenous (IV)penicillin is prescribed to also receive intravenous doxycycline (Doxy).Which action is most important for nurse to implement?
A) Use IV tubing for doxycycline that has never come into contact with penicillin.
B) Use a glass container for the tetracycline and a plastic container for the penicillin.
C) Infuse the doxycycline only into a central line and the penicillin into a peripheral line.
D) Administer doxycycline with sterile saline and administer the penicillin with sterile water.
Q2) Which drug category includes the penicillins?
A) Protein synthesis inhibitors
B) Cell wall synthesis inhibitors
C) DNA synthesis inhibitors
D) Metabolism inhibitors
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10
Chapter 9: Anti-Infectives: Antiviral Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient outcomes are major goals of antiretroviral therapy? (select all that apply)
A) Prevention of opportunistic infections
B) Conversion to an HIV-negative antibody status
C) Reduction of the number of viral particles in the patient's blood
D) Increase in CD4+ cells
E) Decrease in CD8+ cells
F) Prevention of disease spread
Q2) A patient who has been taking lamivudine (Epivir)for 6 months reports reduced sensation in the fingers and toes.What is your best action?
A) Document the report as the only action.
B) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber.
C) Remind the patient to continue the drug as usual and take a multiple vitamin daily.
D) Reassure the patient that this is an expected drug side effect and to use injury precautions.
Q3) A child who is HIV positive and weighs 40 lb is prescribed to receive atazanavir (Reyataz)at a dose of 7 mg/kg.The drug on hand is a premixed oral suspension of 50 mg/60 mL.How many milliliters will you prepare as the correct dose?
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11
Chapter 10: Anti-Infectives: Antitubercular and Antifungal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antifungal drug to treat ringworm is given to children as granules that are sprinkled over soft,nonacidic foods?
A) Amphotericin B
B) Flucytosine
C) Terbinafine
D) Micafungin
Q2) Which antifungal drug causes some degree of renal impairment in everyone who receives it?
A) Amphotericin (Amphocin)
B) Terbinafine (Lamisil)
C) Caspofungin (Cancidas)
D) Fluconazole (Diflucan)
Q3) Which drug must a patient be taught to avoid during TB drug therapy?
A) Aspirin
B) Ibuprofen
C) Acetaminophen
D) Iron supplements
Q4) A patient who weighs 220 lb is prescribed 20 mg/kg of ethambutol (EMB).The ethambutol tablets available 400 mg/scored tablet.How many tablets will you give?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Drugs That Affect the Immune System
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the role of the T lymphocyte (T cell)in the development of long-lasting antibody-mediated immunity?
A) Enhancing the sensitized B lymphocyte's production of antibodies on second and subsequent exposure to the same antigen
B) Preventing general immune responses from becoming excessive and leading to autoimmunity
C) Distinguishing sensitized B lymphocytes from unsensitized B lymphocytes
D) Assisting unsensitized B lymphocyte to recognize new antigens
Q2) A patient whose foot was cut deeply by a rusty tin can last received a tetanus toxoid vaccination 8 years ago.He is prescribed to now receive a tetanus toxoid injection.What type of immunity does this vaccination help provide?
A) Boosting of artificially acquired active immunity
B) Initiation of artificially acquired active immunity
C) Boosting of naturally acquired active immunity
D) Initiation of naturally acquired active immunity
Q3) A child who weighs 78 lb is prescribed to receive azathioprine (Imuran)2 mg/kg intravenously.The solution available is azathioprine 100 mg/10 mL.How many milliliters will you prepare for a correct dose?
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13
Chapter 12: Anticancer Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is receiving intravenous (IV)chemotherapy asks why you are wearing a mask,gloves,and gown when giving the drugs.What is your best response?
A) "These drugs will reduce your immune response,and with these coverings I am protecting you from getting an infection from me."
B) "Because your immunity is reduced by this therapy,I am preventing the spread of infection from you to me or any other patient here."
C) "The drugs are powerful and I handle them every day.The clothing protects me from accidentally absorbing these strong drugs."
D) "The hospital policy is for any person giving these drugs to wear gowns,gloves,and masks to prevent other people from getting cancer."
