Pharmacology for Dental Hygienists
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
This course provides dental hygiene students with a foundational understanding of pharmacology as it applies to dental practice. Students will explore the principles of drug action, pharmacokinetics, and pharmacodynamics, emphasizing medications commonly encountered in the dental setting. The curriculum covers local anesthetics, analgesics, antibiotics, antimicrobials, and agents used in medical emergencies, as well as the pharmacological management of oral diseases. Additionally, students will learn about drug interactions, adverse effects, and the implications of patients medication histories on dental treatments, preparing them to provide safe and effective care within the dental hygiene scope of practice.
Recommended Textbook
Applied Pharmacology for the Dental Hygienist 7th Edition by Haveles
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27 Chapters
1027 Verified Questions
1027 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Information Sources, Regulatory Agencies, Drug
Legislation, and Prescription Writing
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Knowledge of pharmacology aids the dental professional in:
A) obtaining a patient's health history.
B) administering drugs in the office.
C) handling emergency situations.
D) lifelong learning.
E) all of the above.
Answer: E
Q2) The federal body that determines whether a drug is considered a controlled substance and to which schedule it belongs is the:
A) Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
B) Federal Trade Commission (FTC).
C) Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA).
D) United States Pharmacopeia (USP).
Answer: C
Q3) The body of a prescription includes directions to the patient.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Drug Action and Handling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term refers to the time required for a drug to begin to have its effect?
A) First pass
B) Duration
C) Onset
D) Efficacy
Answer: C
Q2) The route of administration of a drug affects both the onset and duration of response.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) When a drug has affinity for a receptor and produces no effect, it is called a(n):
A) agonist.
B) competitive antagonist.
C) competitive agonist.
D) physiologic agonist.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Adverse Reactions
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19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A genetically related abnormal drug response is called a(n):
A) toxic reaction.
B) idiosyncratic reaction.
C) side effect.
D) drug allergy.
Answer: B
Q2) An acute, life-threatening allergic reaction characterized by hypotension, bronchospasm, laryngeal edema, and cardiac arrhythmias is what type of hypersensitivity?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Answer: A
Q3) The greatest risk to the fetus from exposure to drugs occurs:
A) just before birth.
B) during the third trimester.
C) during the second trimester.
D) before pregnancy status is known.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Autonomic Drugs
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is not a relative contraindication or caution with the use of cholinergic agents?
A) Bronchial asthma
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Myasthenia gravis treated with neostigmine
D) Peptic ulcer
Q2) On administration of an agent, heart rate increases because of a direct effect on the heart. However, total peripheral resistance decreases dramatically. As a consequence, systolic blood pressure increases only slightly, and mean arterial pressure typically falls. This agent is:
A) epinephrine.
B) norepinephrine.
C) phenylephrine.
D) isoproterenol.
Q3) The S in SLUD stands for:
A) sympathetic.
B) salivation.
C) severe.
D) secretion.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Nonopioid (Nonnarcotic)Analgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the usual adult dosage of aspirin for the treatment of pain or fever?
A) 250 mg every 4 hours
B) 3 to 6 g per day
C) 650 mg every 4 hours
D) 800 mg every 4 hours
E) 160 mg per day
Q2) Prostaglandins sensitize pain receptors to:
A) diflunisal.
B) salsalate.
C) bradykinin.
D) ketoprofen.
Q3) Raising the pain threshold increases one's reaction to pain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A drug interaction between aspirin and _____ can result in significant bleeding.
A) probenecid
B) warfarin
C) methotrexate
D) sulfonylureas
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Chapter 6: Opioid (Narcotic)Analgesics and Antagonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do aspirin, acetaminophen, ibuprofen, and codeine have in common?
A) They are all antiinflammatory.
B) They are all analgesic.
C) They all inhibit platelet aggregation.
D) They are all antipyretic.
Q2) Tolerance occurs to the following effects of the opioids except which one?
A) Miosis
B) Analgesia
C) Respiratory depression
D) Nausea
E) Histamine release
Q3) Which one of the following conditions can be managed or treated with opioids?
A) Diarrhea
B) Depression
C) Infections
D) Hypertension
Q4) Combining an opioid with a nonopioid analgesic produces an additive analgesic effect with fewer adverse reactions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Antiinfective Agents
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81 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both the American Dental Association (ADA)and the American Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons (AAOS)continue to recommend that all patients receive antibiotic prophylaxis before certain dental procedures during the first _____ after total joint replacement.
A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 2 years
D) 7 years
Q2) Antiinfective agents can potentiate the effect of oral anticoagulants by interfering with the production of vitamin:
A) A.
B) D.
C) E.
D) K.
Q3) Which agent inhibits DNA gyrase?
A) Penicillin G
B) Erythromycin
C) Metronidazole
D) Ciprofloxacin
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Antifungal and Antiviral Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following groups of drugs used to treat HIV can interfere with the action of the HIV-infected cells?
A) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
C) Protease inhibitors
D) Both a and b
E) Both b and c
Q2) Which of the following two types of hepatitis account for almost two-thirds of all cases of hepatitis?
