Pharmacology for Nurses Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Pharmacology for Nurses introduces the fundamental principles of pharmacology and their application in nursing practice. The course covers essential topics such as drug classifications, mechanisms of action, pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, therapeutic uses, side effects, and interactions of commonly used medications. Emphasis is placed on safe medication administration, accurate dosage calculations, patient education, and legal and ethical responsibilities in drug therapy. Through case studies and practical examples, students develop critical thinking skills necessary to assess, plan, and evaluate pharmacological interventions, ensuring optimal patient outcomes in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children 8th Edition by Kathryn L. McCance
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1557 Verified Questions
1557 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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42 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which mode of chemical signaling uses blood to transport communication to cells some distance away?
A)Paracrine
B)Autocrine
C)Neurotransmitter
D)Hormonal
Answer: D
Q2) What is passive transport dependent on? (Select all that apply.)
A)Semipermeable barrier membrane
B)The process of osmosis
C)Diffusion as a driving force
D)A living host
E)Hydrostatic pressure
Answer: A, B, C, E
Q3) What is the process of cellular reproduction?
A)The process often takes months or years to complete.
B)Cellular reproduction typically has a short interphase.
C)Two diploid cells, called daughter cells, have been formed.
D)The process involves the interaction of male and female cells.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology: Environmental Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the abnormal proliferation of cells in response to excessive hormonal stimulation?
A)Dysplasia
B)Pathologic dysplasia
C)Hyperplasia
D)Pathologic hyperplasia
Answer: D
Q2) What are examples of blunt force injuries? (Select all that apply.)
A)Bruise to the upper arm, resulting from a fall
B)Simple tibia fracture sustained in a skiing accident
C)Cut on the finger while slicing vegetables for a salad
D)Spleen laceration caused by a punch during a physical fight
E)Small caliber gunshot wound to the foot while target shooting
Answer: A, B, D
Q3) What two types of hearing loss are associated with noise?
A)Acoustic trauma and noise-induced
B)High frequency and low frequency
C)High frequency and acoustic trauma
D)Noise-induced and low frequency
Answer: A
4
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment: Fluids and Electrolytes, Acids
and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional is caring for four patients. Which patient should the professional assess for hyperkalemia?
A)Hyperparathyroidism
B)Vomiting
C)Renal failure
D)Hyperaldosteronism
Answer: C
Q2) What does vomiting-induced metabolic alkalosis cause?
A)Retained sodium to bind with the chloride
B)Hydrogen to move into the cell and exchange with potassium
C)Retention of bicarbonate to maintain the anion balance
D)Hypoventilation to compensate for the metabolic alkalosis
Answer: C
Q3) Which enzyme is secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney when circulating blood volume is reduced?
A)Angiotensin I
B)Angiotensin II
C)Aldosterone
D)Renin
Answer: D
5
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Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? (Select all that apply.)
A)Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
B)Amniocentesis
C)Carrier screening
D)Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD)
E)Drug-sensitivity testing
Q2) Which statement is true regarding X-linked recessive conditions?
A)Such diseases use males as phenotypical carriers.
B)These conditions are passed from affected father to all of his female children.
C)25% of an affected individual's grandsons will be affected.
D)Cystic fibrosis is an example of such a condition.
Q3) What is the technique for prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities at 10 to 12 weeks' gestation?
A)Gene mapping
B)Linkage analysis
C)Amniocentesis
D)Chorionic villus sampling
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Chapter 5: Genes, Environment-Lifestyle, and Common Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is currently believed about the risk for developing Alzheimer disease?
A)It is not directly related to genetic predisposition.
B)It is higher among men than it is among women.
C)It occurs less among Hispanics than in Asians.
D)It doubles among those with an affected first-degree relative.
Q2) Which lifestyle modifications affect health-related risk factors? (Select all that apply.)
A)Diet
B)Exercise
C)Education
D)Finances
E)Stress reduction
Q3) Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon cancer?
A)Increased consumption of dairy products
B)Increased consumption of foods containing vitamin C
C)Decreased consumption of foods high in fat
D)Decreased consumption of artificial food coloring
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Chapter 6: Epigenetics and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) When microRNA (miRNA) are methylated their messenger RNA (mRNA) targets are over-expressed. What would be the resulting effect on existing cancer?
A)Cell death
B)Metastasis
C)Remission
D)Relapse
Q2) Which term refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair?
