Pharmacology for Health Sciences Practice
Questions
Course Introduction
Pharmacology for Health Sciences provides students with a foundational understanding of how drugs interact with biological systems to affect health and disease. The course covers essential concepts, including the principles of drug action, absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Students will explore the therapeutic uses, mechanisms of action, side effects, and potential drug interactions of major drug classes commonly encountered in clinical practice. Emphasis is placed on the safe and effective application of pharmacological knowledge in healthcare settings, enabling future health professionals to make informed decisions regarding medication management and patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology An Introduction 7th Edition by
Henry Hitner PhD
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1602 Verified Questions
1602 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a drug derived from a plant?
A) Insulin
B) Digitalis
C) Cephalosporin
D) Estradiol
Answer: B
Q2) The phenomenon that occurs upon taking additional doses of acetaminophen for pain when a 100 percent response has been attained is called the _____.
A) ceiling effect
B) placebo effect
C) first-pass effect
D) Purkinje effect
Answer: A
Q3) Drugs,such as thalidomide,that produce birth defects are known as _____.
A) mutagens
B) carcinogens
C) teratogens
D) allergens
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics and Factors of Individual
Variation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the drug form that contains dried and finely ground drugs or drug extracts.
A) Powders
B) Tablets
C) Troches
D) Capsules
Answer: A
Q2) You have been asked to explain to a patient the possibility that he will experience drug interactions while taking his newly prescribed medications.Select the appropriate statement you will use when explaining synergism to the patient.
A) Drugs may increase each other's effect to the equivalent of the sum of their individual effects.
B) Drugs may increase each other's effect to an amount that is greater than the sum of their individual effects.
C) Drugs may cancel each other's effect or lead to a response that is less than the sum of their individual effects.
D) None of the above statements are correct.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Geriatric Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How would one expect the plasma creatinine levels in a person's body to change with age?
A) Slightly decrease with age
B) Remain unchanged
C) Dramatically decrease with age
D) Increase with age
Answer: D
Q2) Who among the following is most likely to experience an impaired drug response caused by the lack of adequate nutrition?
A) A comatose patient on TPN
B) A patient living with his or her family members
C) A nursing home patient
D) A physically active senior citizen
Answer: C
Q3) One way to improve compliance for a patient with arthritis would be to:
A) encourage the patient to take medication on an empty stomach.
B) suggest not using child safety caps on medication bottles.
C) encourage the patient to read medication information literature.
D) allow the patient to identify the drugs he requires on his own.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Math Review and Dosage Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the correct dose of a drug to be administered at a dosage of 10 mg/kg for a patient who weighs 44 pounds and is 6 years old.The drug is available as 500 mg in powder form,which will be mixed in enough water to make 100 ml of final solution (W/V).
A) 125 mg
B) 200 mg
C) 375 mg
D) 425 mg
Q2) Melissa is 4 years old and weighs 50 pounds.She is prescribed an antibiotic to treat a throat infection.The regular adult dosage is 200 mg per day.What is the dosage that Melissa should receive?
A) 33 mg
B) 66 mg
C) 99 mg
D) 111 mg
Q3) Match the set of examples to the definition of a numerator.
A) The 13 in 13.14, 33 in 33.58, and 21 in 21.92
B) The 5 in 2:5, 4 in 1:4, and 8 in 5:8
C) The 1 in 1/4, 4 in 4/11, and 5 in 5/25
D) All of these
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The neurotransmitter common to both preganglionic nerve fibers in the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system is:
A) norepinephrine.
B) acetylcholine.
C) epinephrine.
D) serotonin.
Q2) Which of the following is a difference between acetylcholine and epinephrine?
A) Acetylcholine is released from the adrenal gland, whereas epinephrine is released from the preganglionic fibers of parasympathetic nerves.
B) Acetylcholine produces the effects of parasympathetic stimulation, whereas epinephrine produces the effects of sympathetic stimulation.
C) Acetylcholine is released by adrenergic nerves, whereas epinephrine is released by cholinergic nerves.
D) Acetylcholine binds with adrenergic receptors, whereas epinephrine binds with muscarinic receptors.
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Chapter 6: Drugs Affecting the Sympathetic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the beta-adrenergic drugs that can be inhaled via a nebulizer in order to open the respiratory airway.
A) Isoetharine and salmeterol
B) Salmeterol and terbutaline
C) Isoetharine and levalbuterol
D) Levalbuterol and terbutaline
Q2) Analyze the major adrenergic effects of the alpha-adrenergic drug class,and select the main drug effect that the alpha-adrenergic drugs have on the alpha-2 receptors.
