Pharmacology for Health Professions
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Pharmacology for Health Professions offers a comprehensive introduction to the principles of drug action, pharmacokinetics, and pharmacodynamics, with a focus on medications commonly encountered in clinical practice. The course covers drug classifications, mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, side effects, potential drug interactions, and principles of safe medication administration. Emphasis is placed on the integration of pharmacological knowledge into patient care, including patient education, monitoring, and legal and ethical considerations related to medication use. Designed for students pursuing careers in nursing, allied health, or other health professions, this course equips learners with the foundational understanding necessary to make informed decisions and promote optimal therapeutic outcomes in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Pharmacology 2nd Edition by Workman
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32 Chapters
1305 Verified Questions
1305 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Drug Regulation, Actions, and Responses
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching a patient about adverse drug reactions (ADRs),which precaution is most important to include?
A) "Take your medications right before you go to bed so that you can sleep through an ADR."
B) "Keep a written record of the date and time an ADR occurs."
C) "Stop taking the drug and flush it down the toilet."
D) "Immediately seek medical help."
Answer: D
Q2) A patient tells you that she is allergic to the drug her health care provider just prescribed.What is your best first response or action?
A) Ask her to describe the allergic response she had previously to this drug.
B) Ask her whether she received the drug she was allergic to by mouth or by injection.
C) Thank her for the information and ask the health care provider to prescribe something else.
D) Tell her that the health care provider will also prescribe an antidote that will prevent an allergic response to the prescribed drug.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Safely Preparing and Giving Drugs
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are teaching a patient about a prescribed sublingual drug.What will you be sure to tell the patient? (select all that apply)
A) "Keep the drug sterile to avoid infection."
B) "Do not drink anything until the drug is completely dissolved."
C) "Place this drug between your jaw and your molar teeth."
D) "Notify your prescriber if you experience side effects."
E) "Place the drug beside or below the tongue."
F) "Don't swallow this drug."
Answer: B,D,E,F
Q2) You prepare to administer an intravenous (IV)push drug,but the skin around the patient's IV site is swollen and red.The patient states that the area hurts,and no blood return is obtained when you aspirate the IV setup.What is your best action?
A) Continue IV administration of the drug.
B) Discontinue IV administration and notify the prescriber.
C) Dilute the drug more before injecting it into the current IV site.
D) Reassure the patient that this is an expected reaction and offer the prescribed pain medication.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Mathematics Review and Introduction to Dosage Calculation
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is 12% of 60?
A) 5
B) 7.2
C) 10.6
D) 12.8
Answer: B
Q2) A patient is prescribed 0.0625 mg of digoxin (Lanoxin).The drug on hand is digoxin 0.05 mg/mL.How many milliliters is the correct dose?
_____ mL
Answer: 1.25
Want 11ea681a_4365_6bd1_b611_2d08e662b9cb_TB1177_11 ,Have 11ea681a_4365_6bd2_b611_190f46a1637d_TB1177_11 ; 11ea681a_4365_6bd3_b611_95415daab9a1_TB1177_11 = 1.25 * 1 mL = 1.25 mL.
Q3) A patient is prescribed aspirin 650 mg orally.The aspirin form on hand is 325 mg/tablet.How many tablets is the correct dose? _____ tablet(s)
Answer: 2
Want 650 mg/Have 325 mg; 11ea681a_4365_1dac_b611_6da88a19f984_TB1177_11 = 2.
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Chapter 4: Medical Systems of Weights and Measures
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many teaspoons are in 1 tablespoon?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 10
Q2) The prescriber tells a patient to call if a temperature higher than 39° C develops.The patient asks what this temperature is in Fahrenheit.What is your response?
A) 99.2°
B) 100.2°
C) 101.2°
D) 102.2°
Q3) For the patient who is to receive 5 mg of amphotericin B,the order indicates to administer it by slow intravenous infusion over 6 hours at a concentration of 0.01 mg/mL.How many milliliters of dextrose 5% in water will be needed to make a concentration of 0.01 mg/mL?
