Pharmacology for Nurses Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Pharmacology for Nurses provides an essential foundation in the principles of pharmacology, focusing on the safe and effective administration of medications in various healthcare settings. The course covers drug classifications, mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, side effects, interactions, and nursing responsibilities related to medication management. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, patient education, and the legal and ethical considerations in pharmacological care. Through case studies and practical examples, students learn how to assess patient needs, monitor drug effects, and contribute to interdisciplinary healthcare teams to ensure optimal patient outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 15th Edition by Bruce D. Clayton
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Chapter 1: Definitions, Names, Standards, and Information
Sources
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about over-the-counter (OTC) drugs?
A) They are not listed in the USP-NF.
B) A prescription from a health care provider is needed.
C) They are sold without a prescription.
D) They are known only by their brand names.
Answer: C
Q2) Which is the most authoritative reference for medications that are injected?
A) Parenteral Drug Handbook
B) Handbook on Injectable Drugs
C) Drugs and Injections Quarterly
D) Handbook of Nonprescription Drugs
Answer: B
Q3) Which source contains information specific to nutritional supplements?
A) USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names
B) Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database
C) United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP-NF)
D) Drug Interaction Facts
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Principles of Drug Action and Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What occurs when two drugs compete for the same receptor site, resulting in increased activity of the first drug?
A) Desired action
B) Synergistic effect
C) Carcinogenicity
D) Displacement
Answer: D
Q2) A patient developed hives and itching after receiving a drug for the first time. Which instruction by the nurse is accurate?
A) Stop the medication and encourage the patient to wear a medical alert bracelet that explains the allergy.
B) Explain to the patient that these are signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction.
C) Emphasize to the patient the importance to inform medical personnel that in the future a lower dosage of this drug is necessary.
D) Instruct the patient that it would be safe to take the drug again because this instance was a mild reaction.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Drug Action Across the Life Span
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a 4-month-old child who is on a water-soluble medication for seizures. The child's mother voices concern that the dosage seems "too much" for the child's age and would like the dosage verified. What actions will the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
A) Verify dosage requirements in the PDR in mg/kg.
B) Compare the water composition requirements of adults and children.
C) Evaluate lean body mass and total fat content in adults and infants.
D) Chart "refused per mother" on the MAR and do not administer.
E) Compare transportation in the circulation of plasma-bound proteins between adults and children.
Answer: A, B
Q2) After giving instructions to an expectant mother about taking medications during pregnancy, which patient statement indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "I will not take herbal medicines during pregnancy."
B) "For morning sickness, I will try crackers instead of taking a drug."
C) "If I get a cold, I will avoid taking nonprescription medications until I check with my physician."
D) "I will limit my alcohol intake to only one glass of wine weekly."
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: The Nursing Process and Pharmacology
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Q1) Which type of nursing diagnosis will be written when the patient exhibits factors that makes them susceptible to the development of a problem?
A) Actual diagnosis
B) Risk diagnosis
C) Possible diagnosis
D) Wellness diagnosis
Q2) The nurse has determined that the pain medication given to a patient an hour ago has been effective. The nurse is using which step of the nursing process?
A) Evaluation
B) Intervention
C) Nursing diagnosis
D) Planning
Q3) What is a critical care pathway?
A) A nursing care plan for a patient in a critical care unit
B) A standardized care plan derived from best-practice patterns
C) A care plan that has been critiqued by a quality improvement officer
D) A care plan based on measurable goals and outcomes
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Chapter 5: Patient Education and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which actions by the nurse can foster patient responsibility for adhering to the therapeutic regimen? (Select all that apply.)
A) Assessing the patient's readiness to learn
B) Determining the patient's level of understanding of content
C) Determining the patient's education level and learning style
D) Maintaining an aloof attitude toward presented content
E) Documenting expected outcomes independently
Q2) Which represents the psychomotor domain of learning?
A) The patient draws up insulin in a syringe.
B) The patient expresses a belief about medication use.
C) The patient is able to verbalize foods that should be avoided.
D) The patient relates past experience with smoking cessation.
Q3) In preparing for health teaching with a patient who has an auditory learning style, which would be most appropriate?
A) Pamphlets from a pharmaceutical company
B) Models of equipment used in a procedure
C) Verbal description of the steps of a procedure
D) A workbook with space to record actions and results
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7
Chapter 6: A Review of Arithmetic
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Sample Questions
Q1) 1:45 = _____, _____, _____
Q2) 1 dL = _____ L
Q3) 1/2 \(\times\) 1/3 = _____
Q4) lx = _____
Q5) 2 = _____
Q6) 10 7/9 - 6 1/6 = _____
Q7) 0.305 = _____
Q8) 15 kg = _____ lb
Q9) Convert 2 tsp to milliliters (mL): _____
Q10) 3.75 - 1.5 = _____
Q11) 3/32 ÷ 1/8 = _____
Q12) 1000 mL of solution containing 50 g glucose in water: _____
Q13) 500 mL of solution containing 350 mL alcohol in water: _____
Q14) 1 kg = _____ pounds
Q15) 1/18 + 1/9 + 1/12 + 1/4 = _____
Q16) 0.125 \(\times\) 10 = _____ Page 8
Q17) 32% = _____, _____, _____
Q18) 0.100 \(\div\) 1000 = _____
Q19) 1/200 ÷ 1/150 = _____
Q20) 5/18 - 2/9 = _____
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Page 9
Chapter 7: Principles of Medication Administration and Medication Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statements are true regarding computerized prescriber order entry (CPOE)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Integrates the ordering system with the pharmacy, laboratory, and nurses' stations
B) Provides instant access to online information to facilitate patient care needs
C) Facilitates review of ordered medications for potential drug interactions
D) Facilitates review of drugs for appropriateness of dosages
E) Alleviates the need to perform mathematical computations
Q2) The nursing assessment identifies that the client is nauseated and cannot take acetaminophen (Tylenol) orally. Which is true regarding the substitution of this medication to suppository form?
