Pharmacology for Health Sciences
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Pharmacology for Health Sciences provides an in-depth understanding of the fundamental principles of pharmacology, including drug classification, mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, side effects, and interactions. The course explores the basic concepts of pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics, emphasizing how drugs affect the human body and the factors influencing drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination. Students will study major drug groups used in the prevention and treatment of disease, with a focus on clinical application and patient safety. Case studies and real-world scenarios are incorporated to enhance practical knowledge, preparing students in health-related fields to make informed decisions regarding medication management and patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology An Introduction 7th Edition by Henry Hitner PhD
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
46 Chapters
1602 Verified Questions
1602 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3236 Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pharmacology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64228
Sample Questions
Q1) The therapeutic index of drug A is 10,and its effective dose 50 (ED50)is 200 mg.What is the lethal dose 50 (LD50)of drug A?
A) 20 mg
B) 2000 mg
C) 100 mg
D) 400 mg
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following would not be considered a dose-dependent adverse effect of a drug?
A) Nausea
B) Liver damage
C) Kidney damage
D) Idiosyncrasy
Answer: D
Q3) Drugs,such as thalidomide,that produce birth defects are known as _____.
A) mutagens
B) carcinogens
C) teratogens
D) allergens
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics and Factors of Individual
Variation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64227
Sample Questions
Q1) Suzan returns from a day at the beach and realizes that she has sunburns on her arms and legs.Although not severe,the burns cause Suzan some discomfort.Suzan applies a moisturizing cream that contains aloe vera extracts.In this scenario,the route of administration is _____.
A) intravenous
B) topical
C) oral
D) sublingual
Answer: B
Q2) A patient education program should include educating patients on the effective administration of drugs.How should patients be instructed to take enteric-coated products?
A) On an empty stomach with water
B) One hour before meals
C) Two hours after meals
D) All of these are correct.
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
4
Chapter 3: Geriatric Pharmacology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64226
Sample Questions
Q1) The enzymes that are most affected by the process of aging are those that play a role in _____ drugs.
A) oxidizing
B) reducing
C) chelating
D) alkylating
Answer: A
Q2) Lack of adequate protein intake in elderly people:
A) leads to a lower concentration of plasma proteins.
B) leads to an increase in the synthesis of drug metabolizing enzymes.
C) leads to an increase in the rate of drug metabolism.
D) leads to a decrease in the intensity of drug action.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following changes takes place as a person ages?
A) The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute increases.
B) The size of several body organs decreases.
C) The frequency and nature of adverse reactions to drugs decreases.
D) The efficiency with which the liver metabolizes drugs increases.
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 5
Chapter 4: Math Review and Dosage Calculations
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64225
Sample Questions
Q1) Match the set of examples to the definition of a ratio.
A) 2.1, 3.5, 2.9
B) 1:5, 4:10, 10:100
C) The 3 in 3/4 or the 9 in 9/11
D) All of these
Q2) Determine the correct dose of a drug 15 mg/kg to be administered for a patient who weighs 55 pounds and is 8 years old.
A) 125 mg
B) 250 mg
C) 375 mg
D) 425 mg
Q3) Match the set of examples to the definition of a numerator.
A) The 13 in 13.14, 33 in 33.58, and 21 in 21.92
B) The 5 in 2:5, 4 in 1:4, and 8 in 5:8
C) The 1 in 1/4, 4 in 4/11, and 5 in 5/25
D) All of these
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 5: Autonomic Nervous System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64224
Sample Questions
Q1) A high rate of sympathetic nerve firing is most likely to result in _____.
A) bronchoconstriction
B) vasoconstriction
C) miosis
D) vasodilation
Q2) The function of the autonomic nervous system is to regulate the rate of:
A) cardiac muscle contractions.
B) skeletal muscle contractions.
C) striated muscle contractions.
D) sensory conduction.
Q3) Which of the following neurotransmitters is released by the adrenal medulla during the fight or flight reaction?
A) Serotonin
B) Dopamine
C) Adrenaline
D) Acetylcholine
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 7
Chapter 6: Drugs Affecting the Sympathetic Nervous System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64223
Sample Questions
Q1) Analyze the common dosage ranges of beta-adrenergic blocking drugs,and select the correct dosage range of atenolol (Tenormin)for the treatment of hypertension and angina pectoris.
A) 50-100 mg by mouth
B) 1-3 mg by intravenous injection
C) 6.25-100 mg by mouth
D) 12.5-50 mg by mouth
Q2) Identify a symptom associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia in males.
A) Enlargement of the prostate gland
B) Decreased urine flow
C) Increased constriction of the smooth muscle of the urethra
D) All of these are correct.