Q4) A patient is prescribed potassium 15 mEq in an oral solution.How many ounces is the correct dose to be administered to the patient from a solution of potassium with a strength of 20 mEq in 8 ounces?
_____ ounces
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Chapter 5: Dosage Calculation of Intravenous Solutions and Drugs
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which precaution is most important to teach a patient who is receiving intravenous (IV)drug therapy?
A) "Turn on your call light if the IV machine starts to beep for any reason."
B) "Do not use the arm that has the IV running in it for any reason whatsoever."
C) "Call me immediately if you start to feel any pain or burning in the arm with the IV."
D) "If you think the IV is running too slowly,just push the up-arrow button on the machine once or twice."
Q2) Which drop factor allows the greatest volume of intravenous fluid to be delivered per hour at a drip rate of 50 gtt per minute?
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 60
Q3) What is the most important advantage for intravenous (IV)infusion of drugs?
A) Anyone can administer IV drugs.
B) The drug reaches the bloodstream immediately.
C) Drugs given intravenously cost less than drugs given orally.
D) The patient is not required to be alert to swallow the drug.
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Chapter 6: Anti-Inflammatory Drugs
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is an inflammatory response a health problem rather than a helpful protection?
A) When a patient's immune system is suppressed
B) When infection accompanies inflammation
C) When inflammation is prolonged
D) When pain is experienced
Q2) For which health problem will you specifically monitor in the older patient prescribed to take a corticosteroid for the next month?
A) Sudden hair loss
B) Weight loss
C) High blood glucose level
D) Change in sleep patterns
Q3) A patient who has been taking montelukast (Singulair)for 3 months reports having urine the color of coffee.What is your best response?
A) "You need to increase your intake of water and decrease your intake of coffee."
B) "You need to stop taking this drug and notify your prescriber today."
C) "Don't worry.All patients taking this drug have dark urine."
D) "Do not take this drug any more often than prescribed."
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Chapter 7: Drugs for Pain Control
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do morphine and other opioid pain medications relieve a patient's pain?
A) They reduce tissue damage and alter the physical problems causing the pain.
B) They bind to opioid receptors in the central nervous system and alter the perception of pain.
C) They inhibit the generation of impulses along sensory nerve tracts and alter pain transmission.
D) They redirect substance P release from nociceptors and alter the amount of neurotransmitters reaching the brain.
Q2) A patient taking oxycodone with acetaminophen (Percocet)for pain at home 3 days after fracturing an ankle reports constipation and continuing moderate to severe pain that is relieved by the prescribed drug.What is your best advice?
A) "Either increase the time between drug doses or take only half the dose at each scheduled time."
B) "Stop taking the Percocet and switch to acetaminophen alone."
C) "Wrap your foot tightly and walk for at least 30 minutes daily."
D) "Drink at least 3 L of fluid daily and increase fiber intake."
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9
Chapter 8: Anti-Infectives: Antibacterial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should tetracycline drugs be avoided during pregnancy and lactation?
A) Tetracycline crosses the placenta and causes brain hemorrhage in the fetus.
B) The fetal and newborn liver cannot metabolize the drug and anemia results.
C) The fetus and newborn are more likely to have allergic reactions to tetracycline.
D) The drug interferes with tooth enamel development causing permanently stained teeth.
Q2) Which laboratory blood test result for a patient taking trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Septra)should you report immediately to the prescriber?
A) Red blood cells (RBCs)2.2 million/mm<sup>3</sup>
B) International normalized ratio (INR)1.6
C) White blood cells (WBCs)6000/mm<sup>3</sup>
D) Sodium 134 mEq/L
Q3) A patient is to receive linezolid (Zyvox)300 mg orally.You have on hand linezolid tablets of 600 mg/tablet.How many tablets will you give for a 300 mg dose?
A) 3 tablets
B) 2 tablets
C) 1 tablet
D) 0.5 tablet
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Anti-Infectives: Antiviral Drugs
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient on HAART that includes neviripine (Viramune)has all of the following side effects.Which one should you report to the prescriber immediately?
