Pharmacology for Nursing Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Pharmacology for Nursing provides students with a comprehensive understanding of the principles of pharmacology as they apply to nursing practice. The course covers the mechanisms of drug action, therapeutic uses, side effects, and safe administration of medications across the lifespan. Emphasis is placed on medication classifications, patient assessment, dosage calculations, drug interactions, and evidence-based decision-making. Students will develop critical thinking and clinical reasoning skills needed to safely and effectively manage pharmacological interventions, promote patient safety, and collaborate within interdisciplinary healthcare teams.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition by Lilley
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58 Chapters
791 Verified Questions
791 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2416 Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nursing Process and Drug Therapy
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47982
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is performing an assessment of a newly admitted patient. Which is an example of subjective data?
A) Blood pressure 158/96 mm Hg
B) Weight 255 pounds
C) The patient reports that he uses the herbal product ginkgo.
D) The patient's complete blood count results.
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse has been monitoring the patient's progress on a new drug regimen since the first dose and documenting the patient's therapeutic response to the medication. Which phase of the nursing process do these actions illustrate?
A) Human needs statement
B) Planning
C) Implementation
D) Evaluation
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Pharmacologic Principles
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is administering parenteral drugs. Which statement is true regarding parenteral drugs?
A) Parenteral drugs bypass the first-pass effect.
B) Absorption of parenteral drugs is affected by reduced blood flow to the stomach.
C) Absorption of parenteral drugs is faster when the stomach is empty.
D) Parenteral drugs exert their effects while circulating in the bloodstream.
Answer: A
Q2) A patient who has advanced cancer is receiving opioid medications around the clock to keep him comfortable as he nears the end of his life. Which term best describes this type of therapy?
A) Palliative therapy
B) Maintenance therapy
C) Empiric therapy
D) Supplemental therapy
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Lifespan Considerations
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a newly admitted 83-year-old patient and determines that the patient is experiencing polypharmacy. Which statement most accurately illustrates polypharmacy?
A) The patient is experiencing multiple illnesses.
B) The patient uses one medication for an illness several times per day.
C) The patient uses over-the-counter drugs for an illness.
D) The patient uses multiple medications simultaneously.
Answer: D
Q2) The nurse is administering drugs to neonates and will consider which factor may contribute the most to drug toxicity?
A) The lungs are immature.
B) The kidneys are small.
C) The liver is not fully developed.
D) Excretion of the drug occurs quickly.
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Cultural, Legal, and Ethical Considerations
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During discharge patient teaching, the nurse reviews prescriptions with a patient. Which statement is correct about refills for an analgesic that is classified as Schedule C-III?
A) No prescription refills are permitted.
B) Refills are allowed only by written prescription.
C) The patient may have no more than five refills in a 6-month period.
D) Written prescriptions expire in 12 months.
Q2) For which cultural group must the health care provider respect the value placed on preserving harmony with nature and the belief that disease is a result of ill spirits?
A) Hispanics
B) Asian Americans
C) Native Americans
D) African Americans
Q3) The nurse is reviewing facts about pharmacology for a review course. The term legend drug refers to which item?
A) Over-the-counter drugs
B) Prescription drugs
C) Orphan drugs
D) Older drugs
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Chapter 5: Medication Errors: Preventing and Responding
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When reviewing pediatric medication administration, the nurse recognizes that which type of medication error is most common with children?
A) Oral medication administration errors
B) Wrong route errors
C) Incorrect dosage form errors
D) Dosing errors
Q2) During a period of time when the computerized medication order system was down, the prescriber wrote admission orders, and the nurse is transcribing them. The nurse is having difficulty transcribing one order because of the prescriber's handwriting. Which is the best action for the nurse to take at this time?
A) Ask a colleague what the order says.
B) Contact the prescriber to clarify the order.
C) Wait until the prescriber makes rounds again to clarify the order.
D) Ask the patient what medications he takes at home.
Q3) Digoxin is available in 0.125-mg tablet form. Convert this dose to microgram strength. (do not round) _______
Q4) Levothyroxine is available in 75-mcg tablet form. Convert this dose to milligram strength. (do not round) _______
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Patient Education and Drug Therapy
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an admission assessment, the nurse discovers that the patient does not speak English. Which is considered the ideal resource for translation?
A) A family member of the patient
B) A close family friend of the patient
C) A translator who does not know the patient
D) Prewritten note cards with both English and the patient's language
Q2) When the nurse teaches a skill such as self-injection of insulin to the patient, what is the best way to set up the teaching/learning session?
A) Provide written pamphlets for instruction.
B) Show a video, and allow the patient to practice as needed on his own.
C) Verbally explain the procedure, and provide written handouts for reinforcement.
D) After demonstrating the procedure, allow the patient to do several return demonstrations.
Q3) A patient is to receive prednisone 7.5 mg PO daily. The tablets are available in a 2.5-mg strength. Identify how many tablets will the patient receive. _______
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8
Chapter 7: Over-The-Counter Drugs and Herbal and Dietary Supplements
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 25-year-old woman is visiting the prenatal clinic and shares with the nurse her desire to go "natural" with her pregnancy. She shows the nurse a list of herbal remedies that she wants to buy so that she can "avoid taking any drugs." Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Most herbal remedies are not harmful and are safe for use during pregnancy."
B) "Please read each label carefully before use to check for cautionary warnings."
C) "Keep in mind that products from different manufacturers are required to contain consistent amounts of the herbal products."
D) "It's important to remember that herbal remedies do not have proven safety ratings for pregnant women."
Q2) During an assessment, the patient tells the nurse that he eats large amounts of garlic for its cardiovascular benefits. Which drug or drug class, if taken, would have a potential interaction with the garlic?
A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B) Insulin
C) Antilipemic drugs
D) Sedatives
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Gene Therapy and Pharmacogenomics
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is asking a patient about his family history as part of an assessment. Which component is included in an effective family history?