Q3) Identify the sympathetic signs for overdose of adrenergic drugs.
A) Sweating and trembling
B) Chest pain and respiratory difficulty
C) Significant increase in blood pressure
D) All of these are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 8
Chapter 7: Drugs Affecting the Parasympathetic Nervous System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64222
Sample Questions
Q1) Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed by the intravenous injection of:
A) edrophonium.
B) neostigmine.
C) pyridostigmine.
D) ambenonium.
Q2) What is the mechanism of action of the drug botulinum?
A) It inhibits the release of acetylcholine from cholinergic nerve endings.
B) It enhances the activity of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.
C) It displaces acetylcholine from muscarinic receptor sites and prevents it from producing its effects.
D) It permanently inactivates acetylcholinesterase by forming an irreversible bond with the enzyme.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of the drug nicotine?
A) It is an alkaloid derived from a particular type of mushroom.
B) It produces the same effects as the neurotransmitter epinephrine.
C) It stimulates the autonomic ganglia of both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the nervous system in low doses.
D) It behaves like a ganglionic blocker at low doses.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Drugs Affecting the Autonomic Ganglia
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64221
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient's wife is concerned that her husband is overusing Nicorette 4-mg nicotine gum.She would like to confirm how many pieces he can use in a day.In this scenario,the dosage should be limited to _____.
A) 20 pieces per day
B) 10 pieces per day
C) 30 pieces per day
D) 50 pieces per day
Q2) Implementing a treatment plan that includes mecamylamine is indicative of a diagnosis of _____.
A) smoking addiction
B) severe hypertension
C) depression
D) constipation
Q3) A patient who was recently put on a smoking cessation treatment plan complains of throat irritation.This adverse effect is most likely caused by the use of _____.
A) Nicorette
B) Nicotrol NS
C) Chantix
D) Zyban
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 10
Chapter 9: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64220
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of medicines can potentiate the effects of succinylcholine due to shifting of the levels of potassium in the body?
A) Narcotics
B) NSAIDs
C) Antiemetics
D) Diuretics
Q2) The discontinuation of intrathecal baclofen therapy should be gradual in order to prevent:
A) severe hypotension.
B) hyperglycemia.
C) rebound spasticity.
D) hypernatremia.
Q3) The antidote that is administered for depolarizing neuromuscular blocker toxicity is: A) pancuronium.
B) succinylcholine.
C) demecarium.
D) No antidote is available.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 11
Chapter 10: Local Anesthetics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64219
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be a key point in explaining to a patient why the practitioner is using cryoanesthesia for the removal of the patient's superficial lesions?
A) There is no need for an injection.
B) Cryoanesthesia has a short duration of action, so it will wear off in a short period of time.
C) The application is painless and requires spraying ethyl chloride for only 30 to 60 seconds.
D) All of the above are true.
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of using cocaine in surgical procedures?
A) It causes significant hypotension.
B) It increases the dilation of blood vessels.
C) It decrease operative bleeding.
D) It relaxes vascular smooth muscle.
Q3) Identify the most commonly used local anesthetic technique.
A) Regional nerve block
B) Infiltration anesthesia
C) Topical application
D) Cryoanesthesia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 11: Introduction to the Central Nervous System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64218
Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ is referred to as the master gland of the body.
A) pineal gland
B) pituitary gland
C) thyroid gland
D) thymus gland
Q2) The axons of efferent neurons transmit nerve impulses carrying information associated with all of the following except:
A) pain.
B) voluntary movement.
C) involuntary movement.
D) glandular activation.
Q3) The two types of medications that are most often used for people who have emotional or behavioral problems are:
A) neuroleptics and antipsychotics.
B) neuroleptics and anticonvulsants.
C) antianxiety drugs and antidepressants.
D) antianxiety drugs and antipsychotics.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
13
Chapter 12: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs and Alcohol
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64217
Sample Questions
Q1) A comparison of sedatives with hypnotics reveals that:
A) sedatives produce mental relaxation, while hypnotics induce and maintain sleep.
B) sedatives induce and maintain sleep, while hypnotics produce mental relaxation.
C) sedatives work like hypnotics to increase mental alertness.
D) none of these are correct.
Q2) Identify the main characteristic of the REM stage of the sleep cycle.
A) Periods of rapid eye movement
B) Dreaming
C) Increased autonomic system activity
D) All of the above
Q3) Steve has a sleep disorder and is prescribed pentobarbital for two weeks.After the first week,Steve notices that the medication has a diluted effect,and he is unable to feel the same hypnotic effects of the drug as he did during the first week.This effect is termed
A) drug addiction
B) REM rebound
C) drug tolerance
D) automatism
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Antipsychotic and Antianxiety Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64216
Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ is involved with emotional and behavioral responses associated with reward,punishment,anger,fear,and anxiety.