A) Nausea
B) 2 lb weight loss
C) Clay-colored stools
D) Dizziness on standing
Q2) A 40-year-old patient infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)asks why the new drug maraviroc (Selzentry)is not being prescribed for her.What is your best response?
A) "This drug is very expensive and your insurance may not cover it."
B) "This drug can cause birth defects and should not be prescribed for anyone who is pregnant or might become pregnant."
C) "This drug is very toxic to the heart and lungs.It is prescribed only for patients who are young and have no other health problems."
D) "This drug is not effective against all HIV subtypes and the HIV causing your infection does not have the target for this drug."
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Chapter 10: Anti-Infectives: Antitubercular and Antifungal Drugs
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of fungal infections can be treated with topical antifungal agents?
A) Those that are confined to the skin or mucous membranes
B) Those that are located under the toenails or fingernails
C) Those that are infected by only one specific type of fungus
D) The type that only infect humans and not animals
Q2) Which statement about tuberculosis (TB)is true?
A) The lungs are the only organ ever affected by TB.
B) A positive TB test means the person has active tuberculosis.
C) Far more people are infected with TB than actually develop the disease.
D) Any redness in the area where the TB test was performed is considered positive.
Q3) A patient about to start systemic antifungal therapy has a white blood cell (WBC)count of 3200 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>.Which antifungal drug must be avoided for this patient?
A) Fluconazole (Diflucan)
B) Ketoconazole (Nizoral)
C) Micafungin (Mycamine)
D) Terbinafine (Lamisil)
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Drugs That Affect the Immune System
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The activity of which specific immune system cell must be suppressed to reduce transplant rejection episodes?
A) Neutrophils
B) Macrophages
C) T lymphocytes
D) B lymphocytes
Q2) What is the role of the T lymphocyte (T cell)in the development of long-lasting antibody-mediated immunity?
A) Enhancing the sensitized B lymphocyte's production of antibodies on second and subsequent exposure to the same antigen
B) Preventing general immune responses from becoming excessive and leading to autoimmunity
C) Distinguishing sensitized B lymphocytes from unsensitized B lymphocytes
D) Assisting unsensitized B lymphocyte to recognize new antigens
Q3) With which disorder or organism is a killed vaccine used to trigger immunity?
A) Tetanus
B) Influenza
C) Hepatitis B
D) Human papilloma virus
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Anticancer Drugs
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33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which side effect of chemotherapy puts patients at increased risk for infection?
A) Anemia
B) Hypoxemia
C) Neutropenia
D) Thrombocytopenia
Q2) To what cancer therapy drug class does anastrozole (Arimidex)belong?
A) Alkylating agent
B) Biological response modifier
C) Hormone inhibitor
D) Miscellaneous agent
Q3) Which type of chemotherapy drug causes tissue damage on direct contact?
A) Cyclins
B) Vesicants
C) Biologics
D) Emetogenics
Q4) Calculate the meter square body surface area for a man who is 5 feet 9 inches tall and weighs 157 lb.
Q5) An infant with cancer is to receive vincristine (Oncovin)0.05 mg/kg intravenously.The infant weighs 18 lb.What is the appropriate dose,in mg?
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Chapter 13: Drug Therapy for Diabetes
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of insulin has the shortest duration of action?
A) Rapid-acting insulin
B) Short-acting insulin
C) Intermediate-acting insulin
D) Long-acting insulin
Q2) A patient who has been taking metformin (Glucophage)for a year is seen in the clinic and has all of the following laboratory results.Which result do you report to the prescriber immediately?
A) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)38 mg/dL
B) Red blood cell (RBC)count 4.1 million/mm<sup>3</sup>
C) Random blood glucose level 135 mg/dL
D) Alkaline phosphatase 40 IU/L
Q3) Which precaution is most important to teach patients who have any type of diabetes about alcohol use?
A) "Be sure to take your antidiabetic drug or drugs 15 minutes before drinking any alcohol."