A) It is standard practice when the patient is unable to take the ordered medication.
B) It is acceptable if the patient agrees to the altered route form.
C) It is preferable to having the patient miss a dose of the medication.
D) It is contraindicated without an order from the health care provider.
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Chapter 8: Percutaneous Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with metastatic cancer is being admitted for pain control. Which action will the nurse perform in administering a transdermal patch?
A) After removal, dispose of the old patch in a receptacle in the patient's room.
B) Change the fentanyl patch every day, either in the morning or at bedtime.
C) Hold the short-acting oral pain medication when a fentanyl patch is initiated.
D) Label the patch with date, time, dosage, and initials after patch placement.
Q2) Which orders are examples of percutaneous medication administration? (Select all that apply.)
A) Timolol 0.5% 1 drop to each eye daily
B) Albuterol nebulizer 2.5 mg qid
C) Heparin 5000 units IV
D) Lasix 20 mg PO every AM
E) Silvadene 1% topically to affected area
Q3) Why are sublingual and buccal medications rapidly absorbed?
A) Their action is localized to the mouth.
B) They are metabolized in the liver.
C) Blood flow is diminished in these sites.
D) These drugs pass directly into systemic circulation.
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11
Chapter 9: Enteral Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of lubricant would the nurse use to administer a rectal suppository?
A) Petroleum jelly
B) Mineral oil
C) Water-soluble
D) Anesthetic
Q2) Which action by the nurse is appropriate when administering enteric-coated tablets?
A) Administer with an antacid.
B) Crush the tablet and mix with applesauce.
C) Encourage the patient to drink a full glass of water.
D) Instruct the patient to place the medication between the cheek and teeth.
Q3) Oral drug administration includes which principles? (Select all that apply.)
A) Dependable rate of absorption
B) Most economical
C) Insulin can be administered via this route.
D) Drugs are delivered directly by the oral, rectal, or NG methods.
E) Dosage forms are convenient and readily available.
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12
Chapter 10: Parenteral Administration: Safe Preparation
Parenteral Medications
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Q1) Which action by the nurse is most accurate when drawing up medication from an ampule?
A) Consider the rim of the ampule as sterile.
B) Use a filter needle to withdraw the medication.
C) Wrap a paper towel around the neck of the ampule before breaking it.
D) Inject 0.5 mL of air into the ampule before withdrawing the medication.
Q2) Which action by the nurse is accurate when withdrawing medication into a syringe from a vial?
A) Inject an amount of air equal to the medication into the vial.
B) Break the thin neck of the vial container.
C) Remove the rubber stopper on the top of the vial.
D) Discard the initial 0.5 mL of medication to ensure sterility.
Q3) Which are risk factors when administering medications by injection? (Select all that apply.)
A) Trauma at the site of the needle puncture
B) Possibility of infection
C) Irretrievability of the medication once administered
D) Delayed absorption
E) Delayed onset of action
F) Chance of allergic reaction
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Parenteral Administration: Intradermal,
Subcutaneous, and Intramuscular Routes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer allergy sensitivity testing to a patient. Which statements pertain to this type of administration? (Select all that apply.)
A) Allergy sensitivity testing requires the intradermal route.
B) Injections are made into the loose connective tissue.
C) Equipment needed includes gloves, antiseptic pledget, metric ruler, and physician's order sheet.
D) Record of previous injection sites is needed.
E) The needle should be inserted at a 15-degree angle with the needle bevel up.
Q2) Which technique by the nurse is accurate when administering heparin to a thin, older adult patient?
A) Aspirate before injecting the medication.
B) Inject at a 45-degree angle.
C) Inject at a 90-degree angle.
D) Massage site following injection.
Q3) Which is the preferred intramuscular site for injecting a 6-month-old child?
A) Dorsogluteal
B) Abdominal
C) Vastus lateralis
D) Deltoid muscle
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Parenteral Administration: Intravenous Route
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with cancer and requires 6 months of chemotherapy infusions. Which type of intravenous access device will likely be used?
A) Peripheral venous access device
B) Midline catheter
C) Winged-needle venous access device
D) Implantable venous infusion port
Q2) Which technique by the nurse accurately maintains asepsis of a peripheral intravenous (IV) access device?
A) Wear gloves when hanging all IV solutions.
B) Apply a topical antibiotic ointment to the insertion site.