A) Asking the patient about the current and past health status of the patient's children
B) Covering at least three generations of family history
C) Obtaining a family history of the patient's spouse
D) Asking about the family history for the patient's siblings and parents only
Q2) The nurse is explaining the Human Genome Project to colleagues. Which of these is the main purpose of the Human Genome Project?
A) The study of genetic diseases.
B) The study of genetic traits in humans.
C) The discovery new genetic diseases.
D) To describe the entire genome of a human being.
Q3) A patient will be receiving ranitidine (Zantac) 150 mg twice a day. A liquid form is ordered because the patient cannot swallow pills or capsules; the concentration of the liquid is 15 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive per dose?
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10
Chapter 9: Photo Atlas of Drug Administration
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse needs to administer insulin subcutaneously to an obese patient. Which is the proper technique for this injection?
A) Using the Z-track method
B) Inserting the needle at a 5- to 15-degree angle until resistance is felt
C) Pinching the skin at the injection site, and then inserting the needle to below the tissue fold at a 90-degree angle
D) Spreading the skin tightly over the injection site, inserting the needle, and then releasing the skin
Q2) When giving a buccal medication to a patient, which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A) Encouraging the patient to swallow, if necessary
B) Administering water after the medication has been given
C) Placing the medication between the upper or lower molar teeth and the cheek
D) Placing the tablet under the patient's tongue and allowing it to dissolve completely
Q3) A patient is to receive hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 1.5 mg IV push now. The medication comes in a prefilled syringe, 2 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will administer for this dose. _______
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Analgesic Drugs
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 16-year-old field hockey player fell and twisted her ankle during a game. The nurse will expect to administer which type of analgesic?
A) Synthetic opioid, such as meperidine (Demerol)
B) Opium alkaloid, such as morphine sulfate
C) Opioid antagonist, such as naloxone HCL (Narcan)
D) Nonopioid analgesics, such as indomethacin (Indocin)
Q2) A patient is receiving gabapentin (Neurontin), an anticonvulsant, but has no history of seizures. The nurse expects that the patient is receiving this drug for which condition?
A) Inflammation pain
B) Pain associated with peripheral neuropathy
C) Depression associated with chronic pain
D) Prevention of seizures
Q3) A patient is to receive methadone (Dolophine) 2.5 mg intramuscularly (IM) now. The medication is available in a concentration of 10 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of methadone will be drawn up for this dose. ______
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Chapter 11: General and Local Anesthetics
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer dexmedetomidine (Precedex) to a patient. Which is an appropriate indication for dexmedetomidine?
A) Procedural sedation
B) Surgeries of short duration
C) Surgeries of long duration
D) Postoperative anxiety
E) Sedation of mechanically ventilated patients
Q2) During a fishing trip, a patient pierced his finger with a large fishhook. He is now in the emergency department to have it removed. The nurse anticipates that which type of anesthesia will be used for this procedure?
A) No anesthesia
B) Topical benzocaine spray on the area
C) Topical prilocaine/lidocaine (EMLA) cream around the site
D) Infiltration of the puncture wound with lidocaine
Q3) A patient is to receive midazolam (Versed) 2 mg IV push over 2 minutes just before an endoscopy procedure. The medication is available in a strength of 1 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of medication will the nurse draw up into the syringe for this dose.
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Chapter 12: Central Nervous System Depressants and Muscle Relaxants
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47993
Sample Questions
Q1) Ramelteon (Rozerem) is prescribed for a patient with insomnia. The nurse checks the patient's medical history, knowing that this medication is contraindicated in which disorder?
A) Coronary artery disease
B) Renal insufficiency
C) Liver disease
D) Anemia
Q2) A patient is brought to the emergency department for treatment of a suspected overdose. The patient was found with an empty prescription bottle of a barbiturate by his bedside. He is lethargic and barely breathing. The nurse would expect which immediate intervention?
A) Starting an intravenous infusion of diluted bicarbonate solution
B) Administering medications to increase blood pressure
C) Implementing measures to maintain the airway and support respirations
D) Administrating naloxone (Narcan) as an antagonist
Q3) A patient is about to receive pentobarbital (Nembutal) 100 mg IV as preoperative sedation. The medication is available in a concentration of 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive for this dose?
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Chapter 13: Central Nervous System Stimulants and Related Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 22-year-old nursing student has been taking NoDoz (caffeine) tablets for the past few weeks to "make it through" the end of the semester and exam week. She is in the university clinic today because she is "exhausted." What human needs statement may be appropriate for her?
A) Altered oxygenation need
B) Altered physical activity
C) Altered need for sleep
D) Altered food intake
Q2) The order reads, "Give atomoxetine (Strattera) 0.5 mg/kg/day once daily in the morning before school." The child weighs 88 pounds. Identify how many milligrams will be administered per dose. _______
Q3) A patient is receiving instructions regarding the use of caffeine. The nurse shares that caffeine should be used with caution if which of these conditions is present?
A) A history of peptic ulcers
B) Migraine headaches
C) Asthma
D) A history of kidney stones
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Antiepileptic Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47995
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is experiencing status epilepticus. The nurse prepares to give which drug of choice for the treatment of this condition?
A) Diazepam (Valium)
B) Midazolam (Versed)
C) Valproic acid (Depakote)
D) Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Q2) During a routine appointment, a patient with a history of seizures is found to have a phenytoin (Dilantin) level of 23 mcg/mL. What concern will the nurse have, if any?
A) The patient is at risk for seizures because the drug level is not at a therapeutic level.
B) The patient's seizures should be under control because this is a therapeutic drug level.
C) The patient's seizures should be under control if she is also taking a second antiepileptic drug.
D) The drug level is at a toxic level, and the dosage needs to be reduced.
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Chapter 15: Antiparkinson Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing the medication history of a patient with a new diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. Which condition is a contraindication for the patient, who will be taking entacapone (Comtan)?
A) Glaucoma
B) Seizure disorder
C) Liver failure
D) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Q2) A patient has been treated with antiparkinson medications for 3 months. What therapeutic responses should the nurse look for when assessing this patient?