B) "Only drink alcohol right before bedtime because it will make you drowsy."
C) "Increase your water intake whenever you drink alcohol."
D) "Only drink alcohol with a meal or shortly after a meal."
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Drug Therapy for Thyroid and Adrenal Gland
Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment is most important to perform before giving a patient who is prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid)the first dose of the drug?
A) Measuring heart rate and rhythm
B) Determining level of consciousness
C) Asking about an allergy to "sulfa" drugs
D) Checking intake and output for the last 24 hours
Q2) How do thyroid replacement drugs work to treat hypothyroidism?
A) Forcing the thyroid gland to secrete more thyroid hormones
B) Inhibiting the enzymes that break down thyroid hormones
C) Preventing damage to thyroid endocrine cells
D) Providing thyroid hormones
Q3) Which statement about adrenal cortex hormones is true?
A) When underproduced,these hormones can lead to high blood pressure and stroke.
B) When overproduced,these hormones can cause cancer.
C) These hormones differ between men and women.
D) These hormones are essential for life.
Q4) A 6-year-old child is being started on levothyroxine (Synthroid)intravenously and is prescribed 5 mcg/kg.The child weighs 32lb.The drug vial contains 100 mcg/mL.How many milliliters should you draw up for a correct dose?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Drugs That Affect Urine Output
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed a diuretic drug twice a day.When should you advise him or her to take the last dose each day?
A) Around noon with lunch
B) Before 6:00 p.m.
C) At 9:00 p.m.or bedtime
D) Twelve hours after the first dose
Q2) Which type of diuretic can cause higher than normal blood calcium levels?
A) Loop diuretics
B) Osmotic diuretics
C) Thiazide diuretics
D) Potassium-sparing diuretics
Q3) For which complication should you remain alert when a patient is taking any type of diuretic?
A) Loss of appetite
B) Bladder spasms
C) Hypertension
D) Dehydration
Q4) A 10-year-old child is prescribed a one-time dose of oral furosemide (Lasix)2 mg/kg.The child's weight is 75 lb.How many milligrams will you give the child?
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Chapter 16: Drug Therapy for Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug acts directly on the peripheral arteries,causing them to dilate and leading to decreased blood pressure?
A) Minoxidil (Loniten)
B) Propranolol (Inderal)
C) Captopril (Capoten)
D) Diltiazem (Cardizem)
Q2) A patient with hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus is taking carvedilol (Coreg).What special precaution should you teach the patient to take when taking this drug?
A) Check blood pressure in both arms.
B) Keep a strict record of intake and output.
C) Check blood sugar levels regularly.
D) Avoid sugar-containing drinks.
Q3) What are the most common side effects of alpha blockers?
A) Shakiness and tremors
B) Leg and ankle swelling
C) Constipation and nausea
D) Dizziness and drowsiness
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Chapter 17: Drug Therapy for Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement made by a patient with heart failure indicates that more teaching is needed about the prescribed drug therapy?
A) "I always try to take my heart failure drugs at the same time each day."
B) "Now I am using a weekly pill dispenser to keep my drugs straight."
C) "Now that my heart failure is cured I can cut back the drugs I take."
D) "If I gain more than 3 lb in a week I will call my doctor."
Q2) Which are sympathetic nervous system compensatory mechanisms of the body for heart failure? (select all that apply)
A) Increased heart rate
B) Decreased respiratory rate
C) Increased contractility
D) Decreased body temperature
E) Increased cardiac output
Q3) What is a common side effect of hydralazine (Apresoline)therapy for heart failure?
A) Tachycardia
B) High blood pressure
C) Constipation
D) Difficulty sleeping
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Chapter 18: Drug Therapy for Dysrhythmias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which foods should you teach patients are good sources of magnesium? (select all that apply)
A) Baked potato
B) Bran cereal
C) Yogurt
D) Whole-grain rice
E) Bananas
Q2) A 70-year-old patient who has been taking digoxin (Lanoxin)for 4 years has all of the following laboratory blood tests.For which test value should you notify the prescriber immediately?
