Pharmacology for Health Sciences Exam Solutions - 2155 Verified Questions

Page 1


Pharmacology for Health Sciences

Exam Solutions

Course Introduction

Pharmacology for Health Sciences provides an essential overview of the principles of drug action and how medications affect the human body. This course explores the mechanisms by which drugs produce therapeutic and adverse effects, covers major drug classes, and examines how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted. Emphasis is placed on safe medication administration, understanding drug interactions, and the role of pharmacology in disease management. Designed for students pursuing careers in healthcare, this course builds a foundational knowledge base for integrating pharmacological concepts into clinical practice and patient care.

Recommended Textbook

Understanding Pharmacology for Health Professionals 5th Edition by Susan M. Turley

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25 Chapters

2155 Verified Questions

2155 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pharmacology and the History of Drugs

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124 Verified Questions

124 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Egyptians applied moldy bread to abrasions,a practice that we now know actually had some therapeutic basis.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Drugs have three medical uses.Which of the following is NOT one of those uses?

A) Drugs can provide evidence that a disease is present.

B) Drugs can treat symptoms, signs, and diseases

C) Drugs can prevent disease

D) Drugs can cause symptoms, signs, and diseases

Answer: D

Q3) The isolation of potassium from water in 1806 by a German pharmacist marked the beginning of modern drug treatment using chemically pure ingredients.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q4) The administration of a preventive drug is known as ________,from a Greek word meaning to keep guard before.

Answer: prophylaxis

Page 3

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Chapter 2: Drug Design, Testing, Manufacturing, and Marketing

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93 Verified Questions

93 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) It is not uncommon for a patient who is given a therapeutic dose of digoxin (Lanoxin)to exhibit symptoms of toxicity.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) All of these trade names reflect the disease that the drugs are used to treat,EXCEPT

A) Sudafed

B) Pepcid

C) Azmacort

D) Rythmol

Answer: A

Q3) Once a drug has received its final approval from the FDA,its ingredients,doses,manufacturing process,labeling,and packaging cannot be changed.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q4) There are three phases of human testing,which together are known as ________.

Answer: clinical drug trials

Page 4

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Chapter 3: Drug Forms

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75 Verified Questions

75 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Suppositories are used to treat patients with ________.

A) diarrhea

B) eye infections

C) heart disease

D) vomiting

Answer: D

Q2) Solutions never need to be ________ because the drug concentration is the same in every part of the solution,even after prolonged standing.

A) refrigerated

B) injected

C) mixed

D) prescribed

Answer: C

Q3) The drug form pastille is also known as a troche.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q4) In written prescriptions,the word capsule is sometimes abbreviated as ________ or ________.

Answer: cap,caps

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Chapter 4: Routes of Administration and the Drug Cycle

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104 Verified Questions

104 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Many drugs are administered via the buccal route.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Pregnant women are advised to only take drugs that are prescribed by their healthcare provider.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Each year,many infants are born addicted to drugs that their mothers took,or they are born with birth defects due to the action of drugs taken by their mothers.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Patients with kidney disease and elderly patients with a decreased level of kidney function due to aging are prescribed ________.

A) lower doses of drugs

B) higher doses of drugs

C) the same dose of drugs

D) different routes of administration

Q5) List three disadvantages associated with the oral route of drug administration.

Q6) Briefly explain the difference between water-soluble and fat-soluble drugs.

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Chapter 5: Using Drugs Therapeutically

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Sample Questions

Q1) Chronotherapy tries to coordinate giving a drug with the patient's own biological rhythms.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Drugs taken orally usually exert a local effect.

A)True

B)False

Q3) All drugs have a target organ where they exert their effect.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Toxic effects are more common in elderly patients whose ________ are less able to metabolize and excrete a drug.

A) lungs and stomach

B) liver and kidneys

C) stomach and intestines

D) brain and central nervous system

Q5) One drug can act as a master key to unlock several different receptors in different organs.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: The Prescription

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110 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) What type of order does not originate with the physician,but with the hospital pharmacy?