A) Negative feedback effect to decrease the release of epinephrine
B) Negative feedback effect to decrease the release of norepinephrine
C) Contraction of smooth muscle
D) Increased blood pressure
Q3) Use the low-dose range of 0.5-2 mcg/kg/min to determine the appropriate dose range of dopamine that would result in vasodilation and increased renal blood flow for a patient who weighs 132 pounds.
A) 0.3-6.2 mg/hr
B) 1-4.5 mg/hr
C) 1.8-7.2 mg/hr
D) None of these are correct.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Drugs Affecting the Parasympathetic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify a direct-acting cholinergic drug that is used systemically.
A) Pilocarpine
B) Demecarium
C) Bethanechol
D) Edrophonium
Q2) Dr.Patrick diagnoses 65-year-old Alex with glaucoma.He advises Alex to start using eyedrops containing a certain type of drug that will stimulate Alex's pupils to constrict,thereby facilitating the better drainage of intraocular fluid from Alex's eyes.Which of the following types of drugs has Patrick most likely advised Alex to take?
A) A reversible anticholinesterase drug
B) A direct-acting drug
C) An adrenergic drug
D) An anticholinergic drug
Q3) Which of the following medications is preferred for treating all the stages of Alzheimer's disease?
A) Galantamine
B) Donepezil
C) Rivastigmine
D) Tacrine
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Drugs Affecting the Autonomic Ganglia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Selection of ganglionic blockers for the treatment of severe hypertension in males can lead to _____.
A) increased urination
B) increased intestinal secretions
C) impotence
D) hostility
Q2) Nicotine gum (Nicorette)has been classified as _____ by the FDA.
A) Pregnancy Category A
B) Pregnancy Category B
C) Pregnancy Category C
D) Pregnancy Category D
Q3) Identify the neurotransmitter found at the autonomic ganglia that stimulates the nicotinic-neural (Nn)receptors.
A) Serotonin
B) Epinephrine
C) Acetylcholine
D) Dopamine
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Chapter 9: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Austin has accidently taken an overdose of atracurium,a drug belonging to the class of nondepolarizing blockers.He slips into a state of respiratory paralysis and struggles to control his breathing.On arriving at the hospital,the doctors give Austin a dose of a certain drug in an attempt to reverse his condition.Based on the information provided in this scenario,which of the following drugs have the doctors given Austin?
A) Atropine
B) Oxybutynin
C) Neostigmine
D) Scopolamine
Q2) Neuromuscular blockers inhibit skeletal muscle contraction by interfering with the _____.
A) nicotinic-muscle receptors
B) nicotinic-neural receptors
C) muscarinic receptors
D) ganglionic receptors
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Chapter 10: Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The topical anesthetic procaine has been shown to inhibit the action of sulfonamide antibiotics.Why does this inhibition of action occur?
A) Procaine is metabolized to p-aminobenzoic acid, which competes with the sulfonamides for the bacterial site of action.
B) Procaine is metabolized to p-aminobenzoic acid, which has an additive effect with the sulfonamides on the bacterial site of action.
C) Procaine is metabolized to p-aminobenzoic acid, which increases the patient's sensitivity to sulfonamides.
D) None of the above are true.
Q2) What is the mechanism of action of local anesthetics on the pain response?
A) Local anesthetics stimulate sensory nerves at low doses that increase the response of the motor nerves.
B) Local anesthetics block sensory nerves at low doses that do not inhibit motor nerve function.
C) Local anesthetics interact with nerve membranes to increase nerve conduction.
D) None of the above are correct.
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Chapter 11: Introduction to the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two main components of the central nervous system are:
A) the brain and the spinal cord.
B) the brain and the spinal nerves.
C) the cranial nerves and the spinal cord.
D) the cranial nerves and the spinal nerves.
Q2) Esma suffered a serious head injury in a car crash about three months ago.Since the accident,Esma has had trouble learning and remembering new things and problems with hearing.Which of the following parts of her cerebrum has most likely suffered damage?
A) The parietal lobe
B) The temporal lobe
C) The frontal lobe
D) The occipital lobe
Q3) The _____ is a collection of nerve axons that travel to and from the brain.
