Pharmacology for Health Sciences
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pharmacology for Health Sciences introduces students to the fundamental principles of pharmacology with a focus on their application in healthcare settings. The course covers the mechanisms of drug action, drug classifications, pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics, therapeutic uses, and potential adverse effects of major drug groups. Emphasizing clinical relevance, students will learn about safe medication practices, drug interactions, and how pharmacologic agents are used in the management of common health conditions. This course prepares future health professionals to understand and communicate pharmacological concepts effectively within interdisciplinary healthcare teams.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Pharmacology 2nd Edition by Workman
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32 Chapters
1305 Verified Questions
1305 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Drug Regulation, Actions, and Responses
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Morphine and hydromorphone (Dilaudid)are two types of opioid receptor agonists used for pain management.Hydromorphone is a more potent drug than morphine,and lower doses are needed to control pain.How do actions at receptor sites explain this difference?
A) Morphine remains bound to opioid receptors longer than hydromorphone does.
B) Hydromorphone remains bound to opioid receptors longer than morphine does.
C) Morphine is metabolized and eliminated at a faster rate than hydromorphone.
D) Hydromorphone is metabolized and eliminated at a faster rate than morphine.
Answer: B
Q2) Which action could make a drug more potent?
A) Slow drug absorption
B) Slow drug elimination
C) Normal drug elimination
D) Fast drug elimination
Answer: B
Q3) What is the weight in pounds for an individual who weighs 70 kg? _____lb
Answer: 154
1 kg = 2.2 lb;70 11ea681a_435c_e10b_b611_a9ed3a6aed86_TB1177_11 2.2 = 154 lb.
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Chapter 2: Safely Preparing and Giving Drugs
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You prepare to administer an intravenous (IV)push drug,but the skin around the patient's IV site is swollen and red.The patient states that the area hurts,and no blood return is obtained when you aspirate the IV setup.What is your best action?
A) Continue IV administration of the drug.
B) Discontinue IV administration and notify the prescriber.
C) Dilute the drug more before injecting it into the current IV site.
D) Reassure the patient that this is an expected reaction and offer the prescribed pain medication.
Answer: B
Q2) The prescriber orders atenolol (Tenormin)25 mg to be given orally once a day to control a patient's high blood pressure.You check the patient's vital signs and find that the blood pressure is 128/80 mm Hg and the heart rate is 60 beats/min.What should you do first before giving this drug?
A) Check the order for prescriber limitations on when the drug should be given.
B) Notify the prescriber and ask if the drug should be given.
C) Reassess the blood pressure and heart rate in 30 minutes.
D) Give the drug exactly as prescribed.
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Mathematics Review and Introduction to Dosage Calculation
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term is used to describe the bottom number of a fraction?
A) Denominator
B) Subtractor
C) Numerator
D) Dividend
Answer: A
Q2) Which statement about an improper fraction is true?
A) It is always greater than 1.
B) It has no lowest common denominator.
C) It cannot be multiplied or divided by another fraction.
D) It can only be multiplied or divided by a whole number.
Answer: A
Q3) A patient is prescribed 25 mg of meperidine (Demerol)IV.The drug on hand is meperidine 100 mg/mL.How many milliliters is the correct dose? _____ mL
Answer: 0.23
Want 11ea681a_4366_5647_b611_41908696158c_TB1177_11 ,Have 11ea681a_4366_5648_b611_abb9a1173537_TB1177_11 ; 11ea681a_4366_5649_b611_5172dbbfbbc1_TB1177_11 = 0.25 * 1 mL = 0.25 mL.
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Medical Systems of Weights and Measures
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should you teach a patient to use a small medication cup to measure a liquid drug rather than a tableware teaspoon?
A) A child may learn to think that all tableware teaspoons contain drugs.
B) Teaspoons are more likely to spill and waste drug than a medication cup.
C) Medication cups measure liquids more accurately than tableware teaspoons.
D) Medication cups are less likely to change the taste of the drug than tableware teaspoons.
Q2) A patient is prescribed potassium 15 mEq in an oral solution.How many ounces is the correct dose to be administered to the patient from a solution of potassium with a strength of 20 mEq in 8 ounces?