A) automatic stop orders

B) medication orders

C) standing orders

D) verbal orders

Q2) Which of the following is NOT used when writing a drug name on a prescription?

A) abbreviation

B) chemical name

C) generic name

D) trade name

Q3) In the past,prescriptions were actually recipes listing several ingredients to be crushed and mixed by the pharmacist before dispensing.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Nonprescription (over-the-counter)drugs ________

A) do not require a prescription and can be purchased by any adult

B) do not require a prescription and can be purchased by anyone

C) require a prescription and can be purchased by any adult

D) require a prescription and can be purchased by anyone

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Urinary Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) The drugs ethacrynic acid (Edecrin)and furosemide (Lasix)are examples of which category of diuretic drugs?

A) carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretic drugs

B) loop diuretic drugs

C) potassium chloride drugs

D) potassium-sparing diuretic drugs

Q2) Madeline,age 60,has difficulty with overactive bladder,urinary urgency,and occasional urinary incontinence.Which drug did her physician prescribe for her?

A) Sanctura

B) Urogesic

C) Micro-K

D) Viagra

Q3) Potassium-sparing diuretic drugs act to "spare" potassium by keeping it in the blood and not letting it enter the tubules.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Pyridium is prescribed to treat the pain of urinary tract infections.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Gastrointestinal Drugs

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102 Verified Questions

102 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The AR in the trade name Axid AR stands for anti-reflux.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In 1977,the first H blocker drug was created.Its trade name,________ was formed from a combination of syllables from the words antagonist and cimetidine.

Q3) Appetite suppressant drugs are also known as ________ drugs.

A) proton pump inhibitor

B) absorbent

C) antacid

D) anorexiant

Q4) The HB in the drug Tagamet HB stands for ________.

Q5) Janie Wallace is taking an appetite suppressant drug.She should be aware of which of these statements?

A) Appetite suppressant drugs should be used in conjunction with dietary restrictions.

B) Appetite suppressant drugs should be taken only on a short-term basis.

C) Patients may develop drug dependence and experience withdrawal symptoms if the drugs are discontinued abruptly.

D) all of the above

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Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Drugs

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90 Verified Questions

90 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which joints are the first to exhibit signs of osteoarthritis with pain,inflammation,and swelling.

A) hips and knees

B) Lower back

C) Fingers and toes

D) all of the above

Q2) Indomethacin (Indocin),a drug used to treat osteoarthritis,is also given intravenously to newborn infants to close a persistent patent ductus arteriosus heart defect,an abnormality in the fetal circulation.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Only ________ drugs can reverse the cartilage and bone damage that has already occurred in the joints of patients with osteoarthritis.

A) corticosteroid drugs

B) COX-2 inhibitor drugs and NSAIDs

C) monoclonal antibody drugs

D) There are no drugs that can reverse the cartilage and bone damage of osteoarthritis once it has occurred.

Q4) The endings -lone and -sone are common to generic ________ drugs.

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Chapter 10: Respiratory Drugs

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76 Verified Questions

76 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Tuberculosis is caused by ________.

A) a gram-positive bacterium

B) a bacterium with a waxy coating around its bacterial wall

C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

D) all of the above

Q2) Mast cell stabilizer drugs can be inhaled,sprayed in the nose,or given by injection.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The common ending at the end of generic monoclonal antibody drugs is -________.

Q4) Tuberculosis is ________.

A) spread by airborne droplets expelled by coughing

B) caused by a gram-negative bacterium

C) spread by contact with an infected patient's blood

D) treated with regular antibiotic drugs

Q5) Reversible obstructive airway disease is also known by the more common disease name of ________.

Q6) The ending -terol is common to nicotine antagonist drugs.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Cardiovascular Drugs

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91 Verified Questions

91 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following trade name drugs are used to treat an elevated level of cholesterol,EXCEPT ________.

A) Lipitor

B) Lopid

C) Lanoxin

D) Crestor

Q2) The well-known generic beta-blocker drug propranolol is related to the trade name drug ________.