A) cerebellum
B) spinal cord
C) amygdala
D) medulla oblongata
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13
Chapter 12: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs and Alcohol
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Sample Questions
Q1) Steve has a sleep disorder and is prescribed pentobarbital for two weeks.After the first week,Steve notices that the medication has a diluted effect,and he is unable to feel the same hypnotic effects of the drug as he did during the first week.This effect is termed
A) drug addiction
B) REM rebound
C) drug tolerance
D) automatism
Q2) Select the stage of the sleep cycle that corresponds with the ability to dream.
A) NREM stage 1
B) REM
C) NREM stage 2
D) None of the above
Q3) Identify the FDA pregnancy category of barbiturates.
A) Pregnancy Category B
B) Pregnancy Category C
C) Pregnancy Category D
D) Pregnancy Category X
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14
Chapter 13: Antipsychotic and Antianxiety Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify an accurate statement about thiothixene.
A) The chemical structure of thiothixene shares no similarities with the chemical structures of the phenothiazines.
B) Thiothixene exerts its antipsychotic effects by blocking 5HT<sub>2A</sub> receptors more than D<sub>2</sub> receptors.
C) Thiothixene is associated with very low incidences of extrapyramidal symptoms.
D) Thiothixene generally causes less sedation than chlorpromazine.
Q2) How does anxiety affect the human body?
A) It enhances the activity of the parasympathetic nervous system.
B) It deactivates the reticular activating system.
C) It triggers the hyperarousal of the cerebral cortex.
D) It decreases the activity of the limbic system.
Q3) Which of the following is an important inhibitory neurotransmitter that keeps emotion and behavior under control?
A) Dopamine
B) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C) Norepinephrine
D) Serotonin
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Chapter 14: Antidepressants,psychomotor Stimulants,and
Lithium
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the correct daily dosage range of duloxetine (Cymbalta).
A) 40-120 mg PO
B) 300-600 mg PO
C) 50-200 mg PO
D) 225-375 mg PO
Q2) One of your patients is undergoing MAO inhibitor therapy.You have been asked to explain to the patient the dietary restrictions concerning tyramine.The patient does not know what foods should be avoided.You list the foods to avoid as:
A) coffee, chocolate, and cookies.
B) beer, wine, herring, and certain cheeses.
C) skim milk, cottage cheese, and fresh apples.
D) oatmeal, cornflakes, and noodles.
Q3) Tricyclics interfere with antihistamine and anticholinergic drug agents resulting in
A) increased sedation
B) dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, and blurred vision
C) increased metabolism of the tricyclics, leading to decreased effectiveness
D) increased CNS stimulation, hyperpyrexia, and seizures
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Chapter 15: Psychotomimetic Drugs of Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jack,a drug addict,is rushed to the hospital when he starts convulsing after taking a large dose of amphetamines.At the hospital,Dr.Ross starts making preparations to provide Jack with symptomatic therapy.Which of the following drugs will Dr.Ross most likely use to bring Jack's seizures under control?
A) Diazepam
B) Bethanechol
C) Neostigmine
D) Cirazoline
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the procedures used in the treatment of amphetamine intoxication?
A) Administering an anticholinergic
B) Acidifying the urine
C) Administering adrenergic blockers and vasodilators
D) Administering diazepam
Q3) Identify the most potent hallucinogenic drug from the following.
A) Mescaline
B) Lysergic acid diethylamide
C) Psilocybin
D) Dextroamphetamine
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Antiepileptic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Despite the risks of developing serious adverse effects,a drug that is used to treat partial seizures in patients who do not respond to other drugs is _____.
A) gabapentin (Neurontin)
B) topiramate (Topamax)
C) felbamate (Felbatol)
D) valproic acid (Depakene)
Q2) Which of the following is an adverse effect of valproic acid?
A) Bone marrow depression
B) Aplastic anemia
C) Sedation
D) Fatal liver toxicity
Q3) Identify the drug that is effective in treating a patient with absence seizures.
A) Clonazepam (Klonopin)
B) Phenobarbital (Luminal)
C) Topiramate (Topamax)
D) Diazepam (Valium)
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18
Chapter 17: Antiparkinson Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) For best results,levodopa should be administered on an empty stomach:
A) to maximize drug receptor binding.
B) to minimize plasma protein binding interferences.
C) to enhance the absorption of levodopa in the small intestine.
D) to prevent amino acids in foodstuffs from interfering with the transport of levodopa across the blood-brain barrier.
Q2) Alex is suffering from Parkinson's disease and is undergoing drug therapy.In spite of taking his medications regularly,Alex has started experiencing alternating periods of mobility and immobility.When he informs his doctor of these episodes,his doctor tells him that he's experiencing a phenomenon that is known as the "on-off phenomenon." What will Alex's doctor instruct him to do?