A) Decreased appetite
B) Gradual development of cogwheel rigidity
C) Newly developed dyskinesias
D) Improved ability to perform activities of daily living
Q3) The prescriber writes this order, "Give amantadine (Symmetrel) 100 mg per PEG tube twice a day." The medication is available in a liquid form with a concentration 50 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will give with each dose. _______
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Chapter 16: Psychotherapeutic Drugs
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient wants to take a ginseng dietary supplement. The nurse instructs the patient to look for which potential adverse effect?
A) Drowsiness
B) Palpitations and anxiety
C) Dry mouth
D) Constipation
Q2) Clozapine (Clozaril), an atypical antipsychotic, is prescribed for a patient. The nurse will monitor for which adverse effect during this drug therapy?
A) Edema
B) Photosensitivity
C) Hypotension
D) Severe neutropenia
Q3) The nurse reads in the patient's medication history that the patient is taking buspirone (BuSpar). The nurse interprets that the patient may have which disorder?
A) Anxiety disorder
B) Depression
C) Schizophrenia
D) Bipolar disorder
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Chapter 17: Substance Use Disorder
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is monitoring a patient who is experiencing severe ethanol withdrawal. Which are signs and symptoms of severe ethanol withdrawal?
A) Agitation
B) Drowsiness
C) Tremors
D) Systolic blood pressure higher than 200 mm Hg
E) Temperature over 100° F (37.7° C)
F) Pulse rate 150 beats/min
Q2) A nurse is providing teaching for a patient who will be taking varenicline (Chantix) as part of a smoking-cessation program. Which teaching points are appropriate for a patient taking this medication?
A) This drug is available as a chewing gum that can be taken to reduce cravings.
B) Use caution when driving because drowsiness may be a problem.
C) There have been very few adverse effects reported for this drug.
D) Notify the prescriber immediately if feelings of sadness or thoughts of suicide occur.
E) Avoid caffeine while on this drug.
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Chapter 18: Adrenergic Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adrenergic agonist is ordered for a patient in shock. The nurse will note that this drug has had its primary intended effect if which expected outcome occurs?
A) Volume restoration
B) Increased cardiac output
C) Decreased urine output
D) Reduced anxiety
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer dopamine. Which is the correct technique for administering dopamine?
A) Orally
B) Intravenous (IV) push injection
C) Intermittent IV infusions (IV piggyback)
D) Continuous IV infusion with an infusion pump
Q3) A hospitalized patient is experiencing a severe anaphylactic reaction to a dose of intravenous penicillin. Which drug will the nurse expect to use to treat this condition?
A) Ephedra
B) Epinephrine
C) Phenylephrine
D) Pseudoephedrine
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20
Chapter 19: Adrenergic-Blocking Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is screening a patient who will be taking a nonspecific/nonselective beta blocker. Which condition, if present, may cause serious problems if the patient takes this medication?
A) Angina
B) Hypertension
C) Glaucoma
D) Asthma
Q2) During rounds, the nurse notes that a dobutamine infusion has extravasated into the forearm of a patient. After stopping the infusion, the nurse follows standing orders and immediately injects phentolamine (Regitine) subcutaneously in a circular fashion around the extravasation site. What is the mechanism of action of the phentolamine in this situation?
A) It neutralizes the extravasated dobutamine immediately.
B) It causes arterial vasoconstriction and reduces pain and swelling at the site.
C) It increases peripheral vascular resistance and reduces arterial pressure at the site.
D) It increases blood flow to the ischemic site by vasodilation to prevent tissue damage.
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21
Chapter 20: Cholinergic Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cholinergic drug is prescribed for a patient. The nurse checks the patient's medical history, knowing that this drug is contraindicated in which disorders?
A) Bladder atony
B) Gastrointestinal obstruction
C) Bradycardia
D) Alzheimer's disease
E) Hypotension
F) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Q2) A cholinergic drug is prescribed for a patient with a new diagnosis of myasthenia gravis, and the nurse provides instructions to the patient about the medication. What is important to include in the teaching?
A) Give daytime doses close together for maximal therapeutic effect.
B) Take the medication with meals to avoid gastrointestinal distress.
C) Take the medication 30 minutes before eating to improve swallowing and chewing.
D) Take the medication only if difficulty swallowing occurs during a meal.
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22
Chapter 21: Cholinergic-Blocking Drugs
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a new prescription for the transdermal form of scopolamine. The nurse knows that this form of scopolamine is used for which condition?
A) Angina
B) Chronic pain
C) Hypertension
D) Motion sickness
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the use of anticholinergic drugs. Anticholinergic drugs block the effects of which nervous system?
A) Central nervous system
B) Somatic nervous system
C) Sympathetic nervous system
D) Parasympathetic nervous system
Q3) The nurse will monitor for which adverse effect when administering an anticholinergic drug?
A) Excessive urination
B) Diaphoresis
C) Dry mouth
D) Pupillary constriction
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23
Chapter 22: Antihypertensive Drugs
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When counseling a male patient about the possible adverse effects of antihypertensive drugs, the nurse will discuss which potential problem?
A) Impotence
B) Bradycardia
C) Increased libido
D) Weight gain
Q2) A patient's blood pressure elevates to 270/150 mm Hg, and a hypertensive emergency is obvious. He is transferred to the intensive care unit and started on a sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) drip to be titrated per his response. With this medication, the nurse knows that the maximum dose of this drug should be infused for how long?
A) 10 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) 1 hour
D) 24 hours
Q3) A patient is to receive enalapril (Vasotec) 5 mg IV every 6 hours. Each dose is given over 5 minutes. The medication is available in an injectable form, 1.25 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of medication will the nurse draw up for each dose. _______
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Chapter 23: Antianginal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department with severe chest pain. The patient reports that the pain has been occurring off and on for a week now. Which assessment finding would indicate the need for cautious use of nitrates and nitrites?
A) Blood pressure of 88/62 mm Hg
B) Apical pulse rate of 110 beats/min
C) History of renal disease
D) History of a myocardial infarction 2 years ago
Q2) When the nurse is administering topical nitroglycerin ointment, which technique is correct?
A) Apply the ointment on the skin on the forearm.