C) Change fluid administration sets according to institutional policy.
D) Flush with heparin before use.
Q3) Which needle is used to access implanted infusion devices?
A) Jamshedi
B) Huber
C) Gigli
D) Crutchfield
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15
Chapter 13: Drugs Affecting the Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The autonomic nervous system can be subdivided into which types of adrenergic receptors?
A) Nicotinic and muscarinic
B) Afferent and efferent
C) Alpha and beta
D) Agonists and antagonists
Q2) A patient with Parkinson's disease asks the nurse why anticholinergics are used in the treatment. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A) "These drugs help you urinate."
B) "These drugs will decrease your eye pressure."
C) "These drugs inhibit the action of acetylcholine."
D) "These drugs will assist in lowering your heart rate."
Q3) Which nerve endings liberate norepinephrine?
A) Cholinergic
B) Adrenergic
C) Anticholinergic
D) Muscarinic
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Chapter 14: Sedative-Hypnotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient received a hypnotic agent at 9:00 PM. At 2:00 AM, the nurse discovers that the patient has removed her gown and is attempting to get out of bed without assistance. What type of medication effect is the patient exhibiting?
A) Allergic
B) Hypersensitivity
C) Paradoxical
D) Therapeutic
Q2) A patient has been prescribed lorazepam (Ativan), a benzodiazepine used to treat insomnia. Which action will the nurse take?
A) Advise the patient to take the medication with food.
B) Assess the patient's blood pressure in sitting and lying positions.
C) Inform the patient to discontinue the medication once sleep improves.
D) Instruct the patient to lie down before taking the medication.
Q3) Which are common adverse effects of barbiturates? (Select all that apply.)
A) Residual daytime sedation
B) Headache
C) Hyperactivity
D) Blurred vision
E) Impaired coordination
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Page 17
Chapter 15: Drugs Used for Parkinsons Disease
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Q1) The nurse is assessing an older patient with Parkinson's disease who was started on entacapone 1 week ago. The patient has a history of coronary artery disease and takes an antihypertensive and aspirin. Which information would support the need for a reduction in medication dosage by the health care provider?
A) Constipation
B) Brownish orange urine
C) Drowsiness
D) Dizziness
Q2) Dopamine agonists have been linked with which adverse effects in patients with Parkinson's disease?
A) Oculogyric crisis
B) Tardive dyskinesia
C) Sudden sleep events
D) Akathisia
Q3) Which reaction occurs as a result of prescribing carbidopa-levodopa?
A) Idiosyncratic
B) Additive
C) Hypersensitivity
D) Tolerance
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Chapter 16: Drugs Used for Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to the relief of mild to moderate anxiety, hydroxyzine (Vistaril) has which additional therapeutic outcomes? (Select all that apply.)
A) Reduced need for sedation and analgesia before and after surgery
B) Elimination of psychotic thinking
C) Control of itching in allergic reactions
D) Control of vomiting
E) Control of obsessive-compulsive thoughts
F) Prevention of extrapyramidal adverse effects and tardive dyskinesia
Q2) What will the nurse caution a patient about when providing information about the prescribed azaspirone antidepressant?
A) Risk for addiction
B) Adverse effect of nausea
C) Risk of injury when using machinery
D) Additive effects of CNS depression with alcohol
Q3) Which is true regarding psychological drug dependence?
A) It is easier to treat than physiological dependence.
B) It is not considered a true addiction.
C) It is easily controlled by influencing the patient's perceptions.
D) It requires medical intervention to treat.
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Page 19
Chapter 17: Drugs Used for Mood Disorders
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Q1) Which nursing assessments are important before the initiation of antidepressant therapy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Compliancy with medication therapy within the last 2 months
B) Nonverbal interactions among patient and significant others present
C) Evaluation of the coherency, relevancy, and organization of thoughts in responses
D) Appearance and posture
E) Elimination pattern
Q2) What is the major advantage of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) over other types of antidepressant therapy?
A) They are less expensive than the other classes of antidepressants.
B) They cure major depressive illnesses.
C) They do not cause the anticholinergic and cardiovascular adverse effects.
D) Therapeutic relief is immediate.
Q3) On what is the choice of tricyclic antidepressants based?
A) The need to decrease the action of norepinephrine, dopamine, or serotonin
B) Patient age and gender
C) An absence of adverse effects such as orthostatic hypotension
D) The need for stimulation and increased mental alertness
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Chapter 18: Drugs Used for Psychoses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an appropriate nursing intervention for a patient who has recently been prescribed clozapine (Clozaril)?
A) Assess for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.
B) Encourage a low-fiber diet.
C) Measure the patient's waist circumference.
D) Monitor for insomnia.
Q2) Which type of adverse effects is present when a patient displays prolonged tonic contractions of the tongue, oculogyric crisis, and torticollis?
A) Dystonic reactions
B) Pseudoparkinsonism
C) Akathisia
D) Tardive dyskinesia
Q3) Which statement is true regarding the adverse effects associated with antipsychotic medications?
A) Tardive dyskinesia is a common, reversible condition.
B) Painful dystonic reactions can occur in the first 72 hours of initiation of therapy.
C) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a common adverse effect.
D) Pseudoparkinsonian symptoms can cause Parkinson's disease.
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21
Chapter 19: Drugs Used for Seizure Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which dose is within the acceptable range for administering IV phenytoin (Dilantin) to a patient with a seizure disorder?
A) 5 mg/min
B) 30 mg/min
C) 60 mg/min
D) 100 mg/min
Q2) The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin) for management of a seizure disorder. Which patient statement indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I need to avoid or limit caffeine intake."
B) "I will check with the pharmacist before taking over-the-counter medication."
C) "If I develop enlarged gums, I will stop taking the medication."
D) "It is important for me to take my medicine at the same time daily."
Q3) Which condition is associated with hydantoin therapy?
A) Postictal state
B) Atonia
C) Seizure threshold reduction
D) Gingival hyperplasia
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22
Chapter 20: Drugs Used for Pain Management
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Q1) Which action will the nurse take when a patient receiving morphine sulfate via PCA has a shallow, irregular respiratory rate of 6/min?
A) Elevate the patient's head of bed to facilitate lung expansion.
B) Increase the patient's primary IV flow rate.
C) Complete the FLACC scale.
D) Notify the health care provider and prepare to administer naloxone (Narcan).
Q2) What is the best way for the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of the patient's opiate agonist?
A) Ability of the patient to tolerate more activity
B) Increased sleep time throughout the night
C) Reduction of respiratory rate from 24 to 18 breaths/min
D) Verbal report of 2 on a 1 to 10 scale
Q3) What term is used to define an awareness of pain?
A) Tolerance
B) Threshold
C) Perception
D) Sensation
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23
Chapter 21: Introduction to Cardiovascular Disease and Metabolic Syndrome
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Q1) Which cardiovascular conditions are related to coronary artery diseases? (Select all that apply.)
A) Angina pectoris
B) Pulmonary stenosis
C) Acute myocardial infarction
D) Pericarditis
E) Venous stasis ulcers
Q2) Healthy diets should include no more than which percentage of saturated fat based on total calories?
A) 30
B) 10
C) 7
D) 2
Q3) What is the most critical approach to the treatment of metabolic syndrome?
A) Psychotherapy
B) Pharmacotherapy
C) Lifestyle management
D) Patient education
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Chapter 22: Drugs Used to Treat Dyslipidemias
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Q1) In addition to controlling hyperlipidemia, what are bile acid-binding resins prescribed to treat?
A) Constipation secondary to excess fecal bile acids
B) Constipation related to pseudomembranous colitis
C) Pruritus secondary to biliary stasis
D) Jaundice related to cholelithiasis
Q2) A patient is prescribed a bile acid resin. The nurse instructs the patient to report which adverse reaction related to vitamin K deficiency?
A) Constipation
B) Coffee ground emesis
C) Nausea
D) Changes in skin pigmentation
Q3) The nurse is providing education to a patient who has recently been prescribed niacin. Which information given by the nurse is accurate?
A) "Weigh yourself weekly due to risk of fluid retention."
B) "Nausea can be decreased if you take this medication with food."
C) "Because your blood pressure may increase while taking this drug, have it checked monthly."
D) "You should not take aspirin while on this medication."
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Page 25
Chapter 23: Drugs Used to Treat Hypertension
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Q1) The nurse is explaining to a patient how ACE inhibitors affect blood pressure. Which statement accurately describes the action of these medications?
A) They increase aldosterone secretion.
B) They inhibit vasoconstriction.
C) They lower heart rate.
D) They promote sodium retention.
Q2) Which statements about diuretics are true? (Select all that apply.)
A) A mechanism of action for the antihypertensive effects of diuretics includes volume depletion.
B) They have been shown to reduce cardiovascular morbidity associated with hypertension.
C) Thiazide diuretics are effective only if renal creatinine clearance is less than 30 mL/min.
D) Diuretics are sodium-sparing.
E) Electrolytes must be evaluated periodically for patients on loop diuretics.
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26
Chapter 24: Drugs Used to Treat Dysrhythmias
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Q1) Which symptom will the nurse encourage the patient taking flecainide to report to the health care provider?
A) Headache
B) Dizziness
C) Constipation
D) Weight gain
Q2) A patient who is started on phenytoin (Dilantin), who is also taking amiodarone (Cordarone), should be assessed for what possible effect?
A) CNS depression and sedation
B) Decrease in effectiveness of phenytoin
C) Respiratory depression
D) Increase in serum phenytoin levels
Q3) Patients who are on neuromuscular blocking agents and lidocaine must be closely observed for which complication?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Respiratory depression
C) Neurotoxicity
D) Seizures
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Chapter 25: Drugs Used to Treat Angina Pectoris
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Q1) Which lifestyle modifications will the nurse include when educating the patient with angina pectoris? (Select all that apply.)
A) Weight reduction therapy
B) Low-potassium diet
C) Smoking cessation
D) Stress management
E) Independent exercise
Q2) What is the rationale behind administering calcium channel blockers to patients with angina?
A) They decrease heart rate.
B) They dilate blood vessels.
C) They increase cardiac contractility.
D) They promote fluid excretion.