A) He will tell Alex to take his drug doses around meal times.
B) He will tell Alex to take smaller doses of the drug at more frequent intervals.
C) He will tell Alex to take protein supplements along with the medication.
D) He will increase Alex's dosage.
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19
Chapter 18: General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about volatile liquid anesthetics is false?
A) Most volatile liquid anesthetics stimulate mucus secretion.
B) Volatile liquid anesthetics must be administered intravenously.
C) Volatile liquid anesthetics relax bronchiolar smooth muscles.
D) Most volatile liquid anesthetics irritate the respiratory lining.
Q2) Which of the following instructions should be given to a patient after administering anesthesia?
A) Don't rely on memory for spoken instructions; follow written instructions.
B) Don't leave the health care facility unless accompanied by a responsible adult.
C) Don't operate complex equipment for at least 24 hours.
D) All of these are correct
Q3) The use of droperidol as a tranquilizer sedative has declined due to its association with _____.
A) cardiac arrhythmia
B) liver cirrhosis
C) bronchospasms
D) renal failure
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Chapter 19: Opioid Narcoticanalgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is the prototype or standard opioid analgesic.
A) Codeine
B) Morphine
C) Hydrocodone
D) Loperamide
Q2) Identify an accurate statement about opioid analgesics.
A) Opioid analgesics impair the function of peripheral nerves.
B) Opioid analgesics selectively act within the central nervous system (CNS) to reduce the reaction to pain.
C) Opioid analgesics trigger the release of neurotransmitters such as Substance P.
D) Opioid analgesics that are of significant therapeutic importance are known to interact with delta receptors.
Q3) A common sign of opioid toxicity is _____.
A) mydriasis
B) pinpoint pupils
C) dry eyes
D) red eyes
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Chapter 20: Nonnarcotic Analgesics
Anti-Inflammatory,and Antigout Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select a correct statement about the uricosuric drug probenecid.
A) The correct adult dose of probenecid is 100-200 mg BID.
B) Probenecid increases renal excretion, thereby decreasing plasma concentrations of hypoglycemic agents.
C) Probenecid causes GI disturbances, so it is recommended that it be taken with milk, meals, or antacids.
D) None of the above are correct.
Q2) Identify the correct dose of acetaminophen for a 5-year-old boy weighing 45 pounds.
A) 240 mg every 4 to 6 hours
B) 160 mg every 4 to 6 hours
C) 320 mg every 4 to 6 hours
D) 650 mg every 4 to 6 hours
Q3) Which of the following is a clinical indication for the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?
A) Relief of mild to moderate pain where opioids are not indicated or warranted
B) Chronic treatment of dysmenorrhea
C) Control of the signs and symptoms of osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis
D) All of the above
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Cardiac Glycosides and the Treatment of
Congestive Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The P wave of an electrocardiogram (ECG)represents the:
A) depolarization of the atria.
B) repolarization of the atria.
C) depolarization of the ventricles.
D) repolarization of the ventricles.
Q2) The excitation and contraction of the heart begins with the:
A) contraction of the right side of the heart followed by the contraction of the left side.
B) contraction of the left side of the heart followed by the contraction of the right side.
C) contraction of both ventricles followed by the contraction of both atria.
D) contraction of both atria followed by the contraction of both ventricles.
Q3) The _____ is the muscular layer of the heart.
A) myocardium
B) epicardium
C) endocardium
D) pericardium
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Chapter 22: Antiarrhythmic Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following adverse effects is generally associated with venodilators but not with arterial dilators?
A) Nausea
B) Postural hypotension
C) Headache
D) Vasomotor flushing
Q2) Which of the following is the site at which aldosterone antagonists act?
A) The loop of Henle
B) The distal tubules of the kidney nephrons
C) The walls of the heart chambers
D) The collecting ducts of the nephrons
Q3) Which of the following is true of digoxin?
A) Digoxin is bound significantly to plasma proteins.
B) Food delays the absorption of digoxin.
C) Food interferes with the extent of absorption of digoxin.
D) Digoxin should only be administered intravenously.
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Chapter 23: Antianginal Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a Class 2 antiarrhythmic drug?
A) Sotalol
B) Esmolol
C) Amiodarone
D) Verapamil
Q2) Antiarrhythmic drugs primarily affect the activity of all of the following ions except:
A) chlorine ions.
B) sodium ions.
C) potassium ions.
D) calcium ions.
Q3) Which of the following ions plays a major role in bringing about myocardial contraction during Phase 2 of the cardiac action potential?