B) Apply the ointment only in the case of a mild angina episode.
C) Remove the old ointment before new ointment is applied.
D) Massage the ointment gently into the skin, and then cover the area with plastic wrap.
Q3) A patient will be receiving metoprolol (Lopressor) 5 mg IV push. The medication is available in a strength of 1 mg/mL. Identify how much medication will the nurse draw up for each dose. _______
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Chapter 24: Heart Failure Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient about to receive a morning dose of digoxin has an apical pulse of 50 beats/min. What will the nurse do next?
A) Administer the dose.
B) Administer the dose, and notify the prescriber.
C) Check the radial pulse for 1 full minute.
D) Withhold the dose, and notify the prescriber.
Q2) A patient has a digoxin level of 1.1 ng/mL. Which interpretation by the nurse is correct?
A) It is below the therapeutic level.
B) It is within the therapeutic range.
C) It is above the therapeutic level.
D) It is at a toxic level.
Q3) The nurse is reviewing discharge teaching for a patient who will be taking digoxin (Lanoxin) therapy. The nurse will teach the patient to avoid which foods when taking the digoxin?
A) Leafy green vegetables
B) Dairy products
C) Grapefruit juice
D) Bran muffins
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the classes of antidysrhythmic drugs. Amiodarone (Cordarone) is classified on the Vaughan Williams classification as a class III drug, which means it works by which mechanism of action?
A) Blocking slow calcium channels
B) Prolonging action potential duration
C) Blocking sodium channels and affecting phase 0
D) Decreasing spontaneous depolarization and affecting phase 4
Q2) The nurse will monitor the patient who has been taking dronedarone (Multaq) for which adverse effect?
A) Decreased white blood cell count
B) Liver toxicity
C) Dehydration
D) Peripheral edema
Q3) A patient is taking procainamide (Pronestyl) for a cardiac dysrhythmia. The nurse will monitor the patient for which possible adverse effect?
A) Bradycardia
B) Shortened QT interval
C) Dyspnea
D) Diarrhea
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Chapter 26: Coagulation Modifier Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) in addition to a heparin infusion. The patient asks the nurse why he has to be on two medications. The nurse's response is based on which rationale?
A) The oral and injection forms work synergistically.
B) The combination of heparin and an oral anticoagulant results in fewer adverse effects than heparin used alone.
C) The warfarin is used to reach an adequate level of anticoagulation when heparin alone is unable to do so.
D) Heparin is used to start anticoagulation so as to allow time for the blood levels of warfarin to reach adequate levels.
Q2) The nurse notes in the patient's medication orders that the patient will be starting anticoagulant therapy. What is the primary goal of anticoagulant therapy?
A) Stabilizing an existing thrombus
B) Dissolving an existing thrombus
C) Preventing thrombus formation
D) Dilating the vessel around a clot
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Chapter 27: Antilipemic Drugs
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While a patient is receiving antilipemic therapy, the nurse knows to monitor the patient closely for the development of which problem?
A) Neutropenia
B) Pulmonary problems
C) Vitamin C deficiency
D) Liver dysfunction
Q2) The nurse will monitor for myopathy (muscle pain) when a patient is taking which class of antilipemic drugs?
A) Niacin
B) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
C) Fibric acid derivatives
D) Bile acid sequestrants
Q3) A patient is concerned about the adverse effects of the fibric acid derivative she is taking to lower her cholesterol level. Which is an adverse effect of this class of medication?
A) Constipation
B) Diarrhea
C) Joint pain
D) Dry mouth
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Diuretic Drugs
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15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48009
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in the neurologic intensive care unit is being treated for cerebral edema. Which class of diuretic is used to reduce intracranial pressure?
A) Loop diuretics
B) Osmotic diuretics
C) Thiazide diuretics
D) Vasodilators
Q2) When a patient is receiving diuretic therapy, which of these assessment measures would best reflect the patient's fluid volume status?
A) Blood pressure and pulse
B) Serum potassium and sodium levels
C) Intake, output, and daily weight
D) Measurements of abdominal girth and calf circumference
Q3) Mannitol (Osmitrol) has been ordered for a patient with acute renal failure. The nurse will administer this drug using which procedure?
A) Intravenously, through a filter
B) By rapid intravenous bolus
C) By mouth in a single morning dose
D) Through a gravity intravenous drip with standard tubing
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Chapter 29: Fluids and Electrolytes
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48010
Sample Questions
Q1) During an infusion of albumin, the nurse monitors the patient closely for the development of which adverse effect?
A) Hypernatremia
B) Dehydration
C) Fluid volume overload
D) Transfusion reaction
Q2) The nurse is preparing to give a potassium supplement. Which laboratory test should be checked before the patient receives a dose of potassium?
A) Complete blood count
B) Serum potassium level
C) Serum sodium level
D) Liver function studies
Q3) The nurse is working with a graduate nurse to prepare an intravenous dose of potassium for a patient on a regular medical-surgical unit. Which statement by the graduate nurse reflects a need for further teaching?
A) "We will need to monitor this infusion closely."
B) "The infusion rate needs to infuse at 10 mEq/hr."
C) "The intravenous potassium will be diluted before we give it."
D) "The intravenous potassium dose will be given undiluted."
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Pituitary Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48011
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these hormones are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland?
A) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C) Oxytocin
D) Growth hormone (GH)
E) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Q2) A patient who has been on somatropin (Humatrope) has been hospitalized for an acute asthma exacerbation, and is receiving intravenous doses of glucocorticoids. The nurse recognizes that which effect may occur if these drugs are given together?
A) Reduction of growth effects
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Increased urine output
D) Diarrhea
Q3) When a patient is receiving vasopressin (Pitressin), the nurse will monitor for which therapeutic response?
A) Improved appetite
B) Increased serum albumin levels
C) Increased serum potassium levels
D) Decreased urinary output
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Thyroid and Antithyroid Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48012
Sample Questions
Q1) The order reads, "Give levothyroxine (Synthroid), 200 mg, PO once every morning." Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Give the medication as ordered.
B) Change the dose to 200 mcg because that is what the prescriber meant.