A)Activated
B)Altered
C)Mutated
D)Imprinted
Q3) What are genes responsible for the maintenance of all cells referred to as?
A)Universal
B)Managerial
C)Housekeeping
D)Executive
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8
Chapter 7: Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fusion is the step of phagocytosis during which what happens?
A)Microorganisms are killed and digested.
B)An intracellular phagocytic vacuole is formed.
C)Lysosomal granules enter the phagocyte.
D)Microorganisms are ingested.
Q2) The acute inflammatory response is characterized by fever that is produced by the hypothalamus being affected by what?
A)Endogenous pyrogens
B)Bacterial endotoxin
C)Antigen-antibody complexes
D)Exogenous pyrogens
Q3) An individual's acquired immunity is dependent on the function of which cells?
(Select all that apply.)
A)T lymphocytes
B)B lymphocytes
C)Macrophages
D)Opsonins
E)Neutrophils
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Chapter 8: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is believed to be true concerning Th1 cells?
A)Th1 cells are induced by antigens derived from allergens.
B)They are induced by antigens derived from cancer cells.
C)Th1 cells produce IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, and IL-13.
D)They assist in the development of humoral immunity.
Q2) How do antibodies protect the host from bacterial toxins?
A)Lysing the cell membrane of the toxins
B)Binding to the toxins to neutralize their biologic effects
C)Inhibiting the synthesis of DNA proteins needed for growth
D)Interfering with the DNA enzyme needed for replication
Q3) Which cytokine is needed for the maturation of a functional helper T cell?
A)IL-1
B)IL-2
C)IL-4
D)IL-12
Q4) Cytokines are vital to a cell's ability to do which function?
A)Excrete
B)Reproduce
C)Metabolize
D)Communicate
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
Q2) Which class of immunoglobulins forms isohemagglutinins?
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
Q3) A person with type O blood needs a blood transfusion. What blood type does the healthcare professional prepare to administer to the patient?
A)A
B)B
C)AB
D)O
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11
Chapter 10: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) A student asks the healthcare professional to describe exotoxins. Which statement by the professional is best?
A)Exotoxins are contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria.
B)Exotoxins are released during the lysis of bacteria.
C)Exotoxins are able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades.
D)Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
Q2) What is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?
A)Starvation
B)Traumatic injury
C)Cardiovascular disease
D)Infectious disease
Q3) Which organism is a common sexually transmitted bacterial infection?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Clostridium perfringens
C)Helicobacter pylori
D)Treponema pallidum
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Chapter 11: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true concerning the differences between stress-induced hormonal alterations of men and women?
A)After injury, women produce more proinflammatory cytokines than men, a profile that is associated with poor outcomes.
B)Androgens appear to induce a greater degree of immune cell apoptosis after injury, creating greater immunosuppression in injured men than in injured women.
C)Psychologic stress associated with some types of competition decreases both testosterone and cortisol, especially in athletes older than 45 years of age.
D)After stressful stimuli, estrogen is increased in women, but testosterone is decreased in men.
Q2) Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)? (Select all that apply.)
A)IL-1
B)IL-6
C)TNF-ß
D)IFN
E)IL-12
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Chapter 12: Cancer Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is apoptosis?
A)Normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when growth is excessive
B)Antigrowth signal activated by the tumor-suppressor gene Rb
C)Mutation of cell growth stimulated by the TP53 gene
D)Transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia
Q2) How do cancer cells use the enzyme telomerase?
A)To repair the telomeres to restore somatic cell growth
B)As an intracellular signaling chemical to stimulate cell division
C)To switch off the telomerase to enable cells to divide indefinitely
D)To switch on the telomerase to enable cells to divide indefinitely
Q3) Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?
A)Blood vessels
B)Epithelial cells
C)Connective tissue
D)Glandular tissue
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Chapter 13: Cancer Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tobacco smoking is associated with which cancers? (Select all that apply.)
A)Lung
B)Skin
C)Bladder
D)Kidney
E)Pancreas
Q2) A healthcare professional advises patients to exercise because it has a probable impact on reducing which cancer?
A)Liver
B)Endometrial
C)Stomach
D)Colon
Q3) Nutritional counseling regarding cancer stem cell repopulation must stress the importance of including sufficient quantities of what in a daily diet? (Select all that apply.)