A) Sodium (Na)132 mEq/L
B) Potassium (K)2.1 mEq/L
C) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)9 mg/dL
D) International normalized ratio (INR)1.5
Q3) A patient who weighs 126 lb is prescribed to receive an intramuscular dose of procainamide (Pronestyl)of 12.5 mg/kg immediately.The available parenteral form of procainamide is a solution with a concentration of 500 mg/mL.How many milliliters will you prepare for the correct dose?
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Chapter 19: Drug Therapy for High Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is prescribed simvastatin (Zocor)asks why liver function tests must be drawn every 6 months.What is your best response?
A) "The tests are important because early liver problems do not cause symptoms."
B) "The tests help your prescriber decide what your dose of simvastatin should be."
C) "The tests tell your prescriber how well your body is responding to the therapy."
D) "The tests indicate how much cholesterol is being produced by your liver."
Q2) What is the most common side effect of nicotinic acid agents?
A) Itching
B) Blurred vision
C) Muscle weakness
D) High blood pressure
Q3) Why should the use of cholestyramine (Questran)and colestipol (Colestid)be avoided in children?
A) These drugs can cause muscle breakdown in children.
B) These drugs can cause intestinal obstruction in children.
C) These drugs can cause mental deficits in children.
D) These drugs can cause bleeding and easy bruising in children.
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Chapter 20: Drugs That Affect Blood Clotting
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient prescribed an anticoagulant long term engages in all of the following activities.Which activity do you teach the patient to avoid?
A) Golfing
B) Bowling
C) Jumping rope
D) Walking 2 miles daily
Q2) Which techniques should you perform to prevent excessive bleeding when administering an intramuscular injection to a patient who is on anticoagulation therapy? (select all that apply)
A) Using the smallest possible injection needle
B) Injecting the drug slowly,over at least a 60-second period
C) Applying pressure to the site for at least 5 minutes after the injection
D) Ensuring that the needle is placed within a previous injection puncture site
E) Cleansing the skin at the injection site for at least 30 seconds before the injection
Q3) A child who weighs 48 lb has been ordered warfarin (Coumadin)0.1 mg/kg.The available drug is 1 mg/scored tablet.How many tablets will you give this child?
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22
Chapter 21: Drug Therapy for Asthma and Other Respiratory Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most important precaution to teach a patient about anti-inflammatory drugs used for respiratory problems?
A) To keep the drug with them at all times to use for sudden narrowing of the airways.
B) To take the drug daily,even when symptoms of airway obstruction are not present.
C) To avoid crowds and people who are ill because of the greatly increased risk for infection.
D) To brush their teeth at least four times daily to remove the drug from the mouth and improve taste.
Q2) A patient is prescribed to receive 90 mcg of levalbuterol (Xopenex)every 4 hours by oral inhalation.The available drug is levalbuterol 45 mcg/puff.How many total puffs will you tell this patient to take daily?
A) 4 puffs
B) 8 puffs
C) 12 puffs
D) 16 puffs
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Chapter 22: Drug Therapy for Gastrointestinal Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What types of drugs prevent or control nausea/vomiting?
A) Antiemetic drugs
B) Antimotility drugs
C) Antidiarrheal drugs
D) Antipropulsion drugs
Q2) A patient prescribed prochlorperazine (Compazine)has reddish-brown urine.What is your best action?
A) Collect a urine sample and send it for culture and sensitivity.
B) Check the patient's vital signs with special emphasis on body temperature.
C) Assess for signs of bleeding around the urethra.
D) Teach the patient that this is an expected side effect of the drug.
Q3) Which are potential complications of nausea/vomiting? (select all that apply)
A) Bleeding
B) Aortic aneurysm
C) Aspiration pneumonia
D) Bowel perforation
E) Reopening of surgical wounds
Q4) A child is prescribed metoclopramide (Reglan)8 mg by oral solution.The available drug solution is 5 mg/5 mL of solution.How many milliliters does the nurse administer?