C) Hold the drug until the prescriber returns to see the patient.
D) Question the order because the dose is higher than 200 mcg.
Q2) A patient has a diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism. Which statement accurately describes this problem?
A) The hypothalamus is not secreting thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH); therefore, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is not released from the pituitary gland.
B) The pituitary gland is dysfunctional and is not secreting TSH.
C) The abnormality is in the thyroid gland itself.
D) The abnormality is caused by an insufficient intake of iodine.
Q3) The nurse is giving morning medications. The Medication Administration Record has an order for levothyroxine, 25 mcg PO. The drug-dispensing cabinet contains levothyroxine tablets in milligram strengths instead of micrograms. Calculate the milligram equivalent dose of 25 mcg. _______
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Chapter 32: Antidiabetic Drugs
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48013
Sample Questions
Q1) A 75-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes has recently been placed on glipizide (Glucotrol). She asks the nurse when the best time would be to take this medication. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Take this medication in the morning, 30 minutes before breakfast."
B) "Take this medication in the evening with a snack."
C) "This medication needs to be taken after the midday meal."
D) "It does not matter what time of day you take this medication."
Q2) The nurse is reviewing instructions for a patient with type 2 diabetes who also takes insulin injections as part of the therapy. The nurse asks the patient, "What should you do if your fasting blood glucose is 47 mg/dL?" Which response by the patient reflects a correct understanding of insulin therapy?
A) "I will call my doctor right away."
B) "I will give myself the regular insulin."
C) "I will take an oral form of glucose."
D) "I will rest until the symptoms pass."
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34
Chapter 33: Adrenal Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48014
Sample Questions
Q1) A glucocorticoid is prescribed for a patient. The nurse checks the patient's medical history knowing that glucocorticoid therapy is contraindicated in which disorder?
A) Cerebral edema
B) Peptic ulcer disease
C) Tuberculous meningitis
D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Q2) The nurse expects that a patient is experiencing undersecretion of adrenocortical hormones when which conditions are found upon assessment?
A) Dehydration
B) Weight loss
C) Steroid psychosis
D) Increased potassium levels
E) Increased blood glucose levels
F) Decreased serum sodium levels
Q3) A patient has been admitted for an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and will be receiving methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 30 mg intravenously every 6 hours. The medication is available in 40 mg/mL vials. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse draw up for this dose. _______
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Chapter 34: Womens Health Drugs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48015
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to induce labor. During administration of this medication, the nurse will also implement which action?
A) Giving magnesium sulfate along with the oxytocin
B) Administering the medication in an intravenous (IV) bolus
C) Administering the medication with an IV infusion pump
D) Monitoring fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs every 2 hours
Q2) When considering the various types of contraceptive drugs, the nurse is aware that which type most closely duplicates the normal hormonal levels of the female menstrual cycle?
A) Monophasic
B) Biphasic
C) Triphasic
D) Short acting
Q3) A patient is being treated for secondary amenorrhea. The nurse expects which drug to be used to treat this problem?
A) Methylergonovine (Methergine)
B) Estradiol transdermal (Estraderm)
C) Raloxifene (Evista)
D) Medroxyprogesterone (Provera)
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Mens Health Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48016
Sample Questions
Q1) A 21-year-old male athlete admits to using androgenic steroids. The nurse tells him that which of these is a possible adverse effect of these drugs?
A) Liver damage
B) Renal failure
C) Heart failure
D) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Q2) During the administration of finasteride (Proscar), the nurse must remember which important precaution?
A) It must be taken on an empty stomach.
B) It must not be handled by pregnant women.
C) It is given by deep intramuscular injection to avoid tissue irritation.
D) The patient needs to be warned that alopecia is a common adverse effect.
Q3) When a male patient is receiving androgen therapy, the nurse will monitor for signs of excessive androgens such as:
A) fluid retention.
B) dehydration.
C) restlessness.
D) visual changes.
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48017
Sample Questions
Q1) When giving dextromethorphan, the nurse understands that this drug suppresses the cough reflex by which mechanism of action?
A) Causing depression of the central nervous system
B) Anesthetizing the stretch receptors
C) Having direct action on the cough center
D) Decreasing the viscosity of the bronchial secretions
Q2) A patient tells the nurse that she wants to start taking the herbal product goldenseal to improve her health. The nurse will assess for which potential cautions or contraindications to goldenseal?
A) Taking a proton-pump inhibitor
B) Nasal congestion
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Taking an antihypertensive drug
E) Sinus infections
F) Pregnancy
Q3) A patient will be receiving diphenhydramine (Benadryl) via a PEG tube, 25 mg, every 8 hours for an allergic rash. The medication is available as a 12.5 mg/5 mL syrup. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse administer with each dose. _______
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48018
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will be receiving oral theophylline (Theo-Dur), 600 mg/day, in three divided doses. Identify how many milligrams the patient will receive per dose. _______
Q2) A patient has a metered-dose inhaler that contains 200 actuations ('puffs'), and it does not have a dose counter. He is to take two puffs two times a day. If he does not take any extra doses, identify how many days will this inhaler last at the prescribed dose.
Q3) After receiving a nebulizer treatment with a beta agonist, the patient states she is feeling slightly nervous and wonders if her asthma is getting worse. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "This is an expected adverse effect. Let me take your pulse."
B) "The next scheduled nebulizer treatment will be skipped."
C) "I will notify the physician about this adverse effect."
D) "We will hold the treatment for 24 hours."
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Chapter 38: Antibiotics Part 1
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48019
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with a fever of 102.8° F (39.3° C), origin unknown. Assessment reveals cloudy, foul-smelling urine that is dark amber in color. Orders have just been written to obtain stat urine and blood cultures and to administer an antibiotic intravenously. The nurse will complete these orders in which sequence?
A) Blood culture, antibiotic dose, urine culture
B) Urine culture, antibiotic dose, blood culture
C) Antibiotic dose, blood and urine cultures
D) Blood and urine cultures, antibiotic dose
Q2) A patient will be having oral surgery and has received an antibiotic to take for 1 week before the surgery. The nurse knows that this is an example of which type of therapy?