A)Vitamin A
B)Vitamin D
C)Protein
D)Vitamin C
E)Water
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Chapter 14: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is likely true regarding children being treated for cancer with radiation therapy?
A)They will most likely have a successful remission of tumor growth.
B)They seldom require follow-up maintenance treatments.
C)They are prone to experience severe developmental delays.
D)They are at increased risk for developing childhood cancers.
Q2) What do most childhood cancers arise from?
A)Epithelium
B)Mesodermal germ layer
C)Embryologic ectodermal layer
D)Viscera
Q3) Which statement is true concerning the difference between adult and childhood cancers? (Select all that apply.)
A)Numerous differences exist between these two categories of cancer.
B)Genetic risk factors and congenital conditions are more related in childhood cancers.
C)Environmental risks are strongly associated with childhood cancers.
D)Exposure to pesticides is a minor risk for the development of adult cancers.
E)Maternal exposure to carcinogenic substances presents little risk to the fetus.
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16
Chapter 15: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parkinson disease is associated with defects in which area of the brain?
A)Thalamus
B)Medulla oblongata
C)Cerebellum
D)Substantia nigra
Q2) A healthcare professional is assessing a patient for dysfunction of cranial nerve VII. What assessment finding would confirm the professional's suspicion?
A)Patient is unable to open mouth against resistance.
B)Patient does not display intact gag reflex.
C)Patient is able to smile only on one side of the face.
D)Patient's tongue deviates to the right when sticking out.
Q3) Reflex activities concerned with heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?
A)Pons
B)Midbrain
C)Cerebellum
D)Medulla oblongata
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and
Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the gate in the gate control theory (GCT) of pain located?
A)Substantia gelatinosa
B)Marginal layer
C)Nucleus proprius
D)Dorsolateral tract of Lissauer
Q2) The healthcare professional working in a summer camp provides cooling to campers by radiation. What is the most appropriate action by the professional to accomplish this?
A)Have the campers sit inside the air-conditioned camp cafeteria.
B)Have the campers sit in front of a large fan.
C)Tell the campers to take cool showers.
D)Instruct the campers to lie still for an hour.
Q3) Which neurotransmitters inhibit pain in the medulla and pons? (Select all that apply.)
A)Norepinephrine
B)Serotonin
C)Glutamate
D)Tumor necrosis factor-alpha
E)Nitric oxide
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics, and Motor Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is in status epilepticus. In addition to giving medication to stop the seizures, what would the healthcare professional place highest priority on?
A)Facilitating a CT scan of the head
B)Providing oxygen
C)Assessing for brain death
D)Assessing for drug overdose
Q2) What do the clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease include? (Select all that apply.)
A)Fragmented sleep
B)Drooping eyelids
C)Depression
D)Muscle stiffness
E)Bradykinesia
Q3) To quickly assess a patient's nervous system for dysfunction, what assessment should the healthcare professional perform as the priority?
A)Size and reactivity of pupils
B)Pattern of breathing
C)Motor response
D)Level of consciousness
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Chapter 18: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A blunt-force injury to the forehead would result in a contrecoup injury to which region of the brain?
A)Frontal
B)Temporal
C)Parietal
D)Occipital
Q2) A healthcare professional is planning a community event to reduce risk of cerebrovascular accident (CVA) in high risk groups. Which group would the professional target as the priority?
A)Insulin-resistant diabetes mellitus
B)Hypertension
C)Polycythemia
D)Smoking
Q3) A healthcare professional wants to volunteer for a community education project to help prevent spinal cord injury. What activity would the professional most likely volunteer for?
A)Teaching school aged children bicycle safety
B)Teaching stretching to high school athletes
C)Teaching adults good body mechanics for lifting
Page 20
D)Teaching older adults how to prevent trip-and-fall events
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Chapter 19: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking phenelzine and presents to the clinic complaining of "feeling awful." The patient reports eating aged cheese and avocados last night. What assessment by the healthcare professional is the priority?
A)Kidney function studies
B)Blood pressure
C)Chest x-ray
D)Weight
Q2) A patient reports frequent nightmares. For which of these should the healthcare professional assess the patient?
A)A recent major loss
B)Family history of nightmares
C)History of traumatic event
D)Poor nutrition and weight loss
Q3) A decrease in receptor binding for which neurotransmitter is found in individuals with depression?
A)Norepinephrine
B)Serotonin
C)Dopamine
D)Acetylcholine
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Chapter 20: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) What can microcephaly be caused by? (Select all that apply.)