A) medulla oblongata
B) limbic system
C) reticular formation
D) spinal cord
Q2) David,a patient with schizophrenia,has been undergoing antipsychotic treatment for many years now.He stops taking his regular dose of phenothiazine when he discovers that he no longer has the funds to cover the expenses for his treatment.As soon as he stops his medication,he starts experiencing a new range of symptoms such as involuntary movements of his lips,jaw,tongue,and extremities.Worried about the onset of these new symptoms,David's mother consults David's doctor,Dr.Richards,about David's mental health.Dr.Richards examines David and informs David's mother that these new symptoms can be suppressed by reinstituting phenothiazine.From which condition is David most likely suffering?
A) Parkinsonism
B) Akathisia
C) Tardive dyskinesia
D) Alzheimer's disease
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 15
Chapter 14: Antidepressants,psychomotor Stimulants,and
Lithium
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64215
Sample Questions
Q1) Kevin,a 12-year-old boy,grew up with his pet dog,Sparky,who was almost the same age as Kevin.Age-related health complications caused Sparky?s death,following which Kevin was distraught.He was depressed for more than a week and refused to go to school.The type of depression affecting Kevin is termed _____.
A) exogenous depression
B) major depressive disorder
C) mania
D) bipolar mood disorder
Q2) Which of the following is a difference between mania and depression?
A) Depression is a mental state characterized by feelings of hopelessness, frustration, and depressed mood, whereas mania is characterized by excitement, hyperactivity, and elevated mood.
B) Depression is treated with SSRIs, whereas mania is treated with lithium.
C) Depression is associated with low levels of norepinephrine and/or serotonin, while high levels of norepinephrine and/or serotonin are involved in mania.
D) All of the above are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Psychotomimetic Drugs of Abuse
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64214
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications is used for its sedative effects in the treatment of hallucinogenic drug intoxication?
A) Opioids
B) Benzodiazepines
C) Amphetamines
D) Antidepressants
Q2) Marijuana resin is extracted from the plant _____.
A) Acacia polyacantha
B) Cannabis sativa
C) Nicotiana tabacum
D) peyote
Q3) A drug abuser experiences a psychotomimetic flashback experience after using marijuana.What other drug was probably abused by the user in the past?
A) Psilocybin
B) Mescaline
C) Lysergic acid diethylamide
D) Amphetamines
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Antiepileptic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64213
Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the type of seizure that does not involve motor convulsions.
A) Atonic seizure
B) Myoclonic seizure
C) Absence seizure
D) Partial seizure
Q2) Identify the parameters used when deciding to treat a patient with lacosamide (Vimpat).
A) Lacosamide is used with lamotrigine for the treatment of generalized tonic-clonic seizures and myoclonic seizures.
B) Lacosamide is primarily used in patients over 12 years of age in combination with other antiepileptic drugs in the treatment of absence seizures.
C) Lacosamide is used as adjunct therapy with other drugs for the treatment of partial seizures in patients 17 years or older.
D) Lacosamide is used as a single therapy for the treatment of partial seizures in patients 17 years or older.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 17: Antiparkinson Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64212
Sample Questions
Q1) Alex is suffering from Parkinson's disease and is undergoing drug therapy.In spite of taking his medications regularly,Alex has started experiencing alternating periods of mobility and immobility.When he informs his doctor of these episodes,his doctor tells him that he's experiencing a phenomenon that is known as the "on-off phenomenon." What will Alex's doctor instruct him to do?
A) He will tell Alex to take his drug doses around meal times.
B) He will tell Alex to take smaller doses of the drug at more frequent intervals.
C) He will tell Alex to take protein supplements along with the medication.
D) He will increase Alex's dosage.
Q2) For best results,levodopa should be administered on an empty stomach:
A) to maximize drug receptor binding.
B) to minimize plasma protein binding interferences.
C) to enhance the absorption of levodopa in the small intestine.
D) to prevent amino acids in foodstuffs from interfering with the transport of levodopa across the blood-brain barrier.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
19
Chapter 18: General Anesthetics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64211
Sample Questions
Q1) Francisca,an anesthesiologist,is assisting with a surgical procedure.The drug she chooses should induce anesthesia quickly and allow the patient to recover quickly.Francisca decides to use methohexital.Which of the following statements,if true,supports Francisca's choice?
A) The patient is undergoing neurosurgery.
B) The patient is susceptible to postoperative nausea and vomiting.