A) Empiric
B) Prophylactic
C) Definitive
D) Resistance
Q3) A patient will be receiving penicillin G potassium, 12 million units daily in divided doses every 4 hours IVPB. Identify how many units the patient will receive for each dose each day. _______
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Chapter 39: Antibiotics Part 2
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48020
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse checks the patient's laboratory work prior to administering a dose of vancomycin (Vancocin) and finds that the trough vancomycin level is 24 mcg/mL. What will the nurse do next?
A) Administer the vancomycin as ordered.
B) Hold the drug, and administer 4 hours later.
C) Hold the drug, and notify the prescriber.
D) Repeat the test to verify results.
Q2) A patient with a Pseudomonas species urinary infection will be receiving amikacin (Amikin) 5 mg/kg once daily via intravenous infusion. The patient weighs 198 pounds, and the medication is available in an injection solution strength of 250 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of medication will be drawn up for this injection. (record answer using one decimal place) _______
Q3) Which problem may occur in a patient who has started aminoglycoside therapy?
A) Constipation
B) Renal damage
C) Gynecomastia
D) Leukocytosis
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Chapter 40: Antiviral Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48021
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is in the HIV clinic for a follow-up appointment. He has been on antiretroviral therapy for HIV for more than 3 years. The nurse will assess for which potential adverse effects of long-term antiretroviral therapy?
A) Lipodystrophy
B) Liver damage
C) Kaposi's sarcoma
D) Osteoporosis
E) Type 2 diabetes
Q2) An infant has been hospitalized with a severe lung infection caused by the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and will be receiving medication via the inhalation route. The nurse expects which drug to be used?
A) Acyclovir (Zovirax)
B) Ganciclovir (Cytovene)
C) Amantadine (Symmetrel)
D) Ribavirin (Virazole)
Q3) A patient with a viral infection is to receive ganciclovir (Cytovene) 5 mg/kg/day IVPB every morning. The patient weighs 110 pounds. Identify how many milligrams this patient will receive for this dose. _______
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Chapter 41: Antitubercular Drugs
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48022
Sample Questions
Q1) When monitoring patients on antitubercular drug therapy, the nurse knows that which drug may cause a decrease in visual acuity?
A) Rifampin (Rifadin)
B) Isoniazid (INH)
C) Ethambutol (Myambutol)
D) Streptomycin
Q2) The nurse will assess the patient for which potential contraindication to antitubercular therapy?
A) Glaucoma
B) Anemia
C) Heart failure
D) Hepatic impairment
Q3) The nurse is discussing adverse effects of antitubercular drugs with a patient who has active tuberculosis. Which potential adverse effect of antitubercular drug therapy should the patient report to the prescriber?
A) Gastrointestinal upset
B) Headache and nervousness
C) Reddish-orange urine and stool
D) Numbness and tingling of extremities
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Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48023
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is administering one of the lipid formulations of amphotericin B. When giving this drug, which concept is important to remember?
A) The lipid formulations may be given in oral form.
B) The doses are much lower than the doses of the older drugs.
C) The lipid formulations are associated with fewer adverse effects than the older drugs.
D) There is no difference in cost between the newer and older forms.
Q2) The nurse is reviewing instructions for vaginal antifungal drugs with a patient. Which statement by the nurse is an appropriate instruction regarding these drugs?
A) "The medication can be stopped when your symptoms are relieved."
B) "Discontinue this medication if menstruation begins."
C) "Daily douching is part of the treatment for vaginal fungal infections."
D) "Abstain from sexual intercourse until the treatment has been completed and the infection has resolved."
Q3) A patient will be taking fluconazole (Diflucan) 100 mg/day PO for 2 weeks. The patient is unable to swallow tablets, so an oral suspension that contains 10 mg/mL is available. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse administer with each dose.
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Page 44
Chapter
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48024
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia will be receiving pentamidine as an intravenous piggyback (IVPB) dose. The medication has been added to a 100-mL bag of D W for the infusion, and it needs to infuse over 120 minutes. The nurse will set the infusion pump to infuse at what rate for this IVPB medication? _______
Q2) A patient with late-stage HIV infection also has Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. The nurse anticipates treatment with which medication for this pneumonia?
A) Ivermectin (Stromectol)
B) Atovaquone (Mepron)
C) Praziquantel (Biltricide)
D) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
Q3) A patient is being evaluated for a possible helminthic infection. The nurse knows that which statement about anthelmintic therapy is true?
A) The drugs may cause severe drowsiness.
B) Anthelmintics are very specific in their actions.
C) Anthelmintics are effective against broad classes of infestations.
D) The drugs are used to treat protozoal infections such as intestinal amebiasis.
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Chapter 44: Anti-Inflammatory and Antigout Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48025
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient who is taking colchicine for the treatment of gout. Which instruction will the nurse include during the teaching session?
A) "Fluids should be restricted while on colchicine therapy."
B) "Take colchicine with meals."
C) "The drug will be discontinued when symptoms are reduced."
D) "Call your doctor if you have increased joint pain or blood in the urine."
Q2) A patient who has a history of coronary artery disease has been instructed to take one 81-mg aspirin tablet a day. The patient asks about the purpose of this aspirin. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Aspirin is given reduce anxiety."
B) "It helps to reduce inflammation."
C) "Aspirin is given to relieve pain."
D) "It will help to prevent clot formation."
Q3) There is a new order for Naproxen (Naprosyn) 250 mg PO twice daily. The drug is available as an oral suspension that contains 125 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will administer for 1 dose of this medication. _______
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Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 1: Cancer Overview and
Cell Cycle-Specific Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48026
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, diagnosed with lymphoma, has an allergy to one of the proposed chemotherapy drugs. The tumor has not responded to other types of treatment. The nurse expects the oncologist to follow which course of treatment?
A) The physician will choose another drug to use.
B) The chemotherapy will be given along with supportive measures to treat a possible allergic reaction.
C) The patient will receive reduced doses of chemotherapy for a longer period of time.