A)Autosomal gene alterations
B)Prenatal physical abuse of the mother
C)X-linked gene alterations
D)Toxic-induced chromosomal defects
E)Maternal anorexia
Q2) What is the result of a Chiari type II malformation associated with a myelomeningocele?
A)Upward displacement of the cerebellum into the diencephalon
B)Motor and sensory lesions below the level of the myelomeningocele
C)Downward displacement of the cerebellum, brainstem, and fourth ventricle
D)Generalized cerebral edema and hydrocephalus
Q3) An infant is brought to the emergency department by parents who report that the baby's fontanels seem to be bulging outward. What action by the healthcare provider is most appropriate?
A)Assess the baby for recent trauma to the head.
B)Measure the head circumference and plot it on a growth chart.
C)Prepare the baby for a lumbar puncture and blood cultures.
D)Determine how much fluid the baby had in the last 24 hours.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person wants to know if eating only plant-based foods is advisable as a way to cut cholesterol to near-zero levels. What response by the health care professional is best?
A)"No, you will become extremely malnourished."
B)"Yes, that is an effective way to eliminate cholesterol."
C)"No, many hormones are made from cholesterol."
D)"Yes, that will increase the action of insulin."
Q2) What imbalance lessens the rate of secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
A)Increased serum calcium levels
B)Decreased serum magnesium levels
C)Decreased levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone
D)Increased levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone
Q3) What does aldosterone directly increase the reabsorption of?
A)Magnesium
B)Calcium
C)Sodium
D)Water
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Chapter 22: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experienced an episode of hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The healthcare professional teaches the person that what is the most probable cause of these symptoms?
A)Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration
B)Dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime
C)Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise
D)Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity
Q2) A person has hypothyroidism. What chemical does the healthcare professional advise the person to include in the diet?
A)Iron
B)Iodine
C)Zinc
D)Magnesium
Q3) Why does giantism occur only in children and adolescents?
A)Their growth hormones are still diminished.
B)Their epiphyseal plates have not yet closed.
C)Their skeletal muscles are not yet fully developed.
D)Their metabolic rates are higher than in adulthood.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Obesity and Disorders of Nutrition
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Q1) A health care professional wishes to provide community screening for obesity. Which population should the professional focus on as the priority?
A)Caucasians
B)Non-Hispanic blacks
C)Hispanics
D)Asians
Q2) A family is concerned that their most elderly member is not eating. What information about the anorexia of aging does the health care professional provide the family?
(Select all that apply.)
A)Usually there is a direct cause that can be treated successfully.
B)Is not related to age-related changes and signifies illness
C)Decreases in saliva and the sense of taste are contributing factors.
D)Age-related loss of appetite is common finding.
E)Social stimulation at meals might promote better eating habits.
Q3) Which individual does the health care professional determine is obese?
A)Body mass index 23 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
B)Body mass index 25 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
C)Body mass index 29 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
D)Body mass index 32 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Which hormone promotes the development of the lobular ducts in the breasts?
A)Progesterone
B)Prolactin
C)Oxytocin
D)Estrogen
Q2) Where is the usual site of fertilization of an ovum?
A)Trumpet end of the fallopian tubes
B)Fimbriae of the fallopian tubes
C)Ampulla of the fallopian tubes
D)Os of the fallopian tubes
Q3) When do penile erections begin?
A)Before birth
B)Shortly after birth
C)Shortly before puberty
D)After puberty
Q4) The human zygote has a total of how many chromosomes?
A)23
B)25
C)46
D)50
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Chapter 25: Alterations of the Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of cyst develops when an ovarian follicle is stimulated but no dominant follicle develops and completes the maturity process?
A)Follicular
B)Corpus luteum
C)Corpus albicans
D)Benign ovarian
Q2) Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis?
A)Premenstrual syndrome
B)Abnormal uterine bleeding
C)Polycystic ovary syndrome
D)Primary dysmenorrhea
Q3) Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after how many months of unprotected intercourse with the same partner?
A)6
B)12
C)18
D)24
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Chapter 26: Alterations of the Male Reproductive System
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Q1) What are the clinical manifestations of testicular cancer?
A)Firm, nontender testicular mass
B)Painful, mobile, firm testicular mass
C)Painful fluid-filled testicular mass
D)Soft, nontender testicular mass
Q2) Priapism has been associated with the abuse of what substance?