Q3) Which action by the nurse is most accurate when administering nitroglycerin ointment to a patient?
A) Spread the ointment on the patient's legs in a thin, uniform layer.
B) Cover the patch with a clear plastic wrap.
C) Rub the ointment into the skin in a circular motion.
D) Shave the skin prior to application.
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Chapter 26: Drugs Used to Treat Peripheral Vascular Disease
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Q1) Which are included in the baseline assessment of PVD? (Select all that apply.)
A) History of heart disease
B) Smoking and dietary habits
C) Current medications
D) Weight
E) Limb pain
F) Mental status
Q2) Which are necessary steps in the assessment of the patient preparing for treatment of PVD with pentoxifylline (Trental)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Check for intolerance to caffeine.
B) Obtain baseline data on pain that may be present.
C) Obtain test results for PT and aPTT.
D) Perform baseline gastrointestinal assessment to determine if the patient has nausea, vomiting, or dyspepsia.
E) Ask specifically if the patient has any cardiac symptoms or dizziness.
F) Schedule the patient for an exercise stress test.
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29
Chapter 27: Drugs Used to Treat Thromboembolic Disorders
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Q1) A patient is receiving 1400 units of heparin/hour on an IV pump. The aPTT time is 54. The laboratory control is 25. Which action by the nurse is accurate?
A) Bolus the patient with an additional 5000 units of heparin.
B) Stop the heparin immediately and notify the health care provider that the patient's blood level is toxic.
C) Administer protamine sulfate stat.
D) Continue with the prescribed rate.
Q2) Which symptom is indicative of bleeding in a patient taking warfarin (Coumadin)?
A) Bradycardia
B) Petechiae
C) Increased urinary output
D) Dry skin
Q3) What is the rationale for administering fibrinolytic agents, such as streptokinase, within hours of the onset of myocardial infarction?
A) Enhances myocardial oxygenation
B) Lyses the blood clot
C) Promotes platelet aggregation
D) Inhibits clotting mechanisms
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Chapter 28: Drugs Used to Treat Heart Failure
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19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72611
Sample Questions
Q1) Which are true statements about vasodilators? (Select all that apply.)
A) They reduce systemic vascular resistance.
B) They increase afterload.
C) They reduce preload.
D) They decrease pulmonary congestion.
E) They increase tissue perfusion to muscles and organs.
F) They increase the volume of blood returning to the heart.
Q2) The nurse is to administer digoxin to an 18-month-old patient who weighs 16.5 lb. Guidelines for administration read as follows: 0.0075 mg to 0.010 mg/kg/day. Which is a safe medication dosage?
A) 0.05 mg
B) 0.12 mg
C)0.074 mg
D) 0.75 mg
Q3) The nurse monitors a patient receiving digoxin closely for toxicity when which other medication is prescribed?
A) Potassium supplements
B) Furosemide (Lasix)
C) Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)
D) Antibiotics
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Chapter 29: Drugs Used for Diuresis
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing interventions are performed for a patient who is on diuretic therapy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Auscultation of lung sounds
B) Assessment of skin turgor
C) Initiation of electrolyte supplements
D) Positioning techniques
E) Monitoring of intake and output
Q2) What would the nurse anticipate if a patient with a history of type 2 diabetes is prescribed a thiazide diuretic?
A) No change in the antidiabetic regimen
B) Decreased need for antidiabetic medication
C) Increased blood sugar levels
D) Less frequent monitoring of blood sugar level
Q3) The nurse would expect to assess which serum potassium level in a patient who has severe vomiting and diarrhea?
A) Less than 3.5 mEq/L
B) Between 3.5 mEq/L and 4.5 mEq/L
C) Between 4.6 mEq/L and 5 mEq/L
D) Higher than 5.5 mEq/L
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Page 32
Chapter 30: Drugs Used to Treat Upper Respiratory Disease
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72613
Sample Questions
Q1) What initiates the sneeze reflex?
A) Stimulation of the vagus nerve
B) Irritation of the nasal mucosa by foreign particulate matter
C) Stimulation of the tonsils
D) Enervation of the olfactory cranial nerve
Q2) A patient at sports camp is complaining of itchy, watery eyes, coughing, and sneezing when outdoors. The patient's chart states that he has an allergy to grasses. Which medication will the nurse administer?
A) Antitussive
B) Expectorant
C) Antihistamine
D) Decongestant
Q3) Which instruction will the nurse include when teaching a patient with seasonal rhinitis and blocked nasal passages about intranasal corticosteroid therapy?
A) "Clear your nasal passage after administration."
B) "Anticipate a therapeutic benefit within 24 hours."
C) "Use a decongestant prior to administration."
D) "Report nasal burning to your health care provider."
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33
Chapter 31: Drugs Used to Treat Lower Respiratory Disease
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72614
Sample Questions
Q1) Premedication assessments before the use of anticholinergic bronchodilating agents should verify that the patient has no history of which condition?
A) Diabetes
B) Hypertension
C) Liver disease
D) Glaucoma
Q2) Which statements about acetylcysteine are true? (Select all that apply.)
A) It reduces viscosity of secretions.
B) It treats acetaminophen toxicity.