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Chapter 23: Drug Therapy for Gastric Ulcers and Reflux
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Sample Questions
Q1) What common symptom do you expect to find in a patient with peptic ulcer disease?
A) Frequently vomiting bright red blood
B) Burning gnawing pain between the navel and sternum
C) Nausea with reflux before and after all meals
D) Dark coffee-ground textured stools
Q2) An adult patient is prescribed esomeprazole magnesium (Nexium)80 mg orally once daily.The pharmacy has esomeprazole magnesium (Nexium)40 mg tablets.How many tablets will you teach the patient to take for each dose?
Q3) Which precaution is important to teach a patient who plans to use over-the-counter cimetidine to help control gastroesophageal reflux disease?
A) "Watch your stools for changes that indicate bleeding such as bright red blood or a tarry appearance."
B) "Be sure to tell your health care provider that you are taking this drug."
C) "Avoid taking antacids while taking cimetidine."
D) "Always take cimetidine with a full meal."
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25
Chapter 24: Drug Therapy With Nutritional Supplements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which vitamin is eliminated the most slowly?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin X
Q2) A patient is prescribed to receive 240 mL of the supplemental feeding,Jevity,over 2 hours.At what rate in milliliters per hour will you set the feeding pump?
Q3) A patient with COPD is to receive Pulmocare at 40 mL/h.How many milliliters would you hang to cover 4 hours?
Q4) Which foods should you teach a patient who has a mild vitamin K deficiency to eat?
A) Eggs and fortified milk
B) Spinach and romaine lettuce
C) Sunflower seeds and almonds
D) Carrots,sweet potatoes,and pumpkin
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Chapter 25: Drug Therapy for Seizures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed clonazepam (Klonopin).Which adverse effect will you monitor for after giving this drug?
A) Respiratory depression
B) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
C) Angioedema
D) Epidermal necrolysis
Q2) Which temporary condition is considered a brief but expected response immediately after an individual has a seizure?
A) Residual muscle twitches
B) Low blood pressure
C) Unconsciousness
D) Confusion
Q3) Which organs can be badly damaged by valproic acid (Depakote)?
A) Eyes and ears
B) Skeletal muscles
C) Liver and pancreas
D) Brain and spinal cord
Q4) An infant is prescribed phenobarbital 4 mg/kg in an oral suspension.The infant weighs 11 lb.How many milligrams will you give?
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Chapter 26: Drug Therapy for Alzheimers and Parkinsons Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about Alzheimer's disease is true?
A) The causes of Alzheimer's disease are known but not treatable.
B) Physical deterioration occurs before intellectual deterioration.
C) The onset of the disorder is sudden and dramatic.
D) It is the most common form of dementia.
Q2) What are the major symptoms of Parkinson's disease? (select all that apply)
A) Bradycardia
B) Rigidity
C) Abnormal gait
D) Tremor at rest
E) Lack of facial expression
Q3) What is the minimum time period needed before reapplying a rotigotine patch to the same skin site?
A) 7 days
B) 14 days
C) 21 days
D) 28 days
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Drug Therapy for Psychiatric Problems
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which problem can be a side effect of antidepressants in children and adolescents?
A) Suicidal thoughts
B) Profound anemia
C) Craving for cigarettes
D) Severe hypertension
Q2) A patient is prescribed 30 mg of chlorpromazine (Thorazine)intramuscularly.The drug available is 25 mg/mL.How many milliliters will you draw into the syringe?
A) 0.8 mL
B) 1 mL
C) 1.2 mL
D) 1.4 mL
Q3) A patient with anxiety is prescribed oxazepam (Serax).What safety measures must you teach a patient taking this drug? (select all that apply)
A) Call for help when getting out of bed.
B) Use a walker for ambulation.
C) Assess gait for steadiness.
D) Change positions slowly.
E) Take two tablets whenever a dose is missed.
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Chapter 28: Drug Therapy for Insomnia
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug for insomnia can cause amnesia?
A) Amitriptyline (Elavil)
B) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
C) Temazepam (Restoril)
D) Trazodone (Desyrel)
Q2) Which drug can increase the risk for seizures in a patient who has epilepsy?