A)Marijuana
B)Alcohol
C)Cocaine
D)Heroin
Q3) In the 95% of boys with delayed puberty, the problem is caused by which condition?
A)Disruption in the hypothalamus
B)Disruption of the pituitary
C)Deficit in estrogen or testosterone
D)Physiologic hormonal delays
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28
Chapter 27: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does an established gonococcal infection usually express itself in newborns?
A)Generalized skin rash 4 to 6 days after birth
B)Systemic infection with fever
C)Bilateral corneal ulceration
D)Yellow vaginal or penile discharge approximately 10 days after birth
Q2) In which stage of syphilis would the following clinical manifestations be found: destructive skin, bone and soft tissue lesions, aneurysms, heart failure, and neurosyphilis?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Latent
D)Tertiary
Q3) A patient is found to have "strawberry spots" on the vagina and cervix. Which medication does the healthcare professional discuss with the patient?
A)Metronidazole
B)Acyclovir
C)Lindane 1% cream
D)Tetracycline
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Chapter 28: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which characteristics allow erythrocytes to function as gas carriers? (Select all that apply.)
A)Permanent shape
B)Compactness
C)Reversible deformability
D)Presence of hyperactive mitochondria
E)Biconcavity
Q2) What is the most abundant class of plasma protein?
A)Globulin
B)Albumin
C)Clotting factors
D)Complement proteins
Q3) The drug heparin acts in hemostasis by which processes?
A)Inhibiting thrombin and antithrombin III (AT-III)
B)Preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
C)Shortening the fibrin strands to retract the blood clot
D)Degrading the fibrin within blood clots
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Chapter 29: Alterations of Erythrocytes, Platelets, and Hemostatic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition resulting from untreated pernicious anemia (PA) is fatal?
A)Brain hypoxia
B)Liver hypoxia
C)Heart failure
D)Renal failure
Q2) What term is used to describe the capacity of some erythrocytes to vary in size, especially in relationship to some anemias?
A)Poikilocytosis
B)Isocytosis
C)Anisocytosis
D)Microcytosis
Q3) A patient has defective secretion of the intrinsic factor leading to anemia. What treatment option does the healthcare professional discuss with the patient?
A)Increasing iron sources in the diet such as red meat.
B)Vitamin B injections initially given once a week.
C)Having relatives tested for bone marrow donation.
D)Better control of the patient's underlying disorder.
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Leukocyte and Lymphoid
Function
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19 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hospitalized patient's lab work is as follows: WBC 2000, bands 14.8%, and segmented neutrophils 5. The healthcare professional calculates the patient's absolute neutrophil count (ANC). What action does the professional take next?
A)Implements protocols to prevent life-threatening infections
B)Encourages the patient to limit any visitors for the present time
C)Does nothing; this is a normal ANC for the white cell count
D)Holds the patient's medications until the ANC returns to normal
Q2) A person has lab drawn and the white blood cell count is much higher than normal. The healthcare professional understands which facts about this finding? (Select all that apply.)
A)The person has leukocytosis.
B)The person has leukopenia.
C)The person may have an infection.
D)The person may have a myeloproliferative disorder.
E)The person needs a bone marrow biopsy.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When does fetal erythrocyte production shift from the liver to the bone marrow?
A)Fourth month of gestation
B)Fifth month of gestation
C)Eighth month of gestation
D)At birth
Q2) A patient has thalassemia major. After receiving multiple blood transfusions over the last several months, what complication does the healthcare professional assess the patient for?
A)Hemochromatosis
B)Iron deficiency anemia
C)Vitamin C depletion
D)Rh autoimmunity
Q3) The alpha- and beta-thalassemias are considered what types of inherited disorder?
A)Autosomal recessive
B)Autosomal dominant
C)X-linked recessive
D)X-linked dominant
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Chapter 32: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Within a physiologic range, what does an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload) result in?
A)Increase in force of contraction
B)Decrease in refractory time
C)Increase in afterload
D)Decrease in repolarization
Q2) The right lymphatic duct drains into which structure?
A)Right subclavian artery
B)Right atrium
C)Right subclavian vein
D)Superior vena cava
Q3) What physical sign does the healthcare professional relate to the result of turbulent blood flow through a vessel?