C) The patient is susceptible to laryngospasms.
D) The patient is undergoing a cardiac procedure.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of the effects of inhalation anesthetics on the cardiovascular system?
A) Desflurane, sevoflurane, and isoflurane do not cause a reduction in cardiac output.
B) Isoflurane and desflurane can cause transient bradycardia and hypotension through suppression of the sympathetic nervous system.
C) Desflurane, sevoflurane, and isoflurane cause a reduction in cardiac output.
D) Desflurane, sevoflurane, and isoflurane stimulate the peripheral vasculature to increase blood pressure.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
20
Chapter 19: Opioid Narcoticanalgesics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64210
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of opioid drug administration and disposition?
A) Opioids are not administered on a repeated schedule.
B) Opioids are available for oral and parenteral administration.
C) Oral preparations of opioids are primarily used for surgery and postsurgical recovery.
D) Oral preparations of opioids should be chewed, never swallowed.
Q2) Pain resulting from abnormal signals or nerves damaged by entrapment,amputation,or diabetes is known as _____.
A) hyperalgesia
B) dysphoria
C) referred pain
D) neuropathic pain
Q3) Aaron is prescribed an opioid analgesic after a surgery.What effect is this drug most likely to have on his body?
A) It will decrease his smooth muscle tone.
B) It will make him lose consciousness.
C) It will decrease his mental alertness.
D) It will make him urinate more frequently.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 20: Nonnarcotic Analgesics
Anti-Inflammatory,and Antigout Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64209
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)is commercially available for parenteral administration to induce closure of the atrial opening in premature infants with patent ductus arteriosis?
A) Ibuprofen
B) Ketorolac
C) Celecoxib
D) None of the above
Q2) Select a correct statement about the uricosuric drug probenecid.
A) The correct adult dose of probenecid is 100-200 mg BID.
B) Probenecid increases renal excretion, thereby decreasing plasma concentrations of hypoglycemic agents.
C) Probenecid causes GI disturbances, so it is recommended that it be taken with milk, meals, or antacids.
D) None of the above are correct.
Q3) Identify the physiological signs that indicate the presence of inflammation.
A) Swelling and redness
B) Pain and warmth
C) Loss of function
D) All of the above
Page 22
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 21: Cardiac Glycosides and the Treatment of
Congestive Heart Failure
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64208
Sample Questions
Q1) In an electrocardiogram,the repolarization of the ventricles is represented by the: A) QRS wave.
B) P wave.
C) ST segment.
D) T wave.
Q2) Identify the chamber of the heart from which deoxygenated blood is pumped through the pulmonary arteries into the lungs.
A) The left ventricle
B) The right ventricle
C) The left atrium
D) The right atrium
Q3) An increase in heart rate primarily begins with stimulation of which part of the conduction system?
A) Purkinje fibers
B) Atrioventricular bundle
C) Atrioventricular (AV) node
D) Sinoatrial (SA) node
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 23
Chapter 22: Antiarrhythmic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64207
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following compensatory mechanisms is activated in the body in untreated chronic heart failure?
A) Blockade of epinephrine and norepinephrine receptors
B) Decrease in size of the walls of the heart chambers
C) Structural remodeling
D) Vasodilation
Q2) Which of the following adverse effects is generally associated with venodilators but not with arterial dilators?
A) Nausea
B) Postural hypotension
C) Headache
D) Vasomotor flushing
Q3) Identify the primary mechanism of action of digoxin.
A) Release of nitric oxide
B) Blockade of angiotensin receptors
C) Blockade or norepinephrine receptors
D) Increase of myocardial contraction
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 24
Chapter 23: Antianginal Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64206
Sample Questions
Q1) Identify an accurate statement about disopyramide.
A) Disopyramide produces a prolongation of the cardiac refractory period.
B) Disopyramide produces an increase in conduction.
C) Disopyramide is only approved for treating atrial arrhythmias.
D) Disopyramide is the most frequently used 1A antiarrhythmic drug.
Q2) Calcium channel blockers affect the sinoatrial (SA)node by:
A) slowing depolarization and decreasing the heart rate.
B) slowing repolarization and decreasing the heart rate.
C) increasing depolarization and increasing the heart rate.
D) increasing repolarization and increasing the heart rate.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a Class 2 antiarrhythmic drug?
A) Sotalol
B) Esmolol
C) Amiodarone
D) Verapamil
Q4) During Phase 2 of the cardiac action potential,_____.
A) calcium ions move into the muscle cells
B) calcium ion channels close
C) potassium ions move into the muscle cells
D) sodium ions influx into the muscle cells
Page 25
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 24: Diuretics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64205
Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the goal of the treatment of coronary artery disease.