_____ ounces
Q3) A patient is prescribed to receive 750 mg of metformin (Glucophage)oral solution through a nasogastric tube.You have on hand the oral solution with a concentration of 100 mg/mL.How many milliliters should you administer through the tube?
Q4) Using dimensional analysis,calculate the correct dosage of theophylline 2 mg/kg to give orally to a child who weighs 51 lb.The drug is available as an elixir of 80 mg in 15 mL.Give the answer in mL.
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Chapter 5: Dosage Calculation of Intravenous Solutions and Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does the "drop factor" affect IV infusions?
A) Fluid with a larger drop factor infuses more slowly than fluid with a smaller drop factor.
B) Smaller drop factors occur with smaller needles (or cannulas)and larger drop factors occur with larger needles.
C) The smaller the drop factor,the fewer the number of drops needed to administer 1 mL of infusion fluid.
D) The larger the drop factor,the fewer the number of drops needed to administer 1 mL of infusion fluid.
Q2) Which precaution is most important to teach a patient who is receiving intravenous (IV)drug therapy?
A) "Turn on your call light if the IV machine starts to beep for any reason."
B) "Do not use the arm that has the IV running in it for any reason whatsoever."
C) "Call me immediately if you start to feel any pain or burning in the arm with the IV."
D) "If you think the IV is running too slowly,just push the up-arrow button on the machine once or twice."
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Chapter 6: Anti-Inflammatory Drugs
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which drug should you ask a patient about an allergy to "sulfa" drugs before administering it?
A) Aspirin (Bufferin)
B) Ketorolac (Toradol)
C) Celecoxib (Celebrex)
D) Oxaprozin (Daypro)
Q2) Which drug is a leukotriene inhibitor?
A) Piroxicam (Feldene)
B) Loratadine (Claritin)
C) Montelukast (Singulair)
D) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Q3) Why are corticosteroid drugs usually prescribed for a short period of time?
A) The inflammatory process cannot be controlled with less powerful drugs.
B) Inhalation of corticosteroid drugs causes irreversible damage to the lungs.
C) These drugs work less effectively when given over an extended period.
D) Corticosteroids have many adverse effects and side effects.
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Chapter 7: Drugs for Pain Control
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42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best way for you to determine a patient's need for pain medication on the second day after an abdominal laparotomy?
A) Check when the patient last received medication for pain.
B) Assess the patient's facial expression and vital signs.
C) Consider the patient's age and ethnicity.
D) Ask the patient to rate his or her pain.
Q2) Eight weeks after surgery,a patient without pain still takes oxycodone and acetaminophen (Percocet)four to six times a day.What phenomenon do you recognize?
A) Addiction
B) Dependence
C) Withdrawal
D) Tolerance
Q3) How long must pain be present to be considered "chronic pain?"
A) 6 days
B) 6 weeks
C) 6 months
D) 6 years
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9
Chapter 8: Anti-Infectives: Antibacterial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antibacterial drugs are most likely to cause severe skin reactions?
A) Erythromycins and aminoglycosides
B) Sulfonamides and trimethoprim
C) Penicillins and cephalosporins
D) Macrolides and tetracyclines
Q2) The patient who is receiving intravenous (IV)penicillin is prescribed to also receive intravenous doxycycline (Doxy).Which action is most important for nurse to implement?
A) Use IV tubing for doxycycline that has never come into contact with penicillin.
B) Use a glass container for the tetracycline and a plastic container for the penicillin.
C) Infuse the doxycycline only into a central line and the penicillin into a peripheral line.
D) Administer doxycycline with sterile saline and administer the penicillin with sterile water.
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10
Chapter 9: Anti-Infectives: Antiviral Drugs
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which problem is a sign or symptom of an allergic or anaphylactic response to an antiviral drug?
A) Nausea
B) Vivid dreams
C) Intolerance to fatty foods
D) Swelling of the face or throat
Q2) What is the major difference between retroviruses and common viruses?
A) Retroviruses cannot be killed by antiviral therapy,but common viruses can.
B) A retrovirus usually can cause disease over and over again in the same person.