Q3) Describe the three ways that a patient is treated who has symptoms of digitalis toxicity.

Q4) The peripheral vasodilator drug minoxidil is used to treat hypertension,but it is also used topically under the trade name Rogaine to treat ________.

Q5) Describe the difference between lisinopril (Zestril)and Zestoretic.

Q6) Oatmeal in the diet is an effective way to reduce the cholesterol level of the blood.

A)True

B)False

Q7) The phrase stepped-care approach is related to the treatment of ________.

Q8) Beta receptors located in the ________ are designated as beta receptors.

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Hematologic Drugs

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67 Verified Questions

67 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Heparin is always measured in ________.

A) grains

B) milligrams

C) milliliters

D) units

Q2) Some platelet aggregation inhibitor drugs block a receptor (glycoprotein IIb/IIIA)on platelets,and this prevents fibrinogen (clotting factor I)from binding to ________.

A) heparin

B) plasminogen (clotting factor II)

C) its receptor

D) vitamin K

Q3) Anticoagulant drugs are given during hemodialysis for patients with chronic kidney failure.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The ending -rudin is common to generic ________ inhibitor drugs.

Q5) The chemical symbol for iron is ________.

Q6) Anemia is a decrease in the number of ________ blood cells (erythrocytes).

Q7) The abbreviation tPA stands for ________.

Page 14

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Chapter 13: Gynecologic and Obstetric Drugs

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90 Verified Questions

90 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Simone and Raymond Jones have been trying to start a family for two years without success.The doctor has suggested that Simone might benefit from a drug to stimulate ovulation.This drug could be any of the following,EXCEPT ________.

A) urofollitropin (Bravelle)

B) clomiphene (Clomid)

C) clotrimazole (Gyne-Lotrimin, Mycelex)

D) human chorionic gonadotropin (Pregnyl, Profasi)

Q2) The first FDA-approved prescription drug for treating the hot flashes of menopause that was not a hormone drug was paroxetine (________).

Q3) Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases are treated with antibiotic drugs?

A) HIV and AIDS

B) genital herpes

C) candidiasis

D) gonorrhea and syphilis

Q4) In a 28-day pack of an oral contraceptive drug,the tablets for the last 7 days are ________ tablets containing no hormone drug.

Q5) Why do some women prefer using a 28-day pill pack OCP?

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Chapter 14: Endocrine Drugs

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95 Verified Questions

95 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) GLP-1 and GIP are hormones that are released into the blood by the small intestine after food is eaten.They stimulate the pancreas to make more insulin.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Beef,beef/pork,and pork insulin drugs are available in the United States.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Drugs used to treat diabetes insipidus act as replacement therapy for ________.

A) thyroid hormone

B) corticosteroids

C) growth hormone

D) antidiuretic hormone

Q4) The well-known antidiabetic drug exenatide (trade name ________)is a synthetic version of a hormone found in the saliva of the poisonous Gila monster,a lizard that lives in the southwestern United States and in Mexico.

Q5) The preferred treatment for Cushing's syndrome is surgery to remove the tumor,not prescribing drugs.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 15: Neurologic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following are over-the-counter trade name drugs used to treat insomnia.

A) Unisom and Sominex

B) Compoz and Nytol

C) Sominex and Advil PM

D) all of the above

Q2) Sulfonamide drugs are used to treat bacterial infections,although the sulfonamide drug Zonegran is only used as an anticonvulsant drug to treat epilepsy.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE about levodopa?

A) It can be given in very small oral doses to be effective.

B) It is the metabolic precursor of acetylcholine.

C) It cannot cross the blood-brain barrier.

D) All of these statements are false.

Q4) How does the drug memantine (Namenda)work to treat Alzheimer's disease.

A) It blocks NMDA receptors that are overstimulated by the amino acid glutamate.

B) It stimulates dopamine receptors.

C) It is an antihistamine drug that has a hypnotic/sedative effect.

D) all of the above

Page 17

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Chapter 16: Psychiatric Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Drugs used to treat psychosis and schizophrenia are known as ________ drugs.

