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Introduction
Pharmacology for Nursing is designed to provide nursing students with a comprehensive understanding of how drugs interact with the human body and the principles guiding safe medication administration. The course covers major drug classifications, mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, side effects, drug interactions, and factors affecting drug response. Emphasis is placed on applying pharmacological knowledge to clinical practice, including dosage calculations, patient assessment, evidence-based decision-making, and educating patients about their medications. By the end of the course, students will be equipped to make informed, ethical, and safe pharmacological interventions as part of holistic nursing care.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Pharmacology for Health Professionals 5th Edition by Susan M. Turley
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2155 Verified Questions
2155 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first oral contraceptive pill was introduced in 2000.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) States that allow healthcare providers to prescribe controlled substances first require them to register at the federal level with ________.
A) the Drug Enforcement Agency
B) Medicare
C) Joint Commission
D) the Food and Drug Administration
Answer: A
Q3) It took a national tragedy to force a much-needed update of the Food and Drugs Act of 1906.The drug that caused this national tragedy was ________.
A) Ayer's Cherry Pectoral, which was used to treat respiratory ailments
B) Cocaine Toothache Drops, which was used to treat toothache pain
C) sulfonamide, an anti-infective drug
D) thalidomide, which was used to treat morning sickness
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generic drugs and trade name drugs that are in the same drug form and drug strength--even if they are from different drug companies-must contain exactly the same amount of active ingredient.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) While it is physiologically impossible for a placebo to exert any pharmacological effect,patients often report a decrease in certain types of symptoms after taking a placebo.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) There are three phases of human testing,which together are known as ________. Answer: clinical drug trials
Q4) The trade name is also known as the ________ name because it implies brand recognition and customer loyalty.
Answer: brand
Q5) The marketing and advertising of over-the-counter drugs is regulated by the ________.
Answer: Federal Trade Commission
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Q1) Solutions in which the drug is dissolved in sterile water or saline ________.
A) are effervescent tablets
B) are injected into the blood or body tissues
C) need to be shaken before using D) are inhaled
Answer: B
Q2) Some drugs are ineffective if they are given in a particular drug form or they can seriously injure the patient if administered in the wrong drug form.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A vial can be used only once,and the unused drug must be discarded,because it contains no preservative.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) In written prescriptions,the word tablet is sometimes abbreviated as ________ or ________.
Answer: tab,tabs
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Q1) The names Broviac,Hickman,and Groshong are all associated with types of endotracheal tubes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For subcutaneous administration of a liquid drug,the needle of the syringe is inserted at a ________ degree angle.
Q3) ________ is the study of how drugs move through the body in the process of absorption,distribution,metabolism,and excretion.
Q4) The ________ route is used to produce regional spinal anesthesia during childbirth.
Q5) All of the following drugs are given via the rectal route of administration,EXCEPT ________.
A) Monistat cream for a yeast infection
B) Tylenol suppositories for a fever
C) Anusol cream for hemorrhoids
D) Proctofoam-HC for ulcerative colitis
Q6) ________ administration involves placing the drug under the tongue and allowing it to slowly dissolve.
Q7) Explain how to administer a liquid drug to an infant.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The way to optimize the therapeutic effect of a drug and minimize the occurrence of adverse or toxic effects is to take the drug exactly as prescribed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A patient who is allergic to one drug can safely take other drugs belonging to that drug group.
A)True
B)False
Q3) "Tall Man" letters (capital letters within drug names)are used to ________.
A) distinguish it from other look-alike drug names
B) call attention to possible side effects
C) tell which drug company produced the drug
D) all of the above
Q4) ADR stands for ________.
Q5) All of the following are metric measurements,EXCEPT ________.
A) grain
B) milligram
C) cubic centimeter
D) milliliter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Only the drug's trade name can be used when writing a prescription.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The abbreviation Sig.stands for the Latin word signetur,meaning ________.
Q3) The hospital's Pharmacy Committee decides how many days any medication order for a scheduled drug will continue to be filled until the pharmacy automatically stops it.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A weekend might be an example of when the physician would need to give a verbal prescription over the telephone to the pharmacist.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The abbreviation Rx is printed on both the prescription form and on the physician's order sheet.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A patient's age and weight are sometimes (but not always)included on a prescription form.Explain why this information might be useful to include.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diuretic drugs ________.
A) allow sodium and potassium to enter the tubules
B) allow sodium and potassium to be reabsorbed from the tubules into the blood
C) keep sodium and potassium from being reabsorbed from the tubules back into the blood
D) keep sodium and potassium from leaving the blood and entering the kidney
Q2) The trade name drug Pyridium turns the urine a ________ color.
A) blue
B) green
C) red-orange
D) all of the above
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the diseases treated with diuretic drugs?