A)Increased blood pressure during periods of stress
B)Bounding pulse felt on palpation
C)Cyanosis observed on exertion
D)Murmur heard on auscultation
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
A)By increasing the peripheral vasoconstriction
B)By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia
C)By reducing the contractility of the myocardium
D)By stimulating the sympathetic nervous system
Q2) A disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum is the hallmark of which form of cardiomyopathy?
A)Dystrophic
B)Hypertrophic
C)Restrictive
D)Dilated
Q3) Which information regarding fatty streaks does the pathophysiology student learn? (Select all that apply.)
A)Fatty streaks progressively damage vessel walls.
B)Fatty streaks are capable of producing toxic oxygen radials.
C)When present, inflammatory changes occur to the vessel walls.
D)Oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) are involved in their formation.
E)Fatty streaks are formed by killer T cells filled with oxidized LDLs.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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25 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional is assessing a baby in the neonatal intensive care unit who is very unstable. The professional hears a systolic ejection click at the upper left sternal border with a thrill palpated at the upper left sternal border. What procedure does the professional prepare the parents for the baby to have?
A)Heart transplant
B)Balloon angioplasty
C)Prostaglandin infusion
D)High dose aspirin
Q2) A newborn has chronic sustained hypertension but otherwise appears healthy. What diagnostic testing does the healthcare professional facilitate as the priority?
A)Cardiac catheterization
B)Echocardiogram
C)Serum electrolytes
D)Renal function studies
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Chapter 35: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most important cause of pulmonary artery constriction?
A)Low alveolar partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO )
B)Hyperventilation
C)Respiratory alkalosis
D)Epinephrine
Q2) A healthcare professional wants to determine the adequacy of a person's alveolar ventilation. What assessment finding is most important for the professional to consider?
A)Respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min
B)Ventilatory pattern is regular and rhythmic.
C)Respiratory effort is strained with muscle involvement.
D)Arterial blood gas shows a PaCO<sub>2</sub> of 44 mmHg.
Q3) Surfactant produced by type II alveolar cells facilitates alveolar distention and ventilation by which mechanism?
A)Decreasing thoracic compliance
B)Attracting water to the alveolar surface
C)Decreasing surface tension in the alveoli
D)Increasing surface tension in the alveoli
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a transudative pleural effusion but has minimal symptoms. What action by the healthcare professional is best?
A)Prepare for an immediate chest tube insertion.
B)Encourage the patient to use the incentive spirometer.
C)Facilitate a blood draw to check protein stores.
D)Arrange for an oncology consultation.
Q2) A patient reports needing to sit up at night in order to breathe. What term does the healthcare professional document about this condition?
A)Hyperpnea
B)Orthopnea
C)Apnea
D)Atelectasis
Q3) What does the student learn about exudative pleural effusion? (Select all that apply.)
A)Contains high concentrations of white blood cells
B)Produces a very thick exudate
C)May occur in response to an inflammatory process
D)The presence of a malignant cancer can trigger exudative effusion.
E)Is the result of increased capillary permeability
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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24 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What abnormalities lead to the mucus plugging seen in children with cystic fibrosis (CF)?
A)Excess mucus plugs the gut and keeps it from absorbing water effectively.
B)A weak inflammatory response allows bacterial to colonize the mucus.
C)Defective chloride secretion and excess sodium absorption thicken the mucus.
D)Pulmonary vascular remodeling occurs that leads to chronic hypoxia.
Q2) A healthcare professional is educating a community parent group and informs them that which type of croup is most common?
A)Bacterial
B)Viral
C)Fungal
D)Autoimmune
Q3) What is the primary problem resulting from respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?
A)Consolidation
B)Pulmonary edema
C)Atelectasis
D)Bronchiolar plugging
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Chapter 38: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are blood vessels of the kidneys innervated by?
A)Vagus nerve
B)Sympathetic nervous system
C)Somatic nervous system
D)Parasympathetic nervous system
Q2) Innervation of the bladder and internal urethral sphincter is supplied by which nerves?
A)Peripheral nerves
B)Parasympathetic fibers
C)Sympathetic nervous system
D)Tenth thoracic nerve roots
Q3) Which glycoprotein protects against urolithiasis?
A)Uromodulin
B)Nephrin
C)Urodilatin
D)Cystatin
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Chapter 39: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Creatinine is primarily excreted by glomerular filtration after being constantly released from what type of tissue?