A) Reducing the number and severity of anginal attacks
B) Limiting the progression of atherosclerosis
C) Preventing myocardial infarction
D) All of the above
Q2) What is the most common adverse effect associated with the use of calcium channel blockers?
A) Dizziness
B) Hypotension
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) All of the above
Q3) Select the available strengths of the sublingual nitroglycerin tablet Nitrostat.
A) 2.5-, 5-, and10-mg sublingual tablets
B) 0.3-, 0.4-, and 0.6-mg sublingual tablets
C) 40-mg CR tablets and capsules
D) 1-, 2-, and 3-mg extended-release buccal tablets
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 25: Antihypertensive Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64204
Sample Questions
Q1) What are the two mechanisms by which sodium ions can be reabsorbed along the nephron?
A) Anion exchange and chloride ion transport
B) Anion exchange and sodium ion transport
C) Cation exchange and chloride ion transport
D) Cation exchange and sodium ion transport
Q2) _____ diuretics are used to improve renal failure due to increased load and to reduce intracranial pressure.
A) Potassium-sparing
B) Osmotic
C) Loop
D) Thiazide
Q3) _____ is formed in the tubular cells in the presence of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase (CAH).
A) Hydrogen peroxide
B) Carbon tetrachloride
C) Hydrochloric acid
D) Carbonic acid
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Anticoagulants and Coagulants
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64203
Sample Questions
Q1) Identify a true statement about the mechanism of action of the preferred diuretics used in the treatment of hypertension.
A) Thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics cause an increase in the excretion of sodium and water, which reduces the blood volume and cardiac output.
B) Loop diuretics cause an increase in the excretion of sodium and water, which reduces blood volume and cardiac output.
C) Aldosterone antagonists cause an increase in the excretion of sodium and water, which reduces blood volume and cardiac output.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Essential hypertension differs from secondary hypertension in that:
A) the cause of essential hypertension is unknown.
B) essential hypertension is an acute disease.
C) essential hypertension requires no treatment.
D) the occurrence of essential hypertension is almost negligible.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 27: Nutrition and Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64229
Sample Questions
Q1) One disadvantage of cellulose hemostatic sponges compared to gelatin sponges is:
A) thrombocytopenia.
B) agranulocytosis.
C) anaphylactic shock.
D) bone regeneration interference.
Q2) Which of the following are the first cells or cell components to reach a site of injury to initiate coagulation?
A) Thrombocytes
B) Erythrocytes
C) Monocytes
D) Leucocytes
Q3) Why should a patient currently experiencing thromboembolisms be given warfarin?
A) To increase the production of several Vitamin K dependent clotting factors
B) To dissolve the preformed clot
C) To prevent secondary thromboembolic complications
D) To bind calcium ions so that the coagulation scheme is interrupted
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
29
Chapter 28: Hypolipidemic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64202
Sample Questions
Q1) Abigail is taken to the hospital after experiencing severe abdominal pain and dizziness. She starts vomiting on the way to the hospital and experiences hot flushes. When Dr. Butler examines Abigail, he notices that she has dry, cracked skin, joint pain, and is lethargic. On further enquiry, Dr. Butler learns that Abigail has been using isotretinoin tablets for her acne. He immediately attributes her condition to drug toxicity. From which of the following conditions is Abigail most likely suffering?
A) Hypervitaminosis B
B) Hypervitaminosis A
C) Hypervitaminosis D
D) Hypervitaminosis E
Q2) Use your knowledge of vitamins and nutritional therapy to determine the instructions that you must give a patient regarding therapy with nutritional supplements.
A) Nutritional supplements should be taken with meals to avoid gastrointestinal (GI) distress.
B) Extended-release formulations of vitamins should not be chewed or crushed.
C) If pregnancy is suspected, the supplements should not exceed the recommended maximum daily amounts.
D) All of these statements are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 30
Chapter 29: Antianemic
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64201
Sample Questions
Q1) Lipoprotein electrophoresis is used to obtain a direct measurement of all of the following except _____.
A) total cholesterol
B) triglycerides
C) HDL
D) LDL
Q2) A nurse is explaining the benefits and adverse effect associated with the use of cholestyramine to a patient.Which of the following is the nurse likely to identify as the most serious adverse effect of cholestyramine?
A) Nausea
B) Constipation
C) Intestinal obstruction
D) Flatulence
Q3) As macrophages consume LDL-cholesterol from the wall of damaged arteries,the macrophages transform into cholesterol-rich _____.