Q2) Which chemotherapy agents in this list have a high emetogenic potential? (select all that apply)
A) Busulfan (Myleran)
B) Capecitabine (Xeloda)
C) Dactinomycin (Cosmegen)
D) Floxuridine (FUDR)
E) Melphalan (Alkeran)
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Drug Therapy for Diabetes
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most important action to perform before administering a premeal short-acting insulin to a patient with type 1 diabetes?
A) Looking up the time the long-acting insulin was administered
B) Assessing the body area in which the last insulin dose was injected
C) Checking whether the patient's meal or snack is already on the unit
D) Holding the dose if the patient's blood glucose level is under 110 mg/dL
Q2) How does the glucose we eat influence metabolism?
A) It combines with the glucose we make to form the proteins needed to replace those lost daily in stool.
B) It is composed of extra or "empty" calories that are not necessary for life and only contribute to obesity.
C) It is used inside cells to form the high-energy substance adenosine triphosphate (ATP)needed to perform most cell functions.
D) It is converted to fats (lipids)which are used to protect the body from injury,insulate against heat loss,and provide the greatest number of needed calories.
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15
Chapter 14: Drug Therapy for Thyroid and Adrenal Gland
Problems
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37 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about adrenal cortex hormones is true?
A) When underproduced,these hormones can lead to high blood pressure and stroke.
B) When overproduced,these hormones can cause cancer.
C) These hormones differ between men and women.
D) These hormones are essential for life.
Q2) A patient is prescribed levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid)25 mcg orally once a day.The pharmacy sends liothyronine sodium (Cytomel)25 mcg.What is your best action?
A) Give the drug as sent from the pharmacy.
B) Contact the nurse manager for advice.
C) Call the pharmacy to send the correct drug.
D) Explain to the patient that both drugs are thyroid hormone agonists.
Q3) A patient with hyperthyroidism is in the hospital waiting for surgery to remove the thyroid gland.This patient has all of the following conditions.For which condition should you notify the prescriber immediately?
A) High level of anxiety about having surgery on the neck
B) Temperature increase of 2<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> F
C) Pulse pressure decrease of 10 mm Hg
D) Increased bowel sounds and flatulence
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Drugs That Affect Urine Output
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has diabetes is now prescribed the thiazide diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn).In addition to the usual precautions,what else should you teach this patient about the new drug therapy?
A) Always carry a simple sugar with you.
B) Check your blood glucose level more frequently.
C) Be sure to restrict your fluid intake after 6:00 p.m.
D) Tell your dentist you are taking this drug before any dental work is performed.
Q2) A patient taking tolterodine (Detrol)reports decreased urination,ankle swelling,and a weight gain of 5 lb over the past 2 days.What should you do next?
A) Hold the dose and notifies the prescriber.
B) Check the patient's blood pressure and heart rate.
C) Give the next dose as prescribed.
D) Document the finding as the only action.
Q3) Which side effect is associated only with loop diuretics?
A) Dizziness
B) Hearing loss
C) Urinary frequency
D) Increased sun sensitivity
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17
Chapter 16: Drug Therapy for Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statements are true about blood pressure? (select all that apply)
A) Blood pressure decreases when a person is resting.
B) Blood pressure increases when a person is active.
C) Low blood pressure is called hypotension.
D) Systolic blood pressure is the pressure against artery walls when the heart relaxes.
E) As people get older they are more likely to develop high blood pressure.
Q2) A patient taking a thiazide diuretic has the following blood laboratory values for kidney function.Which value will you report to the prescriber immediately?
A) Sodium 124 mEq/L
B) Potassium 3.6 mEq/L
C) Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL
D) Blood urea nitrogen 16 mg/dL
Q3) A patient taking metoprolol (Lopressor)for hypertension reports all of the following side effects.For which side effect will you notify the prescriber?
A) Increased urination during the daytime
B) Heart rate of 68 per minute
C) Chest pain during exercise
D) Decreased sexual ability
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Chapter 17: Drug Therapy for Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with heart failure reports a 5 lb weight gain during the past week and episodes of feeling more short of breath.What is your best response?
A) "These changes are to be expected because you have heart failure."
B) "You will probably need a decreased dose of your diuretic drug."
C) "I will ask the dietitian to discuss a weight loss diet with you."
D) "Your prescriber must be notified because your heart failure is getting worse."
Q2) Which two factors are most likely to result in improved cardiac output?