C) A retrovirus carries the enzyme reverse transcriptase,and common viruses do not.
D) Retroviruses will respond to antibacterial drugs as well as to all the antiviral drugs.
Q3) Which antiviral drug is most likely to have more severe central nervous system side effects,including worsening of glaucoma?
A) Acyclovir
B) Amantadine
C) Valacyclovir
D) Zanamavir
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Chapter 10: Anti-Infectives: Antitubercular and Antifungal Drugs
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42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antitubercular drug is avoided in the treatment of children who have tuberculosis?
A) Isoniazid (INH)
B) Rifampin (RIF)
C) Pyrazinamide (PAS)
D) Ethambutol (EMB)
Q2) Why are most standard antibacterial drugs ineffective against tuberculosis?
A) The TB organism is slow growing.
B) The TB organism is not really a type of bacteria.
C) The TB organism does not have a true cell wall.
D) The TB organism is usually located in the brain stem where antibacterial drugs cannot reach.
Q3) Which precaution is most important to teach a patient who is prescribed isoniazid (INH,Nydrazid)?
A) "Use another form of birth control in addition to oral contraceptives to prevent an unplanned pregnancy."
B) "Do not drive or operate dangerous equipment until you know how this drug affects you."
C) "Wear glasses rather than contact lenses throughout this drug therapy."
Page 12
D) "Avoid coffee and any foods or beverages that contain caffeine."
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Chapter 11: Drugs That Affect the Immune System
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child who weighs 78 lb is prescribed to receive azathioprine (Imuran)2 mg/kg intravenously.The solution available is azathioprine 100 mg/10 mL.How many milliliters will you prepare for a correct dose?
Q2) With which drug is it important to assess the patient's lipid levels?
A) Azathioprine (Imuran)
B) Basiliximab (Simulect)
C) Tacrolimus (Prograf)
D) Sirolimus (Rapamune)
Q3) How are vaccination and immunization related?
A) They are actually the same thing.
B) They are completely unrelated to each other.
C) The outcome of successful vaccination is immunization.
D) The outcome of successful immunization is vaccination.
Q4) Which condition would be a contraindication for giving RhoGam to an Rh-negative mother?
A) Having an allergy to peanuts and penicillin
B) Giving birth to an Rh-negative infant
C) Receiving a blood transfusion after delivery
D) Giving birth to twins
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Chapter 12: Anticancer Drugs
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33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which side effects are most common among patients receiving therapy with biological response modifiers (BRMs)?
A) Alopecia and bad breath
B) Abdominal cramps and constipation
C) Productive cough and wheezing
D) Fever,chills,and flulike symptoms
Q2) Which chemotherapy agents in this list have a high emetogenic potential? (select all that apply)
A) Busulfan (Myleran)
B) Capecitabine (Xeloda)
C) Dactinomycin (Cosmegen)
D) Floxuridine (FUDR)
E) Melphalan (Alkeran)
Q3) A patient arrives to receive a second round of combination chemotherapy.What is the most important patient assessment finding to report to the prescriber?
A) Height
B) Weight
C) Blood pressure
D) Pulse rate and rhythm
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Drug Therapy for Diabetes
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed nateglinide (Starlix).Which statement indicates that the patient has a correct understanding of this therapy?
A) "I will try not to chew or break this tablet."
B) "For best results,I need to take this drug right before I eat."
C) "If this drug causes nausea,I will take it just before I go to bed."
D) "If I miss a meal,I will take this drug anyway at its regularly scheduled time."
Q2) What makes insulin a "high-alert" drug?
A) Many people are very allergic to insulin.
B) Serious harm can occur if the wrong dose is given.
C) If too much insulin is given,the respiratory system is depressed.
D) If too much insulin is given,the blood glucose level could climb to dangerously high levels.
Q3) By which action does insulin lower blood glucose levels?
A) Enhancing the enzymes that break down glucose
B) Helping glucose to move from the blood into cells
C) Converting glucose into proteins in the liver and brain
D) Converting glycogen into glucose in the liver and brain
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Drug Therapy for Thyroid and Adrenal Gland
Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which precaution is most important to teach a patient who is newly prescribed a thyroid hormone replacement drug?