A) Sodium ions
B) Calcium ions
C) Magnesium ions
D) Chloride ions
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Diuretics
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Q1) Which of the following explains the inability of the nitrates to act as coronary dilators during angina?
A) Arteriolar dilation is greater than venodilation is at low-dose ranges.
B) Nitrates do not act on vascular smooth muscle.
C) The most common route of administration is sublingual.
D) The arteries are already maximally dilated by ischemia.
Q2) Select the preferred drug class for the treatment of variant or Prinzmetal angina.
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Beta-adrenergic blockers
C) Alpha blockers
D) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
Q3) Identify the most common route of administration of nitrates during attacks of angina.
A) Topical
B) Intravenous
C) Sublingual
D) Oral
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Chapter 25: Antihypertensive Drugs
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Q1) _____ is formed in the tubular cells in the presence of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase (CAH).
A) Hydrogen peroxide
B) Carbon tetrachloride
C) Hydrochloric acid
D) Carbonic acid
Q2) Dr.Lee is treating a patient who suffers from an edema.She decides to use acetazolamide to help the patient.Which of the following is most likely to be a side effect of using acetazolamide?
A) Hyponatremia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hyperchloremia
D) Hypouricemia
Q3) _____ is used in the short-term management of ascites due to malignancy and lymphedema.
A) Chlorothiazide
B) Ethacrynic acid
C) Isosorbide
D) Triamterene
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Chapter 26: Anticoagulants and Coagulants
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of the vasodilator drug diazoxide?
A) Structurally, diazoxide is similar to the thiazide diuretics.
B) Diazoxide is a very potent vasodilator and has significant diuretic activity.
C) Its hypotensive effects last for 1 to 2 hours.
D) Diazoxide is used when the BP needs to be lowered gradually.
Q2) Mark suffers from mild hypertension.Which of the following is best suited to treat his condition?
A) Diuretics
B) Diazoxide
C) Sodium Nitroprusside
D) Vasodilators
Q3) Which of the following is a difference between ACEIs and ARBs?
A) Unlike the ACEIs, the ARBs increase bradykinin concentrations.
B) . Unlike the ACEIs, the ARBs bind to the AT1 receptor and competitively antagonize the actions of angiotensin II.
C) Unlike the ACEIs, the ARBs are contraindicated during pregnancy.
D) Unlike the ACEIs, the ARBs block the enzymatic conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
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28
Chapter 27: Nutrition and Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) An advantage of the LMW heparins over standard heparin is that:
A) their bioavailability is almost complete following subcutaneous administration.
B) they are less effective at binding active factor X.
C) they seldom interfere with the coagulation cascade but can produce the same spectrum of interference as standard heparin.
D) they can be administered orally.
Q2) A patient with a tendency to form blood clots is in the recovery room after having hip replacement surgery.Which anticoagulant would best serve the patient's needs?
A) Warfarin
B) Aspirin
C) Heparin
D) Streptokinase
Q3) Toxicity from oral anticoagulants and other medications can often occur because of:
A) enhanced metabolism in the liver.
B) increase in synthesis of several vitamin K dependent clotting factors.
C) enhanced plasma protein binding by the oral anticoagulant.
D) plasma protein binding displacement.
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Chapter 28: Hypolipidemic Drugs
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Q1) The symptoms of vitamin C deficiency include:
A) bleeding gums, bruising, and loose teeth.
B) insomnia, delusions, and confusion.
C) hemorrhage and decreased coagulation.
D) fatigue, muscle weakness, and leg cramps.
Q2) Which of the following is true of typical water intake and output in a state of water balance?
A) Most of the water in the body is excreted through feces.
B) About 1600 ml of water is obtained by drinking fluids.
C) The normal daily intake of fluids by an average-size adult is approximately 500 ml.
D) The normal daily output of fluids is not the same as fluid intake.
Q3) Who among the following is least likely to be prescribed oral and parenteral supplements?
A) Ava, a pregnant 32-year-old woman
B) Alex, a 16-year-old high school student
C) Derek, a national-level swimming champion
D) Sam, an elderly cancer patient
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Chapter 29: Antianemic
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Q1) Why should statin medications be taken during the evening?
A) Statin medications cause drowsiness.
B) Cholesterol is absorbed at night.
C) Statin medications are absorbed very slowly.
D) Cholesterol is endogenously produced at night.
Q2) A nurse is explaining the benefits and adverse effect associated with the use of cholestyramine to a patient.Which of the following is the nurse likely to identify as the most serious adverse effect of cholestyramine?