A) A and B
B) A and C
C) B and C
D) C and D
Q3) All currently available interferons are parenteral.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Oral candidal infections are often treatable with oral antifungal lozenges and rinses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following local anesthetics has the longest duration of action?
A) Lidocaine
B) Mepivacaine
C) Prilocaine
D) Bupivacaine
Q2) The rate of local anesthetic absorption is increased by the presence of local inflammation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The mechanism of local anesthetics involves action on:
A) myelinated nerve.
B) axons.
C) sodium channels.
D) both a and c.
E) both b and c.
Q4) Local anesthetics cross:
A) the placenta and blood-brain barrier.
B) the placenta but not the blood-brain barrier.
C) the blood-brain barrier but not the placenta.
D) neither the placenta nor the blood-brain barrier.
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Chapter 10: General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients should be instructed to fast before a dental procedure using nitrous oxide.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following intravenous general anesthetic agents can be administered intramuscularly (IM)?
A) Methohexital (Brevital)
B) Ketamine (Ketalar)
C) Diazepam (Valium)
D) Propofol (Diprivan)
Q3) Nitrous oxide has _____ onset and _____ solubility in blood.
A) rapid; high
B) rapid; low
C) slow; high
D) slow; low
Q4) The more soluble the anesthetic is in body tissues, the more rapid the onset and recovery will be.
A)True
B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Antianxiety Agents
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following habits should be followed to minimize insomnia except for one. Which one is the exception?
A) Light snack (warm milk)at bedtime
B) Awake at 6 AM even if sleep only began at 5 AM
C) Exercise within 3 hours of bedtime
D) Remaining in bed no longer than 20 minutes without sleeping
E) No smoking within 8 hours of bedtime
Q2) Some benzodiazepines are transformed in the body to active metabolites. The active metabolites are formed by phase II drug metabolism.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
Q3) Sedatives potentiate analgesic agents.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Anxiety control is only necessary for the first third of a dental appointment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Oral Conditions and Their Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibiotics should be considered for the treatment of ANUG:
A) for all patients.
B) for all adult patients but not for children.
C) only if the patient is running a fever.
D) only if the patient is immunocompromised or if evidence of systemic involvement exists.
Q2) Acyclovir ointment is the treatment of choice for primary and recurrent herpes labialis in immunocompetent patients. It is more effective than acyclovir cream in recurrent herpes.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) The statements and the reason are both correct but not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is accurate.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) Pericoronitis most commonly applies to partially erupted:
A) incisors.
B) premolars.
C) first molars.
D) third molars.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Hygiene-Related Oral Disorders
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of the use of chlorhexidine rinse for the treatment of gingivitis?
A) Chlorhexidine is active against gram-positive but not gram-negative bacteria.
B) Chlorhexidine is subject to bacterial resistance.
C) Chlorhexidine binds to the bacterial cell membrane and increases its permeability.
D) Chlorhexidine is used prophylactically.
Q2) Some topical fluoride products are marketed as 1-minute in-office applications. Clinical trials have proved that they are as effective as the 4-minute applications.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
Q3) Experts recommend that fluoride applications remain in place for:
A) 30 seconds.
B) 1 minute.
C) 2 minutes.
D) 4 minutes.
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15
Chapter 14: Drugs for the Treatment of Cardiovascular Disease
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86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients taking antihypertensive agents who have been supine for some time should be slowly raised from that position. They should dangle their legs over the side of the chair and wiggle them before rising to the standing position.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
Q2) Which of the following antibiotics can increase the toxicity of digoxin in some patients? (Select all that apply.)
A) Penicillin
B) Erythromycin
C) Tetracycline
D) Metronidazole
E) Ampicillin
Q3) Which agent is most likely to cause xerostomia?
A) Losartan
B) Clonidine
C) Enalapril
D) Atenolol
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Chapter 15: Drugs for the Treatment of Gastrointestinal Disorders
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are actions of metoclopramide except which one?
A) Decreases peristalsis by acting directly on smooth muscle of the gastrointestinal tract
B) Blocks the action of dopamine
C) Accelerates gastric emptying time
D) Increases the tone of the lower esophageal sphincter
Q2) Sucralfate can be thought of as a "bandage" for ulcers because it inhibits the action of pepsin and absorbs the bile salts.
A) Both parts of the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both parts of the statement and the reason are correct, but not related.
C) Both parts of the statement are correct, but the reason is not.
D) Both parts of the statement are not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) Newer types of combination therapy for treating ulcers often combine an antibiotic with a(n):
A) hyperosmotic laxative.
B) proton pump inhibitor.
C) antacid.
D) prostaglandin.
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Chapter 16: Drugs for the Treatment of Seizure Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cause of phenytoin gingival enlargement is:
A) inhibition of fibroblast activity.
B) accumulation of hemosiderin.
C) alteration of chemotaxis.
D) unknown.
Q2) Lamotrigine is an effective treatment for myoclonic seizures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Vitamin C is an effective adjunctive therapy for gingival enlargement.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Surgical intervention to reduce phenytoin-induced gingival enlargement should wait until at least 18 months after cessation of therapy because:
A) the drug remains in circulation for at least 2 years.