D) The chemotherapy cannot be given because of the patient's allergy.
Q2) The nurse is teaching about infection-prevention measures with a patient who is receiving antineoplastic drug therapy. During a Teach-Back session, which statement by the patient indicates the need for further education?
A) "I will avoid those who have recently had a vaccination."
B) "I will eat only fresh fruits and raw vegetables."
C) "I will report a sore throat, cough, or low-grade temperature."
D) "It is important for both my family and me to practice good handwashing."
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 2: Cell
Cyclenonspecific Drugs and Miscellaneous Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48027
Sample Questions
Q1) When giving cisplatin (Platinol-AQ), the nurse is aware that adverse effect of this drug is which condition?
A) Alopecia
B) Kidney damage
C) Cardiotoxicity
D) Stomatitis
Q2) When a patient is receiving cisplatin (Platinol-AQ) chemotherapy, the nurse will monitor for which adverse effects?
A) Tinnitus
B) Heart failure
C) Hearing loss
D) Elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
E) Numbness or tingling in the extremities
F) Elevated glucose and ketone levels
Q3) A patient will be receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone), 12 mg/m²/day every 3 weeks, as part of treatment for prostate cancer. Each dose is mixed into a 50-mL bag of D W and needs to infuse over 15 minutes. The infusion pump delivers the dose at milliliters per hour. Identify the nurse will set the pump to infuse at what rate. _______
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Chapter 47: Biologic Responsemodifying and Antirheumatic Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48028
Sample Questions
Q1) During interleukin drug therapy, a patient is showing signs of severe fluid retention, with increasing dyspnea and severe peripheral edema. The next dose of the interleukin is due now. Which action will the nurse take next?
A) Hold the drug, and notify the prescriber.
B) Give the drug, and notify the prescriber.
C) Give the drug along with acetaminophen and diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
D) Monitor the patient for 2 hours, and then give the drug if the patient's condition improves.
Q2) A patient will be receiving aldesleukin [IL-2] (Proleukin), 600,000 IU/kg every 8 hours for 14 doses. The patient weighs 220 pounds. Identify how many IU of medication this patient will receive per dose. _______
Q3) During a patient's therapy with interleukins, the nurse monitors the patient for capillary leak syndrome. Which assessment finding, if present, would indicate this problem?
A) Bradycardia
B) A dry cough
C) Bruising on the skin
D) A sudden, 15-pound weight gain
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Chapter 48: Immunosuppressant Drugs
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13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48029
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with multiple sclerosis will be starting therapy with an immunosuppressant drug. The nurse expects that which drug will be used?
A) Azathioprine (Imuran)
B) Glatiramer acetate (Copaxone)
C) Daclizumab (Zenapax)
D) Sirolimus (Rapamune)
Q2) A patient is about to undergo a kidney transplant. She will be given an immunosuppressant drug before, during, and after surgery to minimize organ rejection. During the preoperative teaching session, which information will the nurse include about the medication therapy?
A) Several days before the surgery, the medication will be administered orally.
B) The oral doses need to be taken 1 hour before meals to maximize absorption.
C) Mix the oral liquid with juice in a disposable Styrofoam cup just before administration.
D) Intramuscular injections of the medication will be needed for several days preceding surgery.
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Chapter 49: Immunizing Drugs
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11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48030
Sample Questions
Q1) A 30-year-old woman is in the clinic for her yearly gynecologic exam and asks the nurse about the "new vaccine that prevents HPV." She wants to receive the papillomavirus vaccine (Gardasil). Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "For women, the recommended age for this vaccine is 13 to 26 years of age."
B) "We will need to make sure you are not pregnant first."
C) "There will be a total of three injections."
D) "I will check with your health care provider and then get the first dose of the vaccine ready."
Q2) A 12-month-old infant has received an MMR II (measles, mumps, and rubella virus vaccine), and her mother calls the clinic that afternoon to ask about helping her fussy infant to "feel better." What will the nurse suggest?
A) Apply an ice pack to the injection site.
B) Apply warm compresses to the injection site.
C) Observe the site for further swelling and redness.
D) Bring the infant in to the emergency department for an immediate examination.
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Chapter 50: Acid-Controlling Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48031
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is asking advice about which over-the-counter antacid is considered the most safe to use for heartburn. The nurse explains that the reason that calcium antacids are not used as frequently as other antacids is for which of these reasons?
A) Their use may result in kidney stones.
B) They cause decreased gastric acid production.
C) They cause severe diarrhea.
D) Their use may result in fluid retention and edema.
Q2) A patient has excessive and painful gas. The nurse checks the patient's medication orders and prepares to administer which drug for this problem?
A) Famotidine (Pepcid)
B) Aluminum hydroxide and magnesium hydroxide (Maalox or Mylanta)
C) Calcium carbonate (Tums)
D) Simethicone (Mylicon)
Q3) A patient will be receiving pantoprazole (Protonix), 20 mg IV daily every morning. The medication, once reconstituted, has a strength of 40 mg/10 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will draw up for this dose. _______
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Chapter 51: Bowel Disorder Drugs
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20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48032
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is severely constipated and needs immediate relief. The nurse knows that which class of laxative will provide the most rapid results?
A) Bulk-forming laxative, such as psyllium (Metamucil)
B) Stool softener, such as docusate salts (Colace)
C) Magnesium hydroxide (MOM)
D) Magnesium oxide tablets
Q2) A patient will be taking bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol) to control diarrhea. When reviewing the patient's other ordered medications, the nurse recognizes that which medication will interact significantly with the Pepto-Bismol?
A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol), an analgesic
B) Levothyroxine (Synthroid), a thyroid replacement drug
C) Warfarin (Coumadin), an anticoagulant
D) Fluoxetine (Prozac), an antidepressant
Q3) A 10-year-old child will be receiving docusate sodium (Colace), 120 mg/day PO, divided into 3 doses. Identify how many milligrams will the child receive per dose.