A) edema associated with congestive heart failure
B) hypertension
C) renal failure
D) urinary tract infection
Q4) Gelnique is in the drug form of a gel and is used to treat overactive bladder.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The abbreviation HCTZ stands for the generic diuretic drug name ________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following trade names are NOT related to the generic drug mesalamine that is used to treat ulcerative colitis?
A) linaclotide (Linzess)
B) Asacol
C) Pentasa
D) Rowasa
Q2) Another trade name for the laxative drug docusate (Colace)is ________.
A) Surfak
B) Antivert
C) Qsymia
D) Tums
Q3) All of the following statements are true,EXCEPT ________.
A) Helicobacter pylori are helical (spiral) bacteria.
B) Helicobacter pylori have flagella (thin, whip-like tails).
C) Helicobacter pylori are the cause of some gastric ulcers.
D) Helicobacter pylori infections are treated with lipase inhibitor drugs.
Q4) The trade name AciPhex refers to the drug's effect on the acid content and pH level of the stomach.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) The ending -profen is common to generic ________.
A) gold compound drugs
B) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
C) monoclonal antibody drugs
D) drugs used to treat fibromyalgia
Q2) ________,also known as acetylsalicylic acid (ASA),is the most well-known drug in the salicylate category.
Q3) Gold compound drugs ________.
A) inhibit macrophages from the immune system
B) contain real gold
C) have names that often contain the letters RA, the chemical symbol for gold.
D) A and B
Q4) Which of these drugs has the most powerful anti-inflammatory effect?
A) ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin)
B) acetaminophen (Tylenol)
C) hydrocortisone (Cortef, Solu-Cortef)
D) zoledronic acid (Reclast, Zometa)
Q5) When you hear the phrase "trigger point injections," you think of a drug being used to treat the disease of ________.
Q6) The phrase "low-impact fractures" is associated with the disease of ________.
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Q1) Bobby Whittaker has childhood asthma and takes a corticosteroid drug to prevent asthma attacks.Which drug is he taking?
A) ipratropium (Atrovent)
B) budesonide (Pulmicort)
C) zileuton (Zyflo)
D) ethambutol (Myambutol)
Q2) Explain why resistant strains of tuberculosis develop and what is done to minimize the chance of this occurring.
Q3) Leukotriene receptor blocker drugs ________.
A) block the action of leukotriene at the receptor level
B) inhibit the production of leukotriene
C) block the airway edema, bronchospasm, and inflammation caused by the substance leukotriene
D) A and C
Q4) Which of these suffixes is common to generic beta-agonist bronchodilator drugs?
A) -terol
B) -sonide
C) -solone
D) -lukast
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the serum cholesterol level is too high,bile acid sequestrant drugs ________.
A) bind with receptors in the liver so that cholesterol is not formed
B) bind with bile to form an insoluble complex that is excreted in the feces
C) change bile so that the cholesterol in it can be excreted by the kidneys
D) inhibit cholesterol formation so that none is in the bile
Q2) Bile acid sequestrant drugs are used to treat the pain of angina pectoris.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The trade names for nitroglycerin include all of the following,EXCEPT ________.
A) Zocor
B) Nitro-Bid
C) Minitran
D) Nitrostat
Q4) Beta-blocker drugs used to treat hypertension block all beta receptors in the heart and keep them from binding to ________.
A) acetylcholine
B) angiotensin
C) epinephrine
D) calcium
Q5) The abbreviation HTN stands for ________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thrombolytic enzyme drugs revolutionized the treatment of myocardial infarction and stroke because they were the first drugs that could actually dissolve a clot.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Anticoagulant drugs are used to ________ a blood clot. A) dissolve
B) enhance C) prevent D) treat
Q3) Aspirin prolongs the clotting time by inhibiting thromboxane,a substance in the blood that causes platelet aggregation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Anticoagulant drugs can prevent blood clots from forming,prevent blood clots from enlarging,and are effective in dissolving blood clots once they have formed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ending -rudin is common to generic ________ inhibitor drugs.
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Sample Questions
Q1) There currently are no drugs approved by the FDA to specifically stop preterm labor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In addition to being an oral contraceptive drug,YAZ is also approved by the FDA for treating ________.
A) premenstrual dysphoric disorder
B) premature labor
C) vaginal yeast infections
D) sexually transmitted diseases
Q3) Drugs such as clotrimazole (Gyne-Lotrimin,Mycelex)and miconazole (Monistat,Vagistat)are used to treat ________.
A) infections caused by Candida albicans
B) infections caused by Treponema pallidum
C) dysmenorrhea
D) infertility
Q4) The abbreviation STD stands for ________.