B) some patients experience additional reduction in the enlargement after the 1-year period.
C) excessive sclerosis will result from earlier intervention.
D) treating the situation earlier than that will lead to excessive hemorrhage.
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18
Chapter 17: Drugs for the Treatment of Central Nervous
System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) First-generation antipsychotics are primarily _____ antagonists.
A) acetylcholine
B) norepinephrine
C) dopamine
D) serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine)
Q2) Interaction of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)with many drugs such as amphetamines, and with foods such as wines, cheese, and fish, can precipitate:
A) hair loss.
B) hypertensive crisis.
C) gout.
D) dysgeusia.
Q3) The type of depression that exhibits alternating periods of depression and excitation have a(n)_____ disorder.
A) endogenous
B) exogenous
C) manic-depressive
D) reactive
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Adrenocorticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Without stress, the normal adult secretes approximately _____ of hydrocortisone daily.
A) 20 mg
B) 40 mg
C) 5 mg
D) 40 mg.
E) 10 mg
Q2) Of the following agents listed, which is the most potent in glucocorticoid activity?
A) Hydrocortisone (Cortaid, Anusol, Hytone, Dermacort, Penecort, Cetacort)
B) Fluocinolone acetonide (Synalar)
C) Betamethasone valerate (Valisone)
D) Triamcinolone acetonide (Aristocort)
E) Clobetasol propionate (Temovate)
Q3) Levels of endogenous corticosteroids can increase tenfold in response to an especially stressful stimulus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Drugs for the Treatment of Respiratory Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first line of treatment for intermittent asthma is a:
A) short-acting -adrenergic agonist.
B) long-acting -adrenergic agonist.
C) corticosteroid.
D) mast cell degranulation inhibitor.
E) methylxanthine.
Q2) A spacer is often placed between the metered dose inhaler and the mouth to decrease the amount of drug delivered to the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In status asthmaticus, patients have persistent life-threatening:
A) tachycardia.
B) stomach ulcers.
C) bronchospasm.
D) electrolyte imbalance.
Q4) Asthma may be precipitated by (1)allergens, (2)exercise, (3)stress.
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 2
C) 1, 3
D) 2, 3
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Chapter 20: Drugs for the Treatment of Allergic Rhinitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term _______ refers to agents that are H -blockers.
A) histamine
B) antihistamine
C) adrenergic
D) cholinergic
Q2) The H -receptor antagonists have varying cholinergic effects.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following types of drugs is known to increase intraocular pressure if inadvertently placed in the eye?
A) Mast cell stabilizer
B) Antihistamine
C) Intranasal anticholinergic
D) Leukotriene modifier
Q4) Cromolyn sodium works by blocking acetylcholine receptors.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Allergic rhinitis is primarily associated with immunoglobulin A.
A)True
B)False
22
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Chapter 21: Drugs for the Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hemoglobin A1C level should be more than 50% to reduce the incidence and progression of microvascular complications in patients with diabetes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)recommends checking serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT)levels before starting therapy with _____ and periodically thereafter.
A) biguanides
B) thiazolidinediones
C) -glucosidase inhibitors
D) nonsulfonylurea secretagogues
Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding systemic complications of diabetes?
A) Hypolipidemia is common in patients with diabetes.
B) Neuropathy is a complication of diabetes.
C) Gangrene can occur in peripheral extremities.
D) Both a and b are true.
E) Both b and c are true.
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Chapter 22: Drugs for the Treatment of Other Endocrine Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synthetics analogs of vasopressin, a posterior pituitary hormone, may be used to treat diabetes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hypopituitarism can produce:
A) goiter.
B) acromegaly.
C) diabetes insipidus.
D) giantism.
Q3) Increases in estrogen and progestin levels are associated with which oral lesion?
A) Aphthous stomatitis
B) Caries
C) Gingivitis
D) Increased tooth mobility
E) Lichen planus
Q4) Hormones from the opposite sex are often used to manage prostate, breast, and uterine cancers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Antineoplastic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a cell-cycle nonspecific antineoplastic agent is:
A) bleomycin.
B) cisplatin.
C) methotrexate.
D) vincristine.
Q2) Bisphosphonate related osteonecrosis of the jaw (BRONJ)is most likely to occur after which of the following dental procedures?
A) Crown preparation
B) Endodontic treatment
C) Tooth extraction
D) Prophylaxis
Q3) Bisphosphonate related osteonecrosis of the jaw (BRONJ)is an area of bone that has been exposed in the mouth:
A) for more than eight weeks to a bisphosphonate.
B) following radiation therapy for head and neck cancer.
C) as a consequence of necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis (NUP).
D) under an ill-filling partial or complete denture.
Q4) Antineoplastic agents stimulate the immune system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Emergency Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most dental offices are well equipped to treat cardiac arrhythmias.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following actions are indicated for the management of acute airway obstruction except which one?
A) Placing the patient in a Trendelenburg position
B) Clearing the pharynx and pulling the tongue forward
C) Allowing the patient to sit upright
D) Administering the Heimlich maneuver
E) Performing cricothyrotomy