A) Greater preload;greater afterload
B) Greater preload;reduced afterload
C) Reduced preload;greater afterload
D) Reduced preload;reduced afterload
Q3) What is the most common side effect of cardiac glycoside drugs for heart failure therapy?
A) Abdominal cramping and constipation
B) Heart rhythm disturbances
C) High blood pressure
D) Skin rashes
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Chapter 18: Drug Therapy for Dysrhythmias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is adenosine (Adenocard)given to a patient rapidly by intravenous (IV)push?
A) If given slowly,the heart rate will dramatically increase.
B) When given slowly,the drug is eliminated before it can act on the heart.
C) Slow administration can lead to tissue irritation and IV infiltration.
D) The drug is given rapidly so that within a minute,second or third doses may be given if needed.
Q2) For signs and symptom of which endocrine problem must you monitor when a patient is prescribed amiodarone (Cordarone)?
A) Hypoaldosteronism
B) Hyperaldosteronism
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Hyperthyroidism
Q3) A patient is prescribed sotalol (Betapace)320 mg orally once a day.Sotalol comes in 80 mg tablets.How many tablets would you give for each daily dose?
Q4) Why must most cardiac dysrhythmias be treated?
A) They increase preload.
B) They decrease preload.
C) They increase cardiac output.
D) They decrease cardiac output.
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Chapter 19: Drug Therapy for High Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement by a patient who has been prescribed an antilipidemic drug indicates the need for additional teaching?
A) "Once my lipid profile levels are normal,I will no longer need to take the drug."
B) "Taking this drug will decrease my risk for having a heart attack."
C) "My goal is to increase my HDL cholesterol and decrease my LDL cholesterol."
D) "I will continue walking and watching the fat in my diet while I'm taking this drug."
Q2) Which food,drink,or herbal supplement should you warn a patient prescribed gemfibrozil (Lopid)to avoid?
A) Caffeinated beverages
B) Grapefruit juice
C) St.John's wort
D) Dairy products
Q3) For which patient is drug therapy with nicotinic acid contraindicated?
A) 28-year-old who has familial hyperlipidemia
B) 38-year-old who had hyperthyroidism and lactose intolerance
C) 58-year-old who has an actively bleeding duodenal ulcer
D) 78-year-old who takes an oral drug for type 2 diabetes
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Chapter 20: Drugs That Affect Blood Clotting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which thrombin inhibitor can be given by subcutaneous injection?
A) Heparin
B) Argatroban
C) Lepirudin
D) Bivalirudin
Q2) How are anticoagulant drugs and thrombolytic drugs different?
A) There is no difference;they both have the same actions.
B) Anticoagulants prevent clots from forming whereas thrombolytics can dissolve clots that have already formed.
C) Thrombolytics must be administered intravenously while all anticoagulants are administered as oral agents.
D) Anticoagulants prevent clots by actually thinning the blood whereas thrombolytics reduce platelet aggregation and do not affect blood thickness.
Q3) What is the intended response of clotting factor synthesis inhibitor drugs?
A) Increased clotting times
B) Decreased clotting times
C) Increased platelet counts
D) Decreased platelet counts
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Chapter 21: Drug Therapy for Asthma and Other Respiratory Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient newly diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)is prescribed inhaled pirbuterol (Maxair)every 6 hours.You should instruct the patient to take additional drug doses during which specific times or conditions?
A) At bedtime
B) When feeling especially nervous
C) When feeling especially breathless
D) If the peak expiratory flow rate is 80% or greater than his or her personal best
Q2) Drugs from which classes are considered the mainstays of therapy for pulmonary fibrosis?
A) Amiodarone and ambrisentan
B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories and opiates
C) Corticosteroids and immunosuppressants
D) Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs and aspirin
Q3) Which type of problem narrows the airways by tightening bronchial smooth muscle?
A) Alveoli
B) Emphysema
C) Chronic bronchitis
D) Bronchoconstriction
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Chapter 22: Drug Therapy for Gastrointestinal Problems
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Q1) When should metoclopramide (Reglan)be taken?
A) 1 hour before meals and at bedtime
B) 30 minutes before meals and at bedtime
C) 30 minutes after meals and at bedtime
D) 1 hour after meals and at bedtime
Q2) What types of drugs prevent or control nausea/vomiting?