Q2) Which one of the following drugs is NOT used to treat ADHD?

A) Strattera

B) Daytrana

C) Prozac

D) Concerta

Q3) Describe what methadone is and how it must be given to addicts.

Q4) Tricyclic antidepressant drugs are so named because of the ________.

A) three cycles of metabolism that they undergo before being excreted

B) three hormones (dopamine, serotonin, and acetylcholine) that are affected by these drugs

C) triple action of these drugs in the limbic system, motor cortex, and hypothalamus in the brain

D) triple-ring configuration of the chemical structure of the drug

Q5) Posttraumatic stress disorder is treated with any of the drugs from the ________ antidepressant drug category.

A) SSRI

B) tetracylic

C) acetylcholine

D) PMDD

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Dermatologic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe how the topical antibiotic drug bacitracin was discovered and how it was named.

Q2) Oral drugs used to treat acne rosacea include the antibiotic drug tetracycline (Sumycin).

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following generic dermatologic drugs is correctly matched to its trade name?

A) coal tar: Retin-A

B) miconazole: Xylocaine

C) fluticasone: Cutivate

D) botulinum toxin type A: Topicort

Q4) All of the following are considered to be filler drugs that are used to plump the skin and minimize wrinkles,EXCEPT ________.

A) hyaluronic acid (Juvederm, Restylane)

B) botulinum toxin type A (Botox, Dysport)

C) human collagen (CosmoDerm, CosmoPlast)

D) poly-L-lactic acid (Sculptra)

Q5) The AF in some trade name drugs,such as Lotrimin AF,stands for ________.

Page 19

Q6) The ending -conazole is common to generic ________ drugs.

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Chapter 18: Ophthalmic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ending ________ is common to generic beta-blocker drugs used to treat glaucoma.

Q2) All of the following are beta-blocker drugs used to treat glaucoma,EXCEPT

A) carteolol

B) betaxolol (Betoptic)

C) prednisolone (Omnipred, red Forte)

D) timolol (Timoptic)

Q3) The drug sulfacetamide (AK-Sulf,Sulster)is considered to be a topical antibiotic drug.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Describe how a healthcare professional administers a topical liquid eye drug to a patient.

Q5) Miotic drugs for glaucoma have the same effect as the neurotransmitter

A) aqueous humor

B) acetylcholine

C) epinephrine

D) vitreous humor

Q6) Describe the effect of miotic drugs to that of mydriatic drugs.

Page 20

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Chapter 19: Ears, Nose, and Throat Entdrugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) To treat swelling of the mucous membranes in the nose,sinuses,and throat,decongestant drugs act as vasodilators to increase blood flow to those areas.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the effects of second generation antihistamine drugs?

A) produce drowsiness

B) decrease itching and redness

C) dry up secretions

D) shrink mucous membranes

Q3) Corticosteroid drugs used intranasally to treat allergies can cause ________.

A) nosebleeds

B) yeast infections

C) sore throat

D) all of the above

Q4) If the patient has a productive cough,an antitussive drug should be prescribed.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Antitussive drugs act by suppressing the ________ center in the brain.

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Chapter 20: Analgesic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Tylenol w/ Codeine No.3 contains ________ mg of codeine.

A) 30

B) 3

C) 300

D) 3000

Q2) Beta-blocker drugs keep the blood vessels constricted and this prevents the vasodilation that begins a migraine headache.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The ending -triptan is common to ________ receptor agonist drugs used to treat migraine headaches.

Q4) All of these drugs are used to treat migraine headaches,EXCEPT ________.

A) methadone (Dolophine, Methadose)

B) topramate (Topamax)

C) rizatriptan (Maxalt)

D) Cafergot (ergotamine, caffeine)

Q5) The salicylate drug aspirin has a therapeutic effect that is not shared by any of the other salicylate drugs.That is a/an ________ effect.

Q6) ________ are the body's own natural pain relievers.