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Chapter 52: Antiemetic and Antinausea Drugs
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12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48033
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has severe nausea and vomiting following a case of food poisoning comes to the urgent care center. When reviewing his medication history, the nurse notes that he has an allergy to procaine. The nurse would question an order for which antiemetic drug if ordered for this patient?
A) Metoclopramide (Reglan)
B) Promethazine (Phenergan)
C) Phosphorated carbohydrate solution (Emetrol)
D) Palonosetron (Aloxi)
Q2) A patient is receiving a tube feeding through a gastrostomy. The nurse expects that which type of drug will be used to promote gastric emptying for this patient?
A) Prokinetic drugs, such as metoclopramide (Reglan)
B) Serotonin blockers, such as ondansetron (Zofran)
C) Anticholinergic drugs, such as scopolamine (Transderm-Scop)
D) Neuroleptic drugs, such as chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
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54
Chapter 53: Vitamins and Minerals
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14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48034
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is counseling a patient about calcium supplements. Which dietary information is appropriate during this teaching session?
A) "Take oral calcium supplements with meals."
B) "There are no drug interactions with calcium products."
C) "Avoid foods that are high in calcium, such as beef, egg yolks, and liver."
D) "Be sure to eat foods high in calcium, such as dairy products and salmon."
Q2) A patient will be starting vitamin D supplements. The nurse reviews his medical record for contraindications, including which condition?
A) Renal disease
B) Cardiac disease
C) Hypophosphatemia
D) There are no contraindications to vitamin D supplements.
Q3) A patient is on vitamin D supplemental therapy. The nurse will monitor for which signs of toxicity during this therapy?
A) Tinnitus
B) Anorexia
C) Diarrhea
D) Hypotension
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55
Chapter 54: Anemia Drugs
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48035
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with end-stage renal failure has been admitted to the hospital for severe anemia. The patient is refusing blood transfusions. The nurse anticipates drug therapy with which drug to stimulate the production of red blood cells?
A) Folic acid
B) Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B<sub>12</sub>)
C) Epoetin alfa (Epogen)
D) Filgrastim (Neupogen)
Q2) An oral iron supplement is prescribed for a patient. The nurse would question this order if the patient's medical history includes which condition?
A) Decreased hemoglobin
B) Hemolytic anemia
C) Weakness
D) Concurrent therapy with erythropoietics
Q3) A 2-year-old child will be receiving ferrous sulfate oral drops (Fer-Iron) 5 mg/kg/day in three divided doses. The child weighs 26 pounds. Identify how many milligrams the nurse will administer per dose. (record answer using one decimal place) _______
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Chapter 55: Nutritional Supplements
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a partial bowel obstruction will be given a 1-week course of enteral tube feeding via a nasogastric tube. Which formulation is appropriate for this patient?
A) Vivonex Plus, an elemental formulation
B) Osmolite, a polymeric formulation
C) Glucerna, a formulation for impaired glucose tolerance
D) Polycose, a modular formulation that contains carbohydrates
Q2) The peripheral parenteral nutrition bag that has been infusing into the patient is empty, and the nurse realizes that the next bag is not ready. The nurse should immediately hang which of these intravenous solutions until the new bag arrives?
A) 10% dextrose in water
B) 20% dextrose in water
C) 0.9% sodium chloride
D) Lactated Ringer's solution
Q3) The total parenteral nutrition (TPN) order reads, "Infuse TPN #2 over 24 hours." Bag #2 of TPN contains 1800 mL. At what rate will the nurse set the infusion pump? _______
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Chapter 56: Dermatologic Drugs
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient will be starting therapy with oral isotretinoin (Amnesteem) as part of treatment for severe acne, and the nurse is providing teaching. Which teaching point will the nurse include in her teaching plan about isotretinoin?
A) "You will have to use two contraceptive methods while on this drug."
B) "You must avoid sexual activity while on this drug."
C) "You will have to avoid pregnancy for 2 weeks after taking this drug."
D) "If you are taking an oral contraceptive, you may take this drug."
Q2) A woman suffered a second-degree burn of the skin on her arm and hand while cooking breakfast. After examination in the urgent care center, silver sulfadiazine cream (Silvadene) is ordered for the burned area. The nurse will apply the medication using which procedure?
A) Gently patting a moderate amount over the burned area
B) Massaging the cream completely into the wound
C) Applying a thick layer over the burned area, and then leaving the area open
D) Applying a thin layer with a sterile, gloved hand to clean and débrided areas
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58
Chapter 57: Ophthalmic Drugs
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12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48038
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with an eye injury requires an ocular examination to detect the presence of a foreign body. The nurse anticipates that which drug will be used for this examination?
A) Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)
B) Fluorescein sodium (AK-Fluor)
C) Atropine sulfate (Isopto Atropine)
D) Olopatadine (Patanol)
Q2) A patient is about to undergo ocular surgery. The preoperative nurse anticipates that which drug will be used for local anesthesia?
A) Oral glycerin
B) Proparacaine (Alcaine)
C) Timolol (Timoptic)
D) Dipivefrin (Propine)
Q3) When teaching a patient about the proper application of eyedrops, the nurse will include which instruction?
A) "Apply the drops into the conjunctival sac instead of directly onto the eye."
B) "Apply the drops directly to the eyeball (cornea) for the best effect."
C) "Blot your eye with a tissue immediately after applying the drops."
D) "Tilt your head forward before applying the eyedrops."
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Chapter 58: Otic Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48039
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient about proper administration of eardrops. Which statements are correct?
A) Remove cerumen with a cotton-tipped swab before instilling the drops.
B) Instill the drops while still cool from refrigeration.
C) Warm the eardrops to room temperature before instillation.
D) The adult patient should pull the pinna of the ear up and back.
E) Insert a dry cotton ball gently into the ear canal after instillation.
F) Massage the earlobe after instillation.
Q2) When reviewing a patient's medical record, the nurse notes an order for carbamide peroxide eardrops. Based on this information, the nurse interprets that these eardrops are being used for which purpose?
A) To reduce inflammation
B) To reduce production of cerumen
C) To loosen the cerumen for easier removal
D) To inhibit growth of microorganisms in the external canal
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