A)Nervous system
B)Kidneys
C)Muscle
D)Liver
Q2) In glomerulonephritis, what damages the epithelial cells resulting in proteinuria? (Select all that apply.)
A)Ischemia
B)Lysosomal enzymes
C)Compression from edema
D)Activated complement
E)Altered membrane permeability
Q3) When the right kidney is obstructed, how will the glomeruli and tubules in the left kidney compensate?
A)Increase in number
B)Increase in size
C)Develop collateral circulation
D)Increase speed of production
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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24 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which anomaly is often associated with Wilms tumor?
A)Renal anaplasia
B)Aniridia
C)Anemia
D)Hypothyroidism
Q2) Compared with an adult, an infant has a greater content of extracellular fluid, as well as a greater rate of fluid exchange. What effect does this have on the fluid balance of a child compared with that of an adult?
A)Edema development is less of a problem.
B)Overhydration is not difficult to manage.
C)Daily fluid requirements are greater.
D)The control of dehydration is more difficult.
Q3) Which factors are involved in the development of hypospadias? (Select all that apply.)
A)Disruption in male hormones, including testosterone
B)Mutation of gene HP-1 (chromosome 16)
C)5a-reductase mutations
D)Hormones administered for in vitro fertilization
E)Advanced maternal age
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The student asks the professor why water and electrolytes are transported in both directions through tight junctions and intercellular spaces rather than across cell membranes. What response by the professor is best?
A)The intercellular hydrostatic pressure is inadequate to push the water and electrolytes across the cell membranes.
B)A balance of cations and ions among the electrolytes on each side of the cell membranes cannot be maintained.
C)The epithelial cell membranes are formed of lipids that are hydrophobic and therefore repel water.
D)Receptors on those cell membranes are occupied with a diffusion of amino acids and monosaccharides.
Q2) What effect is a result of inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system with a drug such as atropine?
A)Salivation becomes thinner.
B)Salivation decreases.
C)The pH of saliva changes.
D)Digestive enzymes are inhibited.
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Chapter 42: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is what type of bleeding?
A)Rectal
B)Duodenal
C)Esophageal
D)Intestinal
Q2) Antiemetic agents, such as domperidone and metoclopramide, are antagonists for which receptors?
A)5-Hydroxytryptamine (5-HT) serotonin
B)Histamine-2
C)Acetylcholine
D)Dopamine
Q3) After a partial gastrectomy or pyloroplasty, clinical manifestations that include increased pulse, hypotension, weakness, pallor, sweating, and dizziness are the results of which mechanism?
A)Excessive relaxation of gastric and vascular smooth muscles
B)Postoperative hemorrhage
C)Concentrated food bolus, causing hyperglycemia
D)Rapid gastric emptying
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Chapter 43: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cirrhosis causes intrahepatic portal hypertension in children as a result of which mechanism?
A)Fibrosis that increases the resistance to blood flow within the portal system
B)Increased pressure from the twisting of the common bile ducts
C)Development of collateral circulation within the portal system
D)Shunting of fluid to the spleen or abdomen
Q2) Which information does the student learn about Wilson disease in children? (Select all that apply.)
A)Wilson disease is a rare autosomal recessive defect.
B)Wilson disease affects copper metabolism.
C)A lack of necessary copper is a result of Wilson disease.
D)The liver is often affected in Wilson disease.
E)Corneal damage can be a result of Wilson disease.
Q3) A child has cystic fibrosis (CF). Which medication does the healthcare professional teach the parents about?
A)Salt tablets
B)Pancreatic enzymes
C)Antihypertensives
D)Antibiotics
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The joint that contains a synovial membrane that lines the inner joint capsule is an example of which type of joint?
A)Amphiarthrosis
B)Diarthrosis
C)Synarthrosis
D)Biarthrosis
Q2) Which statement indicates that a student needs more information about muscles?
A)Muscle comprises 50% of an adult's body weight and 40% of a child's body weight.
B)Muscle is 75% water, 20% protein, and 5% organic and inorganic compounds.
C)Muscle contains 32% of all protein stores for energy and metabolism.
D)Muscles are encased in fascia.
Q3) The hyaline cartilage joints between the ribs and sternum are examples of which type of joint?
A)Synchondrosis
B)Symphysis
C)Gomphosis
D)Syndesmosis
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Chapter 45: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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40 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46476
Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone exerts antiapoptotic effects on osteoblasts but proapoptotic effects on osteoclasts?