A) very-low-density lipoproteins
B) foam cells
C) chylomicrons
D) apoproteins
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 31
Chapter 30: Antiallergic and Antihistaminic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64200
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of cobalamin (vitamin B<sub>12</sub>)?
A) Cobalamin is primarily found is green vegetables and fruits.
B) Strict vegetarians are more likely to develop a deficiency of cobalamin.
C) The anemia resulting from cobalamin deficiency is a microcytic hypochromic anemia.
D) Cobalamin has recognized therapeutic value in the treatment of hepatitis, allergies, and sterility.
Q2) Which of the following is true of how is anemia caused?
A) Anemia may be caused by a deficiency in the amount of hemoglobin that occurs when the number of circulating red blood cells decreases.
B) Anemia may be caused by excessive blood loss or by an increase in the destruction of red blood cells (RBCs).
C) Anemia may be caused by a decrease in the production of RBCs, which reduces the amount of circulating hemoglobin.
D) All of these statements are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
32
Chapter 31: Bronchodilator Drugs and the Treatment of Asthma
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64199
Sample Questions
Q1) On the eve of an important business meeting,Steve presents with symptoms of a severe allergy.Steve can ill-afford to appear sedated or under medication during this meeting,so he asks the doctor to prescribe a suitable antihistamine.Which of the following drugs is the doctor most likely to prescribe?
A) Hydroxyzine
B) Diphenhydramine
C) Chlorpheniramine
D) Promethazine
Q2) The side effects associated with antihistaminics are _____.
A) hypertension and urinary incontinence
B) sedation and xerostomia
C) agitation and insomnia
D) narcolepsy and bradycardia
Q3) Which of the following is a result of capillary leakage that occurs in the nasal mucous membranes?
A) Edema in the nasal mucous membranes
B) Wheals
C) Nasal congestion
D) Hives
Page 33
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 32: Respiratory Pharmacology, treatment of
Asthma and Copd
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64198
Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the physical manifestations associated with emphysema.
A) Difficulty expelling air from the lungs
B) Reduced respiratory exchange
C) Shortness of breath
D) All of these
Q2) Select the correct statement related to the bronchodilators salmeterol and formoterol.
A) Salmeterol and formoterol are administered as oral tablets, have an immediate onset of action, and have a duration of action of 12 hours.
B) Salmeterol and formoterol are administered by nebulization, have an immediate onset of action, and have a duration of action of 4 to 6 hours.
C) Salmeterol and formoterol are administered by inhalation, have an onset of action of 10 to 20 minutes, and have a duration of action of 12 hours.
D) None of these are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 33: Agents That Affect Intestinal Motility
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64197
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications can promote the formation of ulcers by interfering with mucus production or secretion?
A) Diuretics
B) NSAIDs
C) Antacids
D) Antibiotics
Q2) What is the therapeutic role of bismuth in triple therapy that is used to treat peptic ulcers?
A) Bismuth inhibits the adhesion of bacteria to the gastric mucosa.
B) Bismuth permeates the bacterial cell wall and weakens it.
C) Bismuth eradicates the bacterial infection by selectively killing H. pylori.
D) Bismuth neutralizes the acid present in the stomach.
Q3) Raymond,a patient with Zollinger-Ellison (ZE)syndrome,is administered a dose of 6 mg of cimetidine.How long will it take for peak absorption to occur?
A) Within 90 minutes
B) 10 minutes
C) 2 to 3 hours
D) 6 hours
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 34: Introduction to the Endocrine System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64196
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs is a serotonin receptor antagonist?
A) Atropine
B) Granisetron
C) Loperamide
D) Diphenoxylate
Q2) Select the reason why increased dietary fiber is a major component in the management of constipation.
A) Fiber increases stool bulk and fluid content and decreases transit time, resulting in an increase in the frequency of defecation.
B) Fiber affects the fluid and electrolyte supplements in the stomach and inhibits the sympathetic nervous system, resulting in an increase in the frequency of defecation.
C) Fiber decreases the number of microorganisms in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, decreases the fluid content, and decreases transit time, resulting in a decrease in the frequency of defecation.
D) None of these are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 35: Introduction to the Endocrine System Adrenal
Steroids
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64195
Sample Questions
Q1) Growth hormone increases plasma levels of nutrients to provide the energy needed for growth by inhibiting the uptake of _____ by adipose cells.
A) oxygen
B) phosphorous
C) calcium
D) glucose
Q2) Steve,a 16-year-old,suffers from stunted growth.His doctor prescribes mecasermin for his condition.Which of the following statements is most likely to be true of Steve's condition?
A) Steve has high levels of adrenocorticotropic hormone.
B) Steve has a swollen lymph node.