A) Antiemetic drugs
B) Antimotility drugs
C) Antidiarrheal drugs
D) Antipropulsion drugs
Q3) An older male patient with nausea is prescribed scopolamine (L-hyoscine).Which assessment determines whether he is experiencing a serious side effect?
A) Checking capillary refill
B) Measuring abdominal girth
C) Evaluating handgrip strength
D) Evaluating daily intake and output
Q4) A child is prescribed metoclopramide (Reglan)8 mg by oral solution.The available drug solution is 5 mg/5 mL of solution.How many milliliters does the nurse administer?
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Drug Therapy for Gastric Ulcers and Reflux
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which precaution is most important to teach an older patient who is starting histamine H2 blockers for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
A) "Do not drink caffeine while taking this drug."
B) "Elevate the head of your bed by 6 to 10 inches."
C) "Take this drug with meals and before going to bed."
D) "Avoid driving until you know how this drug affects you."
Q2) Which bacteria is often the cause of stomach ulcers?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Helicobacter pylori
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q3) Which antibiotic should be prescribed for H.pylori infection?
A) Penicillin (Pen V)
B) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
C) Erythromycin (Erythrocin)
D) Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
Q4) An adult patient is prescribed esomeprazole magnesium (Nexium)80 mg orally once daily.The pharmacy has esomeprazole magnesium (Nexium)40 mg tablets.How many tablets will you teach the patient to take for each dose?
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Chapter 24: Drug Therapy With Nutritional Supplements
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed to receive 240 mL of the supplemental feeding,Jevity,over 2 hours.At what rate in milliliters per hour will you set the feeding pump?
Q2) What are the intended responses of the trace mineral zinc? (select all that apply)
A) Helps blood clot
B) Supports protein structures
C) Strengthens bones
D) Essential for taste and smell
E) Supports the immune system
Q3) A patient is to be discharged to home with a continuous supplemental enteral feeding through a feeding tube.The spouse of the patient asks how much feeding to hang.What is your best response?
A) "Hang enough for 12 hours."
B) "Hang enough for 8 hours."
C) "Hang enough for 4 hours."
D) "Hang enough for 2 hours."
Q4) A patient with COPD is to receive Pulmocare at 40 mL/h.How many milliliters would you hang to cover 4 hours?
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Chapter 25: Drug Therapy for Seizures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 13-year-old boy who has a seizure disorder has grown 6 inches and gained 30 lb in the past 8 months.How do you expect these physical changes to affect his antiseizure drug therapy?
A) No change will be needed.
B) The dosage of the antiseizure drugs will probably need to be decreased.
C) The dosage of the antiseizure drugs will probably need to be increased.
D) The antiseizure drugs can be discontinued because it is likely he has outgrown the disorder.
Q2) Which factors are among the most common causes of seizures in adults? (select all that apply)
A) Emotional distress
B) Head injury
C) Stroke
D) Tumors
E) Lack of sleep
Q3) Which first-line antiseizure drug can only be given by the oral route?
A) Gatifloxacin (Tequin)
B) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
C) Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
D) Valproic acid (Depakote)
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Chapter 26: Drug Therapy for Alzheimers and Parkinsons Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is bromocriptine (Parlodel)not recommended for women who are breastfeeding?
A) It stops the production of milk.
B) It enters the milk and slows infant growth.
C) It enters the milk and causes symptoms of Parkinson's disease in the infant.
D) It is a pregnancy category C drug and has been found to cause birth defects in animals.
Q2) A patient is prescribed entacapone (Comtan)800 mg/day.The drug is available in 200 mg tablets.How many tablets should you give?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
Q3) Which symptom is often the earliest to occur in a patient with Alzheimer's disease?
A) Difficulty solving simple math problems
B) Problems performing simple tasks
C) Mild forgetfulness
D) Inability to read
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Chapter 27: Drug Therapy for Psychiatric Problems
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed Ziprasidone (Geodon),80 mg twice a day.Tablets from the pharmacy are 20 mg per tablet.How many tablets will you give for each dose?
A) 2 tablets
B) 4 tablets
C) 6 tablets
D) 8 tablets
Q2) What potential problem can occur in an infant being breastfed while the mother takes a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?