Page 22

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Chapter 21: Anti-Infective Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) In 2006,the FDA approved the drug ________,which was the first combination drug to contain three different AIDS drugs.

Q2) To which category of antibiotic drugs does ciprofloxacin (Cipro)belong?

A) penicillins

B) fluoroquinolones

C) tetracyclines

D) fusion inhibitors

Q3) All of the following are related to HIV and AIDS,EXCEPT ________.

A) CD4 receptors and helper T lymphocytes

B) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)

C) opportunistic infections

D) culture and sensitivity

Q4) On a culture and sensitivity laboratory test,a large ring of inhibition means that

A) the specimen from the patient did not contain any bacteria

B) the antibiotic drug in that disk was able to kill the bacterium

C) the laboratory technician did not swab the Petri dish correctly with the patient's specimen

D) all of the above

Q5) The ending -navir is common to ________ inhibitor drugs.

Page 23

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Chapter 22: Chemotherapy Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Chemotherapy enzyme drugs are used to treat ________.

A) breast cancer in females

B) all types of cancer

C) leukemia

D) testicular cancer in men

Q2) Describe how chemotherapy drugs are prepared in a special sterile environment.

Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the three categories of antimetabolite chemotherapy drugs?

A) folic acid blocker chemotherapy drugs

B) nitrosourea chemotherapy drugs

C) purine analog chemotherapy drugs

D) pyrimidine analog chemotherapy drugs

Q4) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)chemotherapy drugs block GnRH receptors on the anterior pituitary gland,so that the anterior pituitary gland does not secrete ________.

A) estradiol

B) luteinizing hormone

C) progesterone

D) testosterone

Q5) A neoplasm is a new growth of cells that may be ________ or malignant.

Page 24

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Chapter 23: Vaccines

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Sample Questions

Q1) Each of the following is a type of lymphocyte,EXCEPT ________.

A) monocytes

B) NK (natural killer) cells)

C) B cells

D) memory T cells

Q2) Immunoglobulin A is found in ________.

A) tears and saliva

B) antigens

C) mucous membranes of the nose, lungs, and intestines

D) A and C

Q3) Immunoglobulin A is in areas where pathogens first enter the body.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) The flu virus mutates constantly.

B) The flu vaccine is reformulated each year.

C) A pharmacist at a supermarket pharmacy can give you a flu shot.

D) The most prevalent strains of flu in Europe are used to make the U.S. flu vaccine.

Q5) Describe how an inactivated vaccine is created and how it works.

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Chapter 24: Anesthetic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe why some anesthetic drugs contain MPF but some do not.

Q2) In 1920,what technique was perfected that allowed greater control of patient ventilation and anesthetic administration during surgical procedures?

A) anesthetic reversal drugs

B) endotracheal intubation

C) inhalation route of administration

D) subcutaneous administration of local anesthesia

Q3) Neuromuscular blocker drugs used during general anesthesia are given intramuscularly to block nerve transmissions throughout the body.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Narcotic drugs are used ________.

A) preoperatively to relieve pain and provide sedation

B) to induce general anesthesia

C) in combination with other drugs to help maintain general anesthesia

D) all of the above

Q5) The abbreviation MPF stands for methylparabens ________.

Q6) The drugs pentobarbital and secobarbital (Seconal)are ________ drugs given preoperatively to produce sedation.

Page 26

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Chapter 25: Emergency Drugs, Intravenous Fluids, and Blood Products

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Sample Questions

Q1) TPN is also known as ________.

A) hyperalimentation solution

B) intravenous lipids

C) total parenteral nutrition

D) A and C

Q2) Intravenous lipids contain about 30 percent more calories per gram than intravenous dextrose.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The sodium bicarbonate that is used to treat metabolic acidosis during resuscitation is the same drug that is given orally as an antacid to neutralize excess acid in the stomach and treat an upset stomach and heartburn.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Lidocaine (Xylocaine)has no effect when given during resuscitation if the heart has already stopped.

A)True

B)False

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Q5) Ipecac syrup is classified as a/an ________ drug,because it induces vomiting.

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