A) "Avoid taking fiber supplements while on this drug."
B) "Be sure to take this drug at the same time everyday."
C) "Weigh yourself daily and keep a record of these weights."
D) "Do not increase the dose without your prescriber's knowledge."
Q2) Laboratory blood tests show that a patient has a T3 level of 190 ng/dL.How should you interpret this finding?
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Normal thyroid function
D) Thyroid function totally absent
Q3) Which side effects are most common when taking any drug to manage adrenal gland hyperfunction?
A) Decreased urine output and increased sweating
B) Blurred vision and dry mouth
C) Headache and mouth sores
D) Nausea/vomiting
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Chapter 15: Drugs That Affect Urine Output
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed an extended-release drug for overactive bladder.Which precaution is most important for you to teach the patient?
A) "Avoid taking this drug at bedtime."
B) "Drink at least 3 L of fluid daily."
C) "Swallow the tablet or capsule whole."
D) "Perform a home pregnancy test monthly."
Q2) Which laboratory value is always checked before giving a dose of furosemide (Lasix)?
A) Calcium
B) Magnesium
C) Creatinine
D) Potassium
Q3) What is the most common health problem treated by diuretic drugs?
A) High blood pressure
B) Tongue swelling
C) Constipation
D) Obesity
Q4) A 10-year-old child is prescribed a one-time dose of oral furosemide (Lasix)2 mg/kg.The child's weight is 75 lb.How many milligrams will you give the child?
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Chapter 16: Drug Therapy for Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug for high blood pressure is a beta blocker?
A) Verapamil
B) Telmisartan
C) Captopril
D) Propranolol
Q2) What side effect is common to calcium channel blockers?
A) Diarrhea
B) Leg and ankle swelling
C) Worsening of glaucoma
D) Dry,hacking cough
Q3) How does the drug diltiazem (Cardizem)lower blood pressure?
A) Prevents angiotensin from binding to its receptors.
B) Blocks nerve stimulation of blood vessels.
C) Increases water and sodium loss.
D) Widens small arteries.
Q4) What substance should patients taking ACE inhibitors avoid?
A) Alcoholic beverages
B) Salt substitutes
C) Citrus fruits
D) Aspirin
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Drug Therapy for Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does hydralazine (Apresoline)help improve heart failure?
A) By directly stimulating the right heart muscle to increase the strength of heart muscle contraction
B) By directly stimulating the left heart muscle to increase the strength of heart muscle contraction
C) By directly relaxing blood vessel muscles and decreasing afterload
D) By directly constricting blood vessel muscles and increasing afterload
Q2) A patient is to receive nesiritide (Natrecor).Which patient assessments must be checked before giving this drug? (select all that apply)
A) Heart rate
B) Swallowing reflex
C) IV line for patency
D) Oral intake
E) Respiratory rate factors
Q3) A patient is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin)0.03 mg as a liquid dose.The drug on hand is digoxin 0.05 mg/mL.How many milliliters do you give?
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Chapter 18: Drug Therapy for Dysrhythmias
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has a history of depression is prescribed propranolol (Inderal).Which precaution is most important for you to teach the patient?
A) "You should expect a decrease in depression symptoms while you are taking propranolol."
B) "While taking propranolol you may notice that your depression gets worse."
C) "Stop taking propranolol whenever you experience depression symptoms."
D) "Propranolol may cause difficulty with your ability to perform sexually."
Q2) For signs and symptom of which endocrine problem must you monitor when a patient is prescribed amiodarone (Cordarone)?
A) Hypoaldosteronism
B) Hyperaldosteronism
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Hyperthyroidism
Q3) A patient is prescribed digoxin.The patient's apical heart rate is 58 beats/min.What is your best action?
A) Give the drug as ordered.
B) Document the finding because this is an expected effect of the drug.
C) Recheck the heart rate and blood pressure after 30 minutes.
D) Hold the drug and notify the prescriber.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Drug Therapy for High Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should you ask a patient prescribed a "statin" drug for hyperlipidemia about his or her daily alcohol consumption?
A) Alcohol increases the action of most statin drugs and can lead to side effects.
B) Statin drugs increase the action of alcoholic beverages causing a person to feel drunk only after two drinks.
C) Taking a statin and consuming more than two alcoholic drinks per day is stressful on the liver.
D) Alcohol interferes with the action of statin drugs so the prescriber must order a much higher dose.
Q2) Which health problems should you teach a patient can be caused by chronic hyperlipidemia? (select all that apply)
A) Hypertension
B) Pancreatitis
C) Peptic ulcer disease
D) Xanthoma
E) Diabetes mellitus
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Chapter 20: Drugs That Affect Blood Clotting
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do antiplatelet drugs work?
A) Increasing the elimination of formed platelets
B) Decreasing the formation of new platelets
C) Preventing platelets from aggregating
D) Trapping platelets in the spleen
Q2) Which category of drugs actually dissolves existing clots?
A) Heparins
B) Coagulants
C) Antiplatelets
D) Thrombolytics
Q3) A patient is being discharged on enoxaparin (Lovenox).Which statement should you include in the discharge teaching plan?
A) "An advantage of this drug is that labs do not need to be drawn to guide therapy."
B) "Follow-up lab work must be drawn every 2 to 6 months."
C) "Enoxaparin is given intramuscularly twice a day."
D) "The purpose of this drug is to dissolve clots."
Q4) A patient is prescribed 300 mg of oral clopidogrel (Plavix)as a first dose.The drug on hand is clopidogrel 75 mg.How many tablets should you give?
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Drug Therapy for Asthma and Other Respiratory Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of the airway is affected by excessive mucus?
A) Lumen
B) Cartilage
C) Smooth muscle
D) Mucous membrane
Q2) Which problem is the main adverse effect of epoprostenol (Flolan)?
A) Impotence
B) Prolonged bleeding
C) Severe hypertension
D) Congestive heart failure
Q3) Which type of problem narrows the airways by tightening bronchial smooth muscle?
A) Alveoli
B) Emphysema
C) Chronic bronchitis
D) Bronchoconstriction
Q4) How do mucolytics help asthma and chronic obstructive lung disease (COPD)?
A) Reducing inflammation
B) Inducing bronchodilation
C) Reducing mucus thickness
D) Enhancing respiratory rate
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Chapter 22: Drug Therapy for Gastrointestinal Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are instructing a patient about how to help prevent the spread of diarrhea.Which important point should you stress?
A) "When travelling internationally it is best to drink bottled water with ice cubes."
B) "Be sure to wash your hands after using the bathroom or changing diapers."
C) "Always wear clean gloves when handling raw meat or poultry."
D) "Cut down on your fluid intake to decrease the number of diarrhea episodes."
Q2) Which statement about the vomiting reflex is accurate?
A) The vomiting process consists of four phases.
B) Retching precedes vomiting in the process.
C) Nausea usually occurs prior to vomiting.
D) Vomiting may be a reflex or a voluntary action.
Q3) A patient prescribed metoclopramide (Reglan)reports having difficulty sleeping,difficulty concentrating,tiredness,and feeling hopeless.What is your best action?
A) Instruct the patient that these are expected side effects of the drug.
B) Document these findings as the only action.
C) Check the patient's chart history of depression.
D) Hold the drug and notify the prescriber.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Drug Therapy for Gastric Ulcers and Reflux
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are older patients who are prescribed proton pump inhibitors more at risk for drug-induced hip fracture?
A) Induced drowsiness increases the risk for falling.
B) Inhibited calcium absorption makes bones more fragile.
C) Excessive potassium loss reduces muscle strength and balance.
D) Anemia and fatigue prevent participation in exercise and reduce muscle weakness.
Q2) Why should a patient with GERD avoid substances such as chocolate,peppermint,alcohol,nicotine,and caffeinated drinks?
A) These substances increase the pressure in the lower esophageal sphincter and lead to reflux.
B) These substances decrease the pressure in the lower esophageal sphincter leading to reflux.
C) These substances increase the pressure in the duodenal sphincter causing reflux and emesis.
D) These substances decrease the pressure in the duodenal sphincter causing reflux and emesis.
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25
Chapter 24: Drug Therapy With Nutritional Supplements
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parents of a child ask you why fluoride is essential for the health of their child.What is your best response?
A) "Fluoride is essential for nerve health as your child grows."
B) "Fluoride helps your child grow strong bones and prevents tooth decay."
C) "Fluoride supports your child's immune system and prevents infections."
D) "Fluoride aids your child's body in maintenance of proper fluid balance."
Q2) A patient is receiving supplemental enteral feedings with Osmolite,1 can three times a day between meals.For which main side effect should you monitor?
A) Constipation
B) Nausea
C) Vomiting
D) Diarrhea
Q3) What should you check before administering an enteral feeding by mouth?
A) Gag reflex
B) Frequency of reflux
C) Foods that cause nausea
D) Consistency of bowel movements
Q4) A patient with COPD is to receive Pulmocare at 40 mL/h.How many milliliters would you hang to cover 4 hours?
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Chapter 25: Drug Therapy for Seizures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed lamotrigine for seizure control.The drug received from the pharmacy is Lamisil.What is your best action?
A) Administer the drug as prescribed.
B) Hold the dose and call the pharmacy immediately.
C) Ask the patient whether he or she recognizes the tablet.
D) Notify the prescriber that the usual brand of lamotrigine is not available.
Q2) What should you teach a patient who is prescribed ethosuximide (Zarontin)about spending time outdoors?
A) Move slowly to avoid dizziness.
B) Wear dark glasses when the sun is bright.
C) Be sure to wear long sleeves and a broad-brimmed hat.
D) Apply a strong sunscreen whenever you will be exposed to sunlight.
Q3) An infant is prescribed phenobarbital 4 mg/kg in an oral suspension.The infant weighs 11 lb.How many milligrams will you give?
Q4) Which two conditions are possible complications of status epilepticus?
A) Blurred vision and ringing in the ears
B) Muscle paralysis and weakness
C) Brain damage and death
D) Asthma and wheezing
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Chapter 26: Drug Therapy for Alzheimers and Parkinsons Diseases
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Q1) Which drug used to treat Parkinson's disease is a pure dopamine agonist?
A) Trihexyphenidyl (Artane)
B) Tolcapone (Tasmar)
C) Selegiline (Zelapar)
D) Rotigotine (Neupro)
Q2) Why is bromocriptine (Parlodel)not recommended for women who are breastfeeding?
A) It stops the production of milk.
B) It enters the milk and slows infant growth.
C) It enters the milk and causes symptoms of Parkinson's disease in the infant.
D) It is a pregnancy category C drug and has been found to cause birth defects in animals.
Q3) Which statement is true about how drugs for Parkinson's disease work?
A) Dopaminergic drugs decrease the amount of dopamine activity in the brain.
B) COMT inhibitors allow a larger amount of levodopa to reach the brain,which lowers the brain's dopamine levels.
C) MAO-B inhibitors facilitate the enzyme monoamine oxidase B that breaks down dopamine in the brain.
D) Anticholinergic drugs block cholinergic nerve impulses to minimize tremors and rigidity.
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Chapter 27: Drug Therapy for Psychiatric Problems
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44 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment is most important to measure or perform before administering the first dose of amitriptyline (Elavil)to a patient?
A) Heart rate and rhythm
B) Core body temperature
C) Level of consciousness
D) Blood pressure in the sitting position
Q2) Although serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)are used more commonly now to treat anxiety disorders than are benzodiazepines,for which patient situation would you expect a benzodiazepine to be prescribed instead of an SSRI?
A) The patient is 18 years old.
B) Anxiety has been present daily for 6 months.
C) The patient has compulsive repetitive actions.
D) The anxiety attack is severe with hallucinations.
Q3) Which drug used to treat depression is a combination of a reuptake inhibitor and a receptor blocker?
A) Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B) Sertraline (Zoloft)
C) Tramadol (Rybix)
D) Trazodone (Desyrel)
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Drug Therapy for Insomnia
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Q1) What is the most important assessment to perform before giving the first dose of any drug to treat insomnia?