Q5) The first FDA-approved prescription drug for treating the hot flashes of menopause that was not a hormone drug was paroxetine (________).
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Sample Questions
Q1) The drug insulin was first introduced in the 1960s.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The first drug ever created using recombinant DNA technology was ________.
A) NPH insulin
B) Humulin insulin
C) insulin glargine (Lantus)
D) triamcinolone (Kenalog)
Q3) Antithyroid drugs used to treat hyperthyroidism act by ________.
A) inhibiting the production of T and T in the parathyroid gland
B) inhibiting the production of T and T in the thyroid gland
C) stimulating the production of T and T in the parathyroid gland
D) stimulating the production of T and T in the thyroid gland.
Q4) Insulin does all of the following,EXCEPT ________.
A) stimulates the pancreas to secrete hormones
B) carries glucose to the cell
C) binds with an insulin receptor on the cell membrane
D) transports glucose into the cell
Q5) The process of using a different site for each insulin injection is known as site
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a barbiturate drug is used to treat epilepsy,it is said to have a long-acting antihistamine effect and an anticonvulsant effect.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following combination drugs containing carbidopa and levodopa are used to treat Parkinson's disease,EXCEPT ________.
A) Depakene
B) Stalevo
C) Parcopa
D) Sinemet
Q3) Which of the following is NOT categorized as a neuralgia or neuropathy?
A) multiple sclerosis
B) restless legs syndrome
C) postherpetic neuralgia from shingles
D) phantom limb pain
Q4) The category of ________ drugs for epilepsy act on the cell membranes of neurons in the motor cortex of the brain.
Q5) Explain what a drug holiday is and what disease it is related to.
Q6) Alzheimer's disease is the most common form of ________.
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Q1) Benzodiazepine drugs bind to several different receptors in the brain to provide sedation and also to decrease muscle tension that comes with anxiety.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What mental illness is the drug haloperidol (Haldol)used to treat?
A) anxiety
B) psychosis
C) neurosis
D) ADHD
Q3) The treatment of psychosis involves the use of antipsychotic drugs,which are also known as ________ drugs or major tranquilizer drugs.
Q4) Recovering alcoholic patients who take disulfiram (Antabuse)must ________.
A) be warned about the adverse effects before starting the drug
B) give their consent to treatment with this drug
C) avoid alcoholic beverages, cough syrups, and mouthwashes
D) all of the above
Q5) The well-known generic antidepressant drug escitalopram is related to the trade name drug ________.
Q6) Panic disorder is also known as panic ________.
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Q1) Which of the following drugs is used topically to treat cold sores from a herpes simplex virus type 1 infection on the mouth??
A) erythromycin (Eryderm, Emgel)
B) desoximethasone (Topicort)
C) docosanol (Abreva)
D) EMLA
Q2) Topical anti-infective or antibiotic drugs inhibit the growth of bacteria (which is called a ________ effect)or they kill bacteria (which is called a bactericidal action).
Q3) The AF in some trade name drugs,such as Lotrimin AF,stands for ________.
Q4) Topical antihistamine drugs inhibit inflammation,redness,and itching due to the release of histamine during an allergic reaction.These drugs are also known as ________ drugs (based on the Latin word that means itching).
Q5) Some drugs used to treat fungal infections are also used to treat yeast infections because ________.
A) both types of drugs come in the same strength of doses
B) fungi are closely related (biologically) to yeasts.
C) they are both over-the-counter drugs
D) all of the above
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Q1) Mydriatic drugs ________.
A) constrict the pupil
B) dilate the pupil
C) decrease the flow of aqueous humor
D) all of the above
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a topical antibiotic drug used to treat bacterial infections of the eye?
A) ciprofloxacin (Ciloxan)
B) levofloxacin (Quixin)
C) metipranolol (OptiPranolol)
D) ofloxacin (Ocuflox)
Q3) Beta-blocker drugs used to treat glaucoma have no effect on pupil size and therefore do not cause the blurred vision or night blindness associated with some other glaucoma drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ________ plant was the original source of the mydriatic drugs atropine and scopolamine.
Q5) Describe the effect of miotic drugs to that of mydriatic drugs.
Q6) The eye disease of xerophthalmia is also known as ________ eyes syndrome.
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an allergic reaction,histamine is released from ________ cells.
Q2) Topical antiyeast drugs are used to treat a Candida albicans yeast infection in the mouth,which is also known as oral candidiasis,________,or monilia.
Q3) Corticosteroid drugs used intranasally to treat allergies can cause ________.
A) nosebleeds
B) yeast infections
C) sore throat
D) all of the above
Q4) An otic solution should only be used in the ________.
A) mouth
B) ear
C) nose
D) It can be used in the mouth, ears, or nose.