A) Nausea
B) Constipation
C) Intestinal obstruction
D) Flatulence
Q3) Plaque refers to a substance that accumulates in the innermost layer of the arteries and consists of _____.
A) cholesterol and calcium
B) potassium and sodium
C) fatty acids and protein
D) fatty acids and water
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Chapter 30: Antiallergic and Antihistaminic Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following is true of how is anemia caused?
A) Anemia may be caused by a deficiency in the amount of hemoglobin that occurs when the number of circulating red blood cells decreases.
B) Anemia may be caused by excessive blood loss or by an increase in the destruction of red blood cells (RBCs).
C) Anemia may be caused by a decrease in the production of RBCs, which reduces the amount of circulating hemoglobin.
D) All of these statements are correct.
Q2) Which of the following procedures is a treatment method for acute iron toxicity?
A) Flushing the stomach with 5 to 10 grams of deferoxamine mesylate
B) Taking 200 mg of vitamin C orally within 10 minutes of the toxic dose
C) Eating a meal to help bind the iron and prevent it from being absorbed into the bloodstream
D) None of the above
Q3) _____ has the longest half-life of all erythropoietin stimulating agents (ESAs).
A) Aranesp
B) Epogen
C) MIRCERA
D) Procrit
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Bronchodilator Drugs and the Treatment of Asthma
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Q1) The use of antihistamines is contraindicated for _____.
A) children weighing less than 65 pounds
B) women who have children younger than 4 years of age
C) people who are allergic to tree pollen
D) dehydrated children
Q2) Which of the following antihistamine medications can be used to treat vertigo and nausea?
A) Terfenadine and cromolyn
B) Dimenhydrinate and meclizine
C) Astemizole and lodoxamide
D) Cetirizine and pemirolast
Q3) A patient presents with the following symptoms.The patient's upper eyelid has hard bumps,and the conjunctiva is swollen.There is yellow discharge from the eyes.Which of the following drugs should be used to treat this patient?
A) Nedocromil
B) Pemirolast
C) Lodoxamide
D) Cromolyn sodium
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Chapter 32: Respiratory Pharmacology, treatment of
Asthma and Copd
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Q1) Dr.Martha has prescribed pirbuterol to a patient who is having an asthmatic attack.Which of the following statements best explains her reason for choosing this drug?
A) It is considered a rescue drug.
B) The onset of action with the use of this drug is 1 hour from the time it is inhaled.
C) The duration of action for this drug is 12-14 hours.
D) It is a nonselective beta drug; therefore it is more effective.
Q2) Identify the proper method of administration of acetylcysteine (Mucosil)to decrease the possibility of irritation and bronchospasm.
A) Addition of a bronchodilator to the inhalation mixture will decrease irritation and bronchospasm.
B) Addition of a bronchoconstrictor to the inhalation mixture will decrease irritation and bronchospasm.
C) Addition of a leukotriene to the inhalation mixture will decrease irritation and bronchospasm.
D) None of these are correct.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Agents That Affect Intestinal Motility
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Q1) The mechanism of action of sucralfate has it classified as _____.
A) an antacid
B) a prostaglandin
C) an anticholinergic
D) none of the above
Q2) _____ receptors are found on parietal cells and increase secretion of HCl when activated.
A) Cholinergic
B) Prostaglandin
C) Histamine
D) Adrenergic
Q3) _____ are considered to be ulcerogenic because they inhibit the secretion of protective mucus and interfere with the normal production of the mucosal lining.
A) Steroids
B) Antacids
C) Adrenergic drugs
D) Antihistamines
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Chapter 34: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Q1) Which of the following drugs that are used to treat diarrhea needs to be absorbed into the circulation to work?
A) Ephedrine
B) Bismatrol
C) Kaopectate
D) Motofen
Q2) Select the statement that best describes the involvement of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system in the movement of feces.
A) Stimulation of the adrenergic fibers that innervate the intestines increases intestinal motility, whereas stimulation of the cholinergic fibers decreases motility.
B) Stimulation of the cholinergic fibers that innervate the intestines increases intestinal motility, whereas stimulation of the adrenergic fibers decreases motility.
C) Stimulation of either the cholinergic fibers or the adrenergic fibers that innervate the intestines increases intestinal motility.
D) Stimulation of either the cholinergic fibers or the adrenergic fibers that innervate the intestines decreases intestinal motility.