A) Pentobarbital (Nembutal)
B) Romazicon (Flumazenil)
C) Secobarbital (Seconal)
D) Triazolam (Halcion)
Q3) Which drugs used to treat insomnia belong to the benzodiazepine class? (select all that apply)
A) Chloral hydrate (Somnote)
B) Estazolam (ProSom)
C) Eszopiclone (Lunesta)
D) Flurazepam (Dalmane)
E) Secobarbital (Seconal)
F) Triazolam (Halcion)
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Chapter 29: Drug Therapy for Eye Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug group for glaucoma should be avoided in children long-term because they slow growth?
A) Adrenergic agonists
B) Beta blockers
C) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
D) Prostaglandin agonists
Q2) What is the most important precaution to teach the parents of a 4-year-old who is prescribed eye drops for glaucoma in the right eye as a result of facial trauma?
A) "Only place the drops in the affected eye."
B) "Check the eye for signs of infection daily."
C) "Keep sunglasses on the child for 1 hour after placing the drops."
D) "Refrigerate the drug to prevent a stinging sensation in the eye during instillation."
Q3) With which patient should a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor be avoided as a treatment of glaucoma?
A) A patient with reduced vision
B) A patient with sulfa allergy
C) A patient with hypertension
D) A patient with diabetes
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient taking methocarbamol (Robaxin)for skeletal muscle cramping reports facial flushing.How should you respond?
A) Tell the patient to go to the nearest emergency department.
B) Ask the patient whether he or she is taking any other drugs.
C) Notify the prescriber to obtain a prescription for a different drug.
D) Remind the patient that this is a mild side effect of the drug.
Q2) In what way do uric acid synthesis inhibitors reduce gout symptoms?
A) Increasing the amount of enzymes that enhance urinary excretion of uric acid
B) Suppressing the reabsorption of sodium and calcium by the kidney tubules
C) Decreasing the inflammation and pain caused by joint damage
D) Suppressing the conversion of purines into uric acid crystals
Q3) Which action is most important to teach a patient prescribed to take allopurinol (Zyloprim)daily for gout?
A) "Avoid operating heavy machinery."
B) "Drink plenty of water."
C) "Avoid alcohol and caffeine."
D) "Take the drug only when symptoms of gout are present."
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Drug Therapy for Male Reproductive Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which herbal preparation would you caution a patient prescribed a drug for erectile dysfunction to avoid?
A) St.John's wort
B) Saw palmetto
C) Ginkgo biloba
D) Valerian
Q2) What is the most common side effect of drugs used for benign prostate hypertrophy (BPH)?
A) Low blood pressure
B) Decreased libido
C) Light-headedness
D) Hair loss
Q3) Which statement about testosterone is accurate?
A) Testosterone levels begin to decrease around the age of 50 years.
B) Testosterone helps maintain male sexual characteristics.
C) Too much testosterone leads to decreased body muscle mass.
D) Adequate red blood cell levels are essential for production of testosterone.
Q4) A patient is prescribed testosterone (Cypionate)250 mg IM every 3 weeks.You have testosterone 100 mg/1 mL.How many milliliters will you give with each dose?
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Chapter 32: Drug Therapy for Female Reproductive Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does estrogen-based hormone replacement therapy (HRT)reduce perimenopausal symptoms?
A) By inhibiting ovulation and implantation.
B) By making periods more regular and predictable.
C) By inhibiting excessive secretion of follicle stimulating hormone.
D) By increasing the rate of normal involution and menopausal cessation.
Q2) Which brand name oral contraceptive contains drospirenone?
A) Camila
B) Ovral
C) Yasmin
D) Zovia
Q3) A woman who is hospitalized overnight after surgery usually takes Premarin 2.5 mg daily for control of perimenopausal symptoms.Her prescriber orders a one-time dose of Premarin 2.5 mg orally as soon as possible.The drug on hand is Premarin 0.625 mg/tablet.How many tablets should you administer?
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