Q5) Antitussive drugs act by suppressing the ________ center in the brain.
Q6) The trade name for the well-known generic drug diphenhydramine is ________.
A) Afrin
B) Sudafed PE
C) Benadryl
D) Zyrtec
Q7) The drug ofloxacin (Floxin Otic)belongs to the ________ category of drugs.
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Q1) Drugs that have the potential to cause addiction have an alphabet letter that is a large ________ printed on the label with Roman numerals inside of it.
Q2) The salicylate drug aspirin has a therapeutic effect that is not shared by any of the other salicylate drugs.That is a/an ________ effect.
Q3) Which of the following is a common side effect of narcotic drugs?
A) decreased white blood count
B) sedation
C) stomach ulcer
D) constipation
Q4) What is the reason that a person with the aches and pains of a viral illness should not be given aspirin?
Q5) Which of the following categories of drugs is NOT used to treat migraine headaches?
A) antidepressant drugs
B) beta-blocker drugs
C) nonsalicylate analgesic drugs
D) serotonin receptor agonist drugs
Q6) The abbreviation NSAID stands for ________.
Q7) ________ are the body's own natural pain relievers.
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Q1) Aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs can cause a severe adverse effect on hearing and balance,which is known as ________.
Q2) Macrolide antibiotic drugs kill bacteria by inhibiting an enzyme that the bacteria need in order to reproduce.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of these pairs of drugs consists of two aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs that are given orally as a bowel prep before surgery because they are not absorbed from the intestine into the blood?
A) kanamycin, neomycin
B) minocycline, tetracycline
C) cefaclor, cefuroxime
D) ampicillin, ticarcillin
Q4) In 2006,the FDA approved the drug ________,which was the first combination drug to contain three different AIDS drugs.
Q5) Sulfonamide drugs are only effective against viruses.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ending -navir is common to ________ inhibitor drugs.
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Q1) Cancers that arise from tissue that is influenced by a male or female sex hormone are treated with a chemotherapy drug that has the same hormonal effect.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cancer is a Latin word meaning crab.Explain how cancer resembles a crab.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the three categories of antimetabolite chemotherapy drugs?
A) folic acid blocker chemotherapy drugs
B) nitrosourea chemotherapy drugs
C) purine analog chemotherapy drugs
D) pyrimidine analog chemotherapy drugs
Q4) Mesna protects the ________ from toxicity due to the chemotherapy drug ifosfamide.
Q5) Some cancers have receptors on the surface of their cells that are stimulated by ________.
A) radiation
B) mitosis
C) hormones
D) microtubules
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Q1) Persons over age 65 need a special high-dose influenza vaccine because more inactivated viruses are needed to adequately stimulate the weaker immune system in patients of this age.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most vaccinations are given by the intramuscular route.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A vaccinated child still can occasionally get the disease they were vaccinated against.
A)True
B)False
Q4) At 5 years of age,a child's immune system begins to produce its own antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ is the state of the body's own immune system being able to identify and kill disease-producing pathogens.
Q6) Explain why an outbreak of measles occurred in the United States in 2014.
Q7) Because viruses only contain ________,they must enter body cells in order to reproduce themselves.
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Q1) Local anesthesia is used during minor procedures,such as biopsies or during dental surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are inhaled general anesthetic gases,EXCEPT ________.
A) desflurane (Suprane)
B) fentanyl (Sublimaze)
C) enflurane (Ethrane)
D) nitrous oxide
Q3) Describe why some anesthetic drugs contain MPF but some do not.
Q4) The ending ________ is common to anesthetic drugs used to produce local,regional,spinal,or epidural anesthetic drugs.
Q5) Some liquid anesthetic drugs contain methylparaben,which is ________.
A) anesthetic drug with antibiotic and antifungal effects
B) neuromuscular drug with antibiotic and antifungal effects
C) preservative with antibiotic and antifungal effects
D) barbiturate drug with antibiotic and antiviral effects
Q6) Drugs used for the induction of anesthesia are generally given by inhalation.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Ipecac syrup can only be given to a patient who is conscious.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The "E" in the acronym NAVEL stands for the drug ________ (Adrenalin).
Q3) Ipecac syrup can be a drug of abuse in patients with bulimia who use it to induce vomiting.
A)True
B)False
Q4) PRBCs are a concentrated preparation of RBCs in a small amount of plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is NOT one of the risks associated with intracardiac injection of drugs?
A) anaphylaxis
B) cardiac tamponade
C) coronary artery laceration
D) pneumothorax

Page 27
Q6) To meet the dietary fat requirements of a patient who cannot eat,a separate intravenous solution of ________ may be ordered.
Q7) Ipecac syrup is classified as a/an ________ drug,because it induces vomiting.
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