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Chapter 35: Introduction to the Endocrine System Adrenal
Steroids
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Q1) _____ is used to treat acromegaly and is clinically valuable in the management of severe diarrhea and flushing associated with metastatic carcinoid tumors.
A) Octreopeptide
B) Lanreotide
C) Somatomedin
D) Somatotropin
Q2) Which of the following hormones is not associated with one main target organ?
A) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
B) Adrenocorticotropic hormone
C) Luteinizing hormone
D) Growth hormone
Q3) Which of the following stimulates bone growth during childhood?
A) Oxytocin
B) Somatostatin
C) Insulin-like growth factor 1
D) Insulin-like growth factor 2
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Chapter 36: Gonadal Hormones and the Oral Contraceptives
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true about glucocorticoids?
A) Both native and synthetic glucocorticoids are metabolized by the liver and excreted in the urine.
B) The most common urinary metabolites of cortisol are the 17-hydroxycorticosteroids (17-OHCS).
C) The metabolites of cortisol can be measured from 24-hour urine collections and are used to provide an estimate of glucocorticoid secretion from the adrenal cortex.
D) All of these statements are correct.
Q2) The process of gluconeogenesis primarily occurs in _____.
A) the cortex of the kidneys
B) the liver
C) skeletal muscles
D) bone marrow
Q3) Which of the following symptoms is associated with the excessive use of aldosterone?
A) Hypotension
B) Hypertension
C) Low blood pressure
D) None of these
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Chapter 37: Drugs Affecting the Thyroid and Parathyroid Glands and
Bone Degeneration
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Q1) Which of the following is an adverse effect caused by the chronic use of testosterone in adult males?
A) Reduced sperm count
B) Hirsutism
C) Acne
D) Stunting of bone growth
Q2) Which of the following is not a risk associated with long-term HRT in women?
A) Heart attack
B) Osteoporosis
C) Stroke
D) Breast cancer
Q3) Which of the following drugs is used for the induction of spermatogenesis in men?
A) Clomiphene
B) Follitropin
C) Chorionic gonadotropin recombinant DNA
D) Human chorionic gonadotropin hCG
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Chapter 38: Pancreatic Hormones and Antidiabetic Drugs
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Q1) David is suffering from hypothyroidism.He has been using liotrix to treat his condition for many months now.When he accidently consumes a very large amount of the medication,he begins to experience reactions to the drug and is rushed to the doctor.Which of the following adverse reactions is he most likely to experience?
A) Constipation
B) Decreased heart rate
C) Increased blood pressure
D) Decreased blood pressure
Q2) Select a true statement about the calcium balance mechanism in the body.
A) Osteoclasts secrete enzymes that break down bone and release calcium ions.
B) Osteoblasts secrete a protein matrix that facilitates the deposition of calcium ions.
C) Osteoblasts and osteoclasts balance plasma calcium concentration through bone remodeling.
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 39: Posterior Pituitary Hormones and Drugs
Affecting
Uterine Muscle
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Q1) Hannah has type 1 diabetes.She is injected with insulin glargine (Lantus),which is administered at bedtime and released from the injection site at a consistent rate.Which of the following statements would be true of this scenario?
A) It can be substituted for short-acting insulin preparations.
B) It can be diluted or mixed with any other insulin preparation.
C) Her blood glucose levels will rise and fall in response to changing insulin levels.
D) She will have controlled insulin release during the next day.
Q2) Identify the statement that is true about diabetes.
A) Therapy of type 2 diabetics does not include insulin.
B) Type 2 diabetics secrete unlimited amounts of insulin from the pancreas.
C) Patients' diets are adjusted to limit the intake of carbohydrates in both forms of diabetes.
D) Maintenance therapy of diabetes is directed at regulating the blood glucose level through drug administration only.
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Chapter 40: Antibacterial Agents
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Q1) Control of water output is primarily through _____.
A) sweat production
B) urine production
C) cutaneous transpiration
D) expiration of air
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of diabetes insipidus (DI)?
A) Central DI is caused by a resistance to ADH in the kidney.
B) Nephrogenic DI is caused by a decreased secretion of ADH.
C) Treatment of hypothalamic DI mainly involves replacement therapy with endogenic vasopressin.
D) Diabetes insipidus is not related to the other hormone deficiency condition, diabetes mellitus.
Q3) What do the adverse effects of methylergonovine (Methergine)include?
A) Vasodilation, which can produce varying degrees of hypotension
B) Nausea, vomiting, and constriction of blood vessels, which can produce varying degrees of hypertension
C) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
D) None of these
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Chapter 41: End of Chapter Questions
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Q1) Which of the following are the two dyes that the gram stain contains?