C) It is stored at room temperature.
D) It is given to improve airway flow.
E) It is odorless.
F) It is administered by inhalation.
Q3) Which is a common expectorant in over-the-counter medications?
A) Dextromethorphan
B) Diphenhydramine
C) Guaifenesin
D) Codeine
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Chapter 32: Drugs Used to Treat Oral Disorders
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary pharmacologic therapy for Candida albicans?
A) Steroids
B) Antifungal agents
C) Topical anesthetics
D) Topical anti-inflammatory agents
Q2) A patient who is undergoing bone marrow transplantation has developed severe mucositis. Which treatment options may promote comfort? (Select all that apply.)
A) 2% viscous lidocaine (Xylocaine) before meals
B) Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) therapy as needed
C) Commercially prepared mouthwashes
D) Docosanol (Abreva) therapy
E) Milk of Magnesia mouth rinses
Q3) What infection is often called the "disease of the diseased" because it appears in debilitated patients?
A) Aspergillosis
B) Candidiasis
C) Trichomoniasis
D) Brucellosis
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35
Chapter 33: Drugs Used to Treat Gastroesophageal Reflux and Peptic Ulcer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is instructing a patient recently diagnosed with GERD. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will avoid foods high in fat."
B) "I will eat small frequent meals and have a snack at bedtime."
C) "Orange juice may aggravate my symptoms."
D) "I will wait 2 hours after eating lunch before lying down for a nap."
Q2) Which are important nursing considerations when administering prokinetic agents?
(Select all that apply.)
A) These agents are used to treat esophagitis associated with gastric reflux.
B) They are used to treat GERD when lifestyle changes and diet are ineffective.
C) They may be useful in treating nausea associated with chemotherapy treatment.
D) They may be administered intravenously.
E) Administer the medication to diabetic patients after meals.
Q3) The nurse is preparing to administer medications and notes that a patient has sucralfate ordered qid. When is the best time to administer this medication?
A) 1 hour before meals
B) With meals
C) 1 hour after meals
D) With a bedtime snack
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Chapter 34: Drugs Used to Treat Nausea and Vomiting
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72617
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a 27-year-old patient taking a cannabinoid during chemotherapy. Which consideration will the nurse take into account?
A) Antihistamines may potentiate the effects.
B) Monitor the patient for fluid volume excess.
C) Previous use of marijuana requires increased dosage.
D) Inform the patient to avoid the intake of potassium.
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient with nausea and vomiting. Which additional autonomic symptoms that often accompany vomiting will the nurse observe?
A) Bradycardia, diarrhea, and flushing
B) Pallor, sweating, and tachycardia
C) Urinary urgency, chills, and dizziness
D) Fever, hyperventilation, and bradycardia
Q3) What is the purpose for the nurse administering metoclopramide (Reglan) IV postoperatively?
A) Prolong the effects of anesthesia.
B) Decrease the potential for thrombus formation.
C) Prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting.
D) Decrease postoperative pain.
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Chapter 35: Drugs Used to Treat Constipation and Diarrhea
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mechanism of action of a stimulant laxative?
A) Draws water into the bowel to facilitate the passage of feces
B) Lubricates the intestinal wall and soften stool
C) Increases bulk and stimulate peristalsis
D) Irritates the intestine directly, promoting peristalsis and evacuation
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient with constipation. Which are causes of constipation? (Select all that apply.)
A) Diet low in fiber and/or residue
B) Excessive fluid intake
C) Diet low in cheese and yogurt
D) Iron supplements
E) Use of morphine
Q3) A patient is receiving morphine for pain control. What will the nurse emphasize about preventing constipation?
A) Adequate hydration consists of four full glasses of water every day.
B) Laxatives should be given on a daily basis.
C) Stool softeners are taken on a regular basis during opioid use.
D) Enemas should be given on a weekly basis.
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Chapter 36: Drugs Used to Treat Diabetes Mellitus
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is the best time for the nurse to administer Lispro?
A) After the patient has started eating
B) Within 10 to 15 minutes of eating
C) 30 minutes before a meal
D) 45 to 60 minutes before a meal
Q2) What test determines glycemic control over the previous 8 to 10 weeks?
A) 24-hour glucose clearance test
B) Fructosamine test
C) Fasting blood sugar
D) A<sub>1c</sub> test
Q3) Which instruction by the nurse is accurate to include when providing teaching to a patient recently diagnosed with diabetes who has been prescribed insulin?
A) Beta blockers can mask symptoms of hypoglycemia.
B) Lipodystrophy increases the absorption of insulin.
C) Infection will decrease the need for insulin.
D) Excessive exercise will increase the need for insulin.
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Chapter 37: Drugs Used to Treat Thyroid Disease
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition can occur if congenital hypothyroidism is not treated?
A) Diabetes
B) Impaired vision
C) Periorbital edema
D) Cretinism
Q2) Which nursing diagnosis may be identified for a patient with hyperthyroidism?
A) Imbalanced Nutrition: More Than Body Requirements
B) Constipation
C) Disturbed Sleep Pattern
D) Ineffective Airway Clearance
Q3) What is the mechanism of action of propylthiouracil?