A) Suicide ideation
B) Acute depression
C) Excess excitement
D) Weight loss
Q3) Which food or beverage should you teach a patient who is prescribed quetiapine (Seroquel)to avoid?
A) Coffee and caffeine
B) Fresh berries and vegetables
C) Aged cheese and smoked meat
D) Grapefruit and grapefruit juice
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Chapter 28: Drug Therapy for Insomnia
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21 Flashcards
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Q1) Which unusual side effect should you teach patients and families to monitor for when eszopiclone (Lunesta)is prescribed for insomnia?
A) Dizziness
B) Drowsiness
C) Somnambulism
D) Headache
Q2) Which drugs used to treat insomnia belong to the benzodiazepine class? (select all that apply)
A) Chloral hydrate (Somnote)
B) Estazolam (ProSom)
C) Eszopiclone (Lunesta)
D) Flurazepam (Dalmane)
E) Secobarbital (Seconal)
F) Triazolam (Halcion)
Q3) In which drug category for insomnia does zaleplon (Sonata)belong?
A) Antihistamines
B) Benzodiazepines
C) Sedating antidepressants
D) Benzodiazepine receptor agonists
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Drug Therapy for Eye Problems
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug reduces the production of aqueous humor to the greatest degree?
A) Acetazolamide (Diamox)
B) Pilocarpine (Isopto)
C) Dipivefrin (AK-Pro)
D) Travoprost (Travatan)
Q2) Which problem indicates a patient may be overusing apraclonidine (Iopidine)eye drops for glaucoma?
A) Anorexia
B) Blurred vision
C) Conjunctival itching
D) Drowsiness
Q3) What is the most important action to perform after administering eye drops to a patient who is prescribed pilocarpine (Ocu-Carpine)?
A) Place the patient in the supine position.
B) Wipe the excess drug from the patient's skin.
C) Instruct the patient to keep the eyes closed for 2 minutes.
D) Check pupillary responses by shining a penlight into each eye.
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug used to treat osteoporosis is available only by subcutaneous injection?
A) Alendronate (Fosamax)
B) Raloxifene (Evista)
C) Ibandronate (Boniva)
D) Denosumab (Prolia)
Q2) A patient is prescribed to start cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril).Before administering the drug,you find he has a slow and irregular heartbeat.What is your best action?
A) Administer the drug as prescribed.
B) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber.
C) Apply a heart monitor before administering the drug.
D) Substitute methocarbamol (Robaxin)for the Flexeril.
Q3) Why is it necessary to slow or prevent osteoporosis?
A) To reduce the incidence of bone fractures.
B) To reduce the need for calcium supplementation.
C) To increase skeletal muscle strength and flexibility.
D) To prevent excessive weight gain after menopause.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Drug Therapy for Male Reproductive Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which side effect occurs when a patient is prescribed a DHT Inhibitor?
A) Dizziness
B) Back pain
C) Reduced fertility
D) Stuffy nose
Q2) For which intended response will you monitor when a patient is prescribed finasteride (Proscar)5 mg orally each day?
A) Pressure is increased
B) Urine flow from urethra improves
C) Nocturia increases
D) Bladder empties incompletely
Q3) A 58-year-old patient with BPH asks you why he should see his physician for prostate cancer screening.What is your best response?
A) "BPH increases your risk for developing prostate cancer."
B) "At your age it is always best to complete cancer screening tests."
C) "If prostate cancer is caught early enough there is a very high cure rate."
D) "The signs and symptoms of BPH and prostate cancer are the same."
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Chapter 32: Drug Therapy for Female Reproductive Issues
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17 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman taking oral contraceptives reports the following changes.Which one is an expected side effect and requires no intervention?
A) Calf swelling
B) Severe constipation
C) Increased breast size
D) Heavier menstrual periods
Q2) A patient calls to report that her health care provider prescribed Premphase daily and her new bottle of pills says Prempro.What is your best advice?
A) Remind her that Prempro is just another brand of Premphase.
B) Instruct her to take the new bottle back to the pharmacy for replacement with Premphase.
C) Ask her whether she has already taken one of the Prempro and if she has to go to the nearest emergency department.
D) Instruct her to call her health care provider and request that the prescription be changed to Prempro 0.3 mg daily.
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