A) Crystal violet and safranin
B) Crystal violet and methylene blue
C) Methylene blue and safranin
D) Iodine and methylene blue
Q2) Which of the following first-line drugs used to treat tuberculosis must be given by injection?
A)Ethambutol
B)Isoniazid
C)Rifampin
D)Streptomycin
Q3) Which of the following is an ideal candidate for chemoprophylaxis?
A) An individual who has had a heart valve surgery and has to undergo a dental procedure
B) A patient scheduled to have hip replacement surgery
C) An individual not responding to her current antibiotic treatment
D) A patient with uncontrollable diarrhea
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43
Chapter 42: Antifungal and Antiviral Aidsdrugs
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Q1) Maya has been taking itraconazole as part of her treatment regimen.Maya should notify her physician immediately for further evaluation and discontinuation of antifungal therapy if she:
A) accidentally takes a tetracycline 2 hours after the itraconazole dose.
B) takes the itraconazole dose with a meal.
C) performs tasks requiring manual dexterity successfully.
D) becomes pregnant during the treatment period.
Q2) Select the true statement about the properties of fluconazole (Diflucan)that makes it a good choice in the treatment of cryptococcal and coccidioidal meningitis.
A) It has high penetration into the cerebrospinal fluid.
B) It can be taken for 3 to 4 months to ensure penetration of the CSF because it has very few adverse effects.
C) It is a water-soluble drug absorbed almost completely after an oral dose but has no effect on the central nervous system.
D) All of these are correct.
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44
Chapter 43: Antiprotozoal and Anthelmintic Drugs
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Q1) Entamoeba histolytica is more dangerous than Giardia lamblia at producing dysentery because:
A) Entamoeba can invade the liver.
B) Entamoeba can cross the blood-brain barrier.
C) Entamoeba causes tenesmus.
D) Entamoeba can become resistant to treatment.
Q2) Tracy has been diagnosed with malaria and has been prescribed a quinoline for her treatment.Which of the following is true of her case?
A) Tracy's drug dosing intervals should be evenly spaced.
B) Tracy may stop using the drug when the symptoms start to disappear.
C) Tracy should stop using the drug only when all the symptoms have disappeared.
D) Tracy should take the drug only on an empty stomach.
Q3) Is a radical cure for malaria necessary for someone who is asymptomatic?
A) No, prophylactic treatment would suffice.
B) No, malaria is never asymptomatic.
C) Yes, the patient could still have the parasite in the liver.
D) Yes, the patient could still have the parasite in the lungs.
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45
Chapter 44: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Q1) Raheem is working as a medical assistant.He is required to sterilize prepackaged laboratory equipment.Which of the following chemicals should Raheem use?
A) Povidone-iodine
B) Sodium hypochlorite
C) Ethyl alcohol
D) Ethylene oxide
Q2) Prolonged or frequent use of silver solutions will produce _____.
A) argyria
B) aphthous ulcers
C) decubitis ulcers
D) eschar
Q3) _____ is defined as a permanent black discoloration of skin and mucous membranes caused by prolonged use of silver protein solutions.
A) Eschar
B) Lyse
C) Argyria
D) Botulism
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Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Agents
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Q1) Which of the following approaches is commonly used to treat cancer?
A) Surgery
B) Radiation
C) Chemotherapy
D) All of these
Q2) _____ is classified as an antibiotic but is too toxic to treat bacterial infections.
A) Dactinomycin
B) Irinotecan
C) Paclitaxel
D) Vincristine
Q3) The different forms of cancer can be classified into:
A) solid tumors and diffuse tumors.
B) solid tumors and vesicular tumors.
C) vesicular tumors and diffuse tumors.
D) lymphatic tumors and diffuse tumors.
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Chapter 46: Immunopharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following diseases is an immune-based disease that is treated by suppressing the immune response?
A) Multiple sclerosis
B) Myasthenia gravis
C) Systemic lupus erythematosus
D) All of these
Q2) Select the true statement related to the alkylating drug cyclosporine (Sandimmune).
A) Cyclosporine is a cytotoxic drug agent produced by a fungus.
B) Cyclosporine stimulates the production of B-cells.
C) Cyclosporine inhibits the production of interleukin-2.
D) Cyclosporine is a polypeptide metabolite produced by an algae.
Q3) _____ is an immunomodulating agent that is used to treat melanoma.
A) Neupogen
B) Roferon-A
C) Actimmune
D) Intron A
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