A) Blocks reuptake of thyroid hormone in the liver
B) Destroys hormone in the thyroid gland
C) Increases synthesis of hormone in the thyroid gland
D) Blocks synthesis of hormone in the thyroid gland
Q4) Which medication is used to treat hyperthyroidism?
A) Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
B) Liotrix (Thyrolar)
C) Propylthiouracil (Propacil)
D) Liothyronine (Cytomel)
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Chapter 38: Corticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and will begin daily oral corticosteroid treatment. Which baseline assessments are important for a patient receiving corticosteroids? (Select all that apply.)
A) Baseline weight
B) Blood pressure
C) Complete blood cell count
D) Electrolyte studies
E) Hydration status
Q2) Which condition would require mineralocorticoid replacement?
A) Addison's disease
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Myxedema
D) Glomerulonephritis
Q3) What is the rationale for administering glucocorticoid therapy as an adjunct to chemotherapeutic agents?
A) Assists with pain control
B) Raises blood sugar to meet the increased metabolic needs
C) Produces immunosuppression effects
D) Reduces mucositis
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Chapter 39: Gonadal Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient with seizures about estrogen therapy?
A) Phenytoin reduces the effectiveness of estrogen.
B) Estrogen reduces the effectiveness of phenytoin.
C) Phenytoin may inhibit the metabolism of estrogen.
D) Estrogen may inhibit the metabolism of phenytoin.
Q2) Which condition is of special concern when evaluating a patient for treatment with gonadal hormones? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sexually transmitted disease
B) Hypertension
C) Liver disease
D) Cancer of the reproductive organs
E) Smoking
Q3) Which is most important for the nurse to remember when instructing the patient about treatment with gonadal hormones?
A) Dosage, schedule, and adverse effects
B) Cost, storage, and route of administration
C) Drug interactions and food interactions
D) Scheduling follow-up appointments and lab studies
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Chapter 40: Drugs Used in Obstetrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 26-year-old patient with preeclampsia is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. The 1400 assessment includes blood pressure, 100/70 mm Hg, respiration, 10, fetal heart tone, 100/min, urine output 20 mL/hour, absent patellar reflex. Which is the priority nursing action?
A) Decrease IV magnesium sulfate to half the dose and reassess the patient and fetus in 15 minutes.
B) Stop the IV magnesium sulfate and contact the health care provider.
C) Place the patient on her left side and administer oxygen.
D) Stop the IV magnesium sulfate and administer calcium gluconate 5 mEq IV over 3 minutes.
Q2) A patient is a gravida 1, 28 weeks' gestation, Rh-negative woman. The father of her child is Rh-positive. The mother is asking the nurse about the effect on her unborn child of RhoGAM that has been ordered. What is the nurse's best reply?
A) "Your child will do well after birth once transfusions are administered."
B) "If the baby is Rh-negative at birth, he or she will need RhoGAM also."
C) "RhoGAM kills antibodies you make, so your child will be protected."
D) "Your baby may be Rh-positive and cause you to make antibodies. These won't affect this baby, but could affect future children if RhoGAM isn't given."
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43
Chapter 41: Drugs Used in Mens and Womens Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse working at the community health clinic receives a call from a teen client who reports that she has missed one of her birth control pills. Which response by the nurse is accurate? (Select all that apply.)
A) Take the missed pill now.
B) Take the next pill at the regularly scheduled time.
C) Come into the clinic for a pregnancy test.
D) Start with the next month's pill packet at day 1.
E) Take the missed pill and the next pill together at the next regularly scheduled time.
Q2) A female patient has developed leukorrhea since being on oral broad-spectrum antibiotics for the past week for a lower respiratory infection. Which organism causes leukorrhea?
A) Herpes simplex
B) Mycoplasma hominis
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Candida albicans
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44
Chapter 42: Drugs Used to Treat Disorders of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which interventions help stimulate urination when a patient is experiencing postoperative urinary retention? (Select all that apply.)
A) Reinforcing Kegel exercises
B) Administration of bethanechol chloride (Urecholine)
C) Pouring warm water over the perineum
D) Increasing IV fluids
E) Urinary catheterization
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the urinalysis results of an older adult patient admitted with elevated temperature and incontinence. Which urinalysis properties are indicative of an infection? (Select all that apply.)
A) Straw color
B) Foul odor
C) Trace glucose
D) pH of 8.2
E) Specific gravity of 1.014
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45
Chapter 43: Drugs Used to Treat Glaucoma and Other Eye Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication is used to produce miosis following a diagnostic procedure?
A)Pilocarpine (Pilocar)
B)Mannitol (Osmitrol)
C)Atropine (Isopto-Atropine)
D)Epinephrine (EpiPen)
Q2) What is the action of timolol maleate (Timoptic), a beta-adrenergic blocking agent?
A)Draws aqueous humor from the eye into the circulatory network
B)Increases the production of aqueous humor
C)Increases the outflow of aqueous humor
D)Decreases the production of aqueous humor
Q3) Which discharge instruction will the nurse include for a patient sent home from the clinic who is taking an adrenergic ophthalmic solution for an acute inflammation?