A)Parathyroid hormone
B)Glucocorticoid
C)Growth hormone
D)Estrogen
Q2) A patient in the clinic had a femur x-ray that was read as having a "moth-eaten" appearance. What treatment option does the health care professional discuss with the patient?
A)Limb-salvaging surgery
B)Amputation
C)Oral bisphosphonates
D)Calcium and vitamin D supplements
Q3) Which patient finding would lead the health care professional to assess the patient for inflammatory joint disease?
A)Unilateral joint involvement
B)Normal joint synovial fluid
C)Absence of synovial membrane inflammation
D)Systemic symptoms of inflammation
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Chapter 46: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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30 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child has osteosarcoma and the healthcare team is assessing for metastases. What diagnostic study would be the priority?
A)Pancreatic enzyme analysis
B)Liver biopsy
C)Chest x-ray or CT scan
D)Brain MRI
Q2) A child has scoliosis with a 40-degree curvature of the spine, and the parent is worried about pulmonary involvement. What statement by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
A)"Scoliosis is a bone disorder and does not affect the lungs."
B)"Yes, we should obtain pulmonary function studies soon."
C)"Scoliosis severe enough to involve the lungs would be fatal."
D)"The lungs aren't affected until the curvature is over 80 degrees."
Q3) A healthcare professional working with children learns that which is the most common congenital skeletal defect of the upper extremity?
A)Vestigial tabs
B)Paget disease
C)Rickets
D)Syndactyly
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Sample Questions
Q1) What information does the student learn about Kaposi sarcoma? (Select all that apply.)
A)South America has been the site of the endemic form of Kaposi sarcoma.
B)Kaposi sarcoma is a vascular malignancy.
C)It is associated with drug-induced immunosuppression.
D)Kaposi sarcoma is associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).
E)The classic form of Kaposi sarcoma is observed on the lower legs of older men.
Q2) A patient has an onychomycosis. Where would the healthcare professional assess this disorder?
A)Scalp
B)Fingernail
C)Lower legs
D)Mucus membranes
Q3) Which gland releases secretions that are important in thermoregulation and cooling of the body through evaporation?
A)Sebaceous
B)Apocrine
C)Eccrine
D)Exocrine
Page 49
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Chapter 48: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) The healthcare professional is educating a parenting class on Koplik spots? What information is most appropriate to include? (Select all that apply.)
A)Koplik spots are associated with rubeola.
B)They appear as white spots.
C)The lesions are surrounded by a red ring.
D)The lesions of Koplik spots are large in size.
E)Koplik spots are primarily found on buccal mucosa.
Q2) Which contagious disease is caused by the itch mite?
A)Miliaria
B)Tinea corporis
C)Pediculosis
D)Scabies
Q3) The healthcare professional is teaching a group of new parents about childhood diseases. What does the professional tell them the incubation period for rubella is?
A)3 to 5 days
B)14 to 21 days
C)7 to 10 days
D)5 to 15 days
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Chapter 49: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Adults
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which type of shock would antihistamines and corticosteroids be prescribed?
A)Septic
B)Anaphylactic
C)Hypovolemic
D)Cardiogenic
Q2) What is the final outcome of impaired cellular metabolism?
A)Cellular alterations in the heart and brain
B)Buildup of cellular waste products
C)Cellular alterations in the vasculature structures and kidneys
D)Impairment of urine excretion
Q3) Which clinical manifestation of septic shock confirms an elevation in immune system response?
A)Tachycardia
B)Increased white blood cell count
C)Low respiratory rate
D)Hypothermia
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Chapter 50: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in Children
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23 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46481
Sample Questions
Q1) A student asks the healthcare professional to explain reperfusion injuries. What explanation by the professional is best?
A)Tissue damage that can occur with blood transfusions
B)Tissue destruction during rewarming in frostbite
C)Damage from restored blood flow and exposure to oxygen
D)Fluid overload from intravenous therapy that is too rapid
Q2) Approximately 80% of all hospital-acquired infections in children are a result of which type of organism?
A)Bacteria
B)Viruses
C)Fungi
D)Rickettsia
Q3) The healthcare professional explains to a student that the most serious outcome resulting from limited glycogen stores in children who have been seriously burned is which of these?
A)Poor wound healing
B)Increased morbidity
C)Decreased immunity
D)Loss of adipose tissue stores
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