C) Steve has a pituitary tumor.
D) Steve has developed neutralizing antibodies to growth hormone.
Q3) The portal system allows for communication between:
A) the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland.
B) the hypothalamus and the posterior pituitary gland.
C) the hypothalamus and both the lobes of the pituitary gland.
D) the hypothalamus and the renal system.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 37
Chapter 36: Gonadal Hormones and the Oral Contraceptives
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64194
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the most appropriate reason why a patient on warfarin therapy should not use glucocorticoids.
A) Because glucocorticoids can inhibit the body's response to warfarin
B) Because warfarin can inhibit the action of glucocorticoids
C) Because glucocorticoids can increase the requirement for warfarin
D) None of above
Q2) Which of the following symptoms is associated with the excessive use of aldosterone?
A) Hypotension
B) Hypertension
C) Low blood pressure
D) None of these
Q3) Identify the hormone that is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland in response to the secretion of the corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)by the hypothalamus.
A) Aldosterone
B) Adrenocorticotropin hormone
C) Dehydroepiandrosterone
D) Cortisol
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 38
Chapter 37: Drugs Affecting the Thyroid and Parathyroid Glands and Bone Degeneration
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64193
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be used to relieve sweats,hot flashes,and headaches caused by too high a dose of estrogen?
A) Estrone
B) Progestin
C) FSH
D) GnRH
Q2) Which of the following is an adverse effect caused by the chronic use of testosterone in adult males?
A) Reduced sperm count
B) Hirsutism
C) Acne
D) Stunting of bone growth
Q3) How does diabetes contribute to impotence?
A) It causes the hardening and narrowing of arteries leading a reduction in blood flow.
B) It causes damage to blood vessels, thereby diminishing blood flow.
C) It increases nerve excitability and alters psychomotor (brain) activity.
D) It causes significant protein catabolism and weight loss.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 39
Chapter 38: Pancreatic Hormones and Antidiabetic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64192
Sample Questions
Q1) Martha,a patient suffering from hypothyroidism,has just found out that she is pregnant.She contacts Dr.Hudson to find out whether she should continue her thyroid hormone replacement therapy during her pregnancy.Which of the following instructions is Dr.Hudson most likely to give Martha?
A) Discontinue treatment until the third trimester, when there is no longer a risk of the drug affecting fetal development.
B) Discontinue treatment because the thyroid hormones administered to pregnant women readily cross the placental barrier and affect fetal development.
C) Continue treatment as usual because the thyroid hormones administered to pregnant women do not readily cross the placental barrier to affect fetal development.
D) Continue the treatment at half the dosage as the growing fetus may be very sensitive to the effects of the drug.
Q2) Which of the following tissues does the hormone calcitonin primarily affect?
A) Fat tissue
B) Bone tissue
C) Muscle tissue
D) Nerve tissue
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 40
Chapter 39: Posterior Pituitary Hormones and Drugs
Affecting Uterine
Muscle
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64191
Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the accurate statement about insulin pens.
A) The pens increase accuracy in dose delivery.
B) Once a cartridge is loaded and opened, the loaded pen should be refrigerated.
C) The needle should be inserted at a 45<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>angle into pinched skin.
D) Insulin pens should be capped in order to avoid air being introduced in to the cartridge through the needle.
Q2) Which one of the following receptors is not coupled to a G protein?
A) GIP receptor
B) GLP-1 receptor
C) Glucagon receptor
D) Insulin receptor
Q3) Which of the following potentiates oral hypoglycemic drugs?
A) Sympathomimetics
B) Isoniazid
C) Rifampin
D) Sympatholytics
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 40: Antibacterial Agents
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64190
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about the affects of the release of ADH?
A) ADH is released when the blood serum sodium level is hypertonic, having a serum sodium level of >145 mEq/l. ADH secretion is inhibited when the blood serum sodium level is hypotonic and has a serum sodium level of <135 mEq/l.
B) ADH is released when the blood serum sodium level is hypotonic and has a sodium level of <135 mEq/l. ADH secretion is inhibited when the blood serum sodium level is hypertonic and has a serum sodium level of >145 mEq/l.
C) ADH is released when the blood serum sodium level is hypertonic and has a serum sodium level of <135 mEq/l. ADH secretion is inhibited when the blood serum sodium level is hypotonic and has a serum sodium level of >145 mEq/l.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) What do the adverse effects of methylergonovine (Methergine)include?
A) Vasodilation, which can produce varying degrees of hypotension
B) Nausea, vomiting, and constriction of blood vessels, which can produce varying degrees of hypertension
C) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
D) None of these
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 42
Chapter 41: End of Chapter Questions
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64189
Sample Questions
Q1) Which antibiotics can be used for bowel sterilization prior to surgery?