A)Headaches and eye pain are adverse effects to be reported to the health care provider immediately.
B)Mouth dryness should be reported immediately.
C)Avoid driving or operating machinery until blurring subsides.
D) Halos or yellow rings around objects will be seen while taking this medication.
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Page 46
Chapter 44: Drugs Used for Cancer Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which symptom is the patient who is receiving bleomycin (Blenoxane) therapy most likely to exhibit?
A) Increased respiratory rate and cough
B) Weight gain and peripheral edema
C) Numbness and tingling of hands and feet
D) Lethargy and orthostatic hypotension
Q2) What is the intended outcome of the chemoprotective drug amifostine (Ethyol)?
A) Decreased nausea and vomiting
B) Increased effectiveness of the chemotherapy
C) Maintenance of body weight
D) Decreased renal toxicity
Q3) The nurse is providing education about chemotherapy to a patient who is being discharged. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will shave with an electric razor."
B) "I will take aspirin for a headache."
C) "I will wash my laundry separate from other family members."
D) "I will flush the toilet twice after using."
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Chapter 45: Drugs Used to Treat the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the reasons that neuromuscular blocking agents are used? (Select all that apply.)
A) Alleviation of pain
B) Reducing the use and adverse effects of general anesthetics
C) Easing endotracheal intubation and prevent laryngospasm
D) Producing amnesia during painful procedures
E) Decreasing muscular activity in electroshock therapy
Q2) In the intensive care unit, the nurse is taking care of a patient who is on a ventilator and is receiving succinylcholine (Anectine). Which is a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?
A) Pain
B) Disturbed Body Image
C) Risk for Injury
D) Self-Care Deficit
Q3) Which common adverse effects occur with neuromuscular blocking agents?
A) Fever
B) Flushing
C) Nausea
D) Ataxia
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48
Chapter 46: Antimicrobial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult who has septicemia is receiving IV aminoglycoside therapy. Which symptom is most important for the nurse to monitor?
A) Bone marrow suppression
B) Ototoxicity
C) Gastrointestinal distress
D) Photosensitivity
Q2) Which drug is incompatible with heparin?
A) Gentamicin
B) Ampicillin (Unasyn)
C) Ticarcillin (Timentin)
D) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
Q3) What adverse effect may manifest as dizziness, tinnitus, and progressive hearing loss?
A) Ear infection
B) Drug allergy
C) Ototoxicity
D) Idiosyncratic reaction
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Chapter 47: Nutrition
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72630
Sample Questions
Q1) Which dietary fats are cardioprotective?
A) Monounsaturated
B) Polyunsaturated
C) Saturated
D) Trans
Q2) Which food is a good source of vitamin A?
A) Sweet potatoes
B) Apples
C) Bananas
D) Whole-grain bread
Q3) What is the best way for the nurse to administer liquid iron?
A) With an antacid
B) Mixed with coffee
C) Sipped through a straw
D) Swished and then swallowed
Q4) Which meal contains the best sources of dietary fiber?
A) Eggs, bacon, orange juice
B) Salad, whole-wheat toast, sliced peach
C) Roast beef, mashed potatoes with gravy, corn, milk
D) Grilled hamburger on a bun, fresh carrot sticks, potato chips
Page 50
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Chapter 48: Herbal and Dietary Supplement Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of which medication would alert the nurse to educate the patient about using Ginkgo biloba cautiously?
A) Antiemetics
B) Anti-inflammatories
C) Anticoagulants
D) Antibiotics
Q2) Which herbal medicine may improve a patient's short-term memory loss and cognitive function?
A) Ginger
B) Green tea
C) Feverfew
D) Ginkgo biloba extract
Q3) Which is a therapeutic effect of valerian?
A) Lower HDLs and raise LDLs
B) Prevent infection
C) Promote relaxation and sleep
D) Elevate mood
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Chapter 49: Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect will occur if a patient being treated with naltrexone (ReVia) for substance abuse ingests opioids or alcohol?
A) Increased euphoria
B) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
C) Deep sedation
D) An absence of the "high" associated with drugs
Q2) Which protects individuals who have been successfully rehabilitated from substance abuse from discrimination related to past addiction?
A) Americans with Disabilities Act
B) National Council on Alcoholism and Drug Dependence
C) Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives
D) American Medical Association
Q3) What will the nurse instruct patients who are on daily disulfiram (Antabuse) to avoid?
A) All forms of cough syrup
B) Alcohol
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Aspirin products
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Chapter 50: Miscellaneous Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing information to a patient with chronic gout arthritis who is prescribed probenecid. Which information by the nurse is accurate regarding the action of this drug?
A) It prevents uric acid crystal formation.
B) It promotes uric acid excretion.
C) It provides analgesia.
D) It treats acute gout attacks.
Q2) What is the mechanism of action of memantine (Namenda)?
A) Increases production of dopamine
B) Decreases production of serotonin
C) Blocks NDMA receptors in the CNS
D) Enhances reuptake of central neurotransmitters
Q3) Which common adverse effect will the nurse expect to assess in a patient recently prescribed tacrine (Cognex)?
A) Dyspepsia
B) Bradycardia
C) Jaundice
D) Rash
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