A) The patient's self-reported score on a pain scale
B) Heart rate and rhythm
C) Level of consciousness
D) Deep tendon reflexes
Q2) Which unusual side effect should you teach patients and families to monitor for when eszopiclone (Lunesta)is prescribed for insomnia?
A) Dizziness
B) Drowsiness
C) Somnambulism
D) Headache
Q3) Which class of drugs used to treat insomnia has the lowest likelihood to be habit forming or addictive?
A) Barbiturates
B) Benzodiazepines
C) Sedating antidepressants
D) Benzodiazepine receptor agonists
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Chapter 29: Drug Therapy for Eye Problems
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Q1) Which statement made by a patient prescribed drug therapy for glaucoma indicates more teaching is needed?
A) "I am so glad my glaucoma has been cured with bimatoprost (Lumigan)in time to prevent blindness."
B) "I will take care never to touch the tip of the applicator to my eye to prevent infection."
C) "I will only call my doctor for eye redness if it lasts longer than just an hour or two."
D) "I understand that I should wait for my vision to clear once the eye drops are in before I drive the car."
Q2) Which term means constriction of the pupil of the eye?
A) Miosis
B) Punctum
C) Glaucoma
D) Mydriasis
Q3) A patient is prescribed to use 2 gtt of carbachol (Isopto)1.5% solution per eye every 8 hours.The drug comes in a 15 mL bottle and 1 mL = 16 gtt.How many days will the bottle of carbachol last?
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are women overall at a greater risk for osteoporosis than men?
A) Women now tend to live longer than men.
B) Men generally have a larger stature than women.
C) Women eat more vegetables and fruits;whereas men eat more meat.
D) Women who have been pregnant lose bone density faster than either women who have not had children or men.
Q2) Which action is most important to teach a patient prescribed to take allopurinol (Zyloprim)daily for gout?
A) "Avoid operating heavy machinery."
B) "Drink plenty of water."
C) "Avoid alcohol and caffeine."
D) "Take the drug only when symptoms of gout are present."
Q3) Which drug used to treat osteoporosis is available only by subcutaneous injection?
A) Alendronate (Fosamax)
B) Raloxifene (Evista)
C) Ibandronate (Boniva)
D) Denosumab (Prolia)
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Chapter 31: Drug Therapy for Male Reproductive Problems
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Q1) A patient is prescribed tamsulosin (Flomax)1.2 mg orally once daily 30 minutes after a meal.You have tamsulosin (Flomax)0.4 mg/tablet.How many tablets will you administer?
Q2) Which test or examination does a patient receive before taking any drug for benign prostate hypertrophy (BPH)?
A) Digital rectal examination
B) 24-hour urinalysis
C) Kidney function test
D) Urine culture
Q3) For which patient would you question the prescriber about an order for testosterone therapy?
A) 75-year-old male with history of gastric ulcers
B) 65-year-old male with history of breast cancer
C) 55-year-old male with history of overactive bladder
D) 45-year-old male with history of asthma
Q4) Which drug belongs to the DHT inhibitor class?
A) Alfuzosin
B) Tamsulosin
C) Silodosin
D) Dutasteride
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Drug Therapy for Female Reproductive Issues
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Q1) Which precautions are important to teach a patient who is taking hormone replacement therapy (HRT)to reduce menopausal discomfort? (select all that apply)
A) Use oral contraceptives.
B) Avoid cigarette smoking.
C) Avoid drinking alcoholic beverages.
D) Obtain a yearly influenza vaccination.
E)Perform monthly breast self-examinations.
F)Go to the hospital immediately if chest pains or symptoms of a stroke occur.
Q2) Which side effects are most common among women taking hormone replacement therapy for menopause?
A) Breast tenderness and fluid retention
B) Increased vaginal dryness and constipation
C) Nausea,vomiting,and diarrhea
D) Skin itching and dark-colored urine
Q3) A woman who is hospitalized overnight after surgery usually takes Premarin 2.5 mg daily for control of perimenopausal symptoms.Her prescriber orders a one-time dose of Premarin 2.5 mg orally as soon as possible.The drug on hand is Premarin 0.625 mg/tablet.How many tablets should you administer?
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