A) Penicillins and macrolides
B) Aminoglycosides and sulfonamides
C) Cephalosporins and fluoroquinolones
D) Tetracyclines and aztreonam
Q2) A decrease in rifampin effectiveness when taken with other medications may be due to:
A) increased acetylation.
B) increased beta-lactamase activity.
C) enterohepatic cycling.
D) increased bacterial resistance.
Q3) Upper respiratory infections are most commonly caused by _____.
A) Escherichia coli
B) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Moraxella catarrhalis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 42: Antifungal and Antiviral Aidsdrugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64188
Sample Questions
Q1) Marc,an HIV-infected patient,is being treated with anti-HIV drugs.Which of the following statements should be told to Marc by the physician?
A) Underlying conditions will eventually die out.
B) The treatment will produce a cure for the HIV infection.
C) The pharmacological treatment of HIV can be taken as a substitute for altering lifestyle patterns that promote the transmission of the virus.
D) Routine chemistry and hematology will be performed before all dosing with IV drugs and periodically as determined by the treating physician for oral medication.
Q2) Which of the following auxiliary instructions should be given to patients when they receive treatment for athlete's foot?
A) Use cotton socks, preferably white or light colors, whenever wearing shoes.
B) Do not wear sneakers or loafers without socks.
C) Change socks more than once a day.
D) All of these are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
44
Chapter 43: Antiprotozoal and Anthelmintic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64187
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be best defined as a thick-walled structure in which parasitic protozoal sex cells develop for transfer to new hosts?
A) An antigen
B) A kerion
C) A sebum
D) An oocyst
Q2) After returning from a trip to the tropics,Samuel begins to experience flu-like symptoms.The chills and high fever he is experiencing are probably due to:
A) bacteria colonizing the large intestine.
B) protozoa rapidly multiplying and causing red blood cells to rupture.
C) a virus spreading in the central nervous system.
D) a ringworm infection.
Q3) What medication might a person be taking if he or she experiences headache and ringing in the ears?
A) Primaquine
B) Pyrimethamine
C) Hydroxychloroquine
D) Quinine
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 44: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64186
Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the true statement about the mechanism of action of chlorhexidine.
A) Chlorhexidine is bactericidal in low concentrations (0.5 percent) and bacteriostatic at higher concentrations (2 to 4 percent).
B) Chlorhexidine is incorporated into the bacterial cell wall, which disrupts the membrane and reduces its permeability.
C) Chlorhexidine binds to the ribosomes and causes lethal damage to the bacterial cell.
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Identify the statement that is true of the development of nosocomial infections.
A) Urinary tract or intravenous therapy catheterizations contribute to the development of nosocomial infections.
B) Nosocomial infections occur with prolonged hospitalizations.
C) High-risk patients with decreased immunoresistance are susceptible to nosocomial infections.
D) All of these are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Agents
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64185
Sample Questions
Q1) Miller undergoes chemotherapy for cancer.He experiences nausea and vomiting shortly after the first cycle of treatment.Several weeks later,he also develops anemia,malnutrition,and hyperkalemia.His doctor diagnoses him with uremia.He explains that this has occurred due to renal toxicity and says that Miller cannot continue to be treated with the same drug.Which of the following types of cancer does Miller have?
A) Pancreatic cancer
B) Testicular cancer
C) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
D) Multiple myeloma
Q2) Which of the following is used to treat Wilms' tumor?
A) Dactinomycin
B) Pegaspargase
C) Idarubicin
D) Topotecan
Q3) The different forms of cancer can be classified into:
A) solid tumors and diffuse tumors.
B) solid tumors and vesicular tumors.
C) vesicular tumors and diffuse tumors.
D) lymphatic tumors and diffuse tumors.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 47
Chapter 46: Immunopharmacology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64184
Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is an immunomodulating agent that is used to treat melanoma.
A) Neupogen
B) Roferon-A
C) Actimmune
D) Intron A
Q2) Identify the true statement about macrophages.
A) Macrophages release interleukins that activate the T-cells.
B) Macrophages are classified as antigen-presenting cells.
C) Macrophages kill cells by releasing cytotoxic chemicals such as perforins.
D) Macrophages produce immunoglobulins or antibodies.
Q3) _____ is an immunomodulating agent that is used to treat hepatitis
A) Neupogen
B) Roferon-A
C) Actimmune
D) Intron A
Q4) _____ is administered using subcutaneous injections to treat chronic hepatitis
A) Neupogen
B) Betaseron
C) Alferon NC.
D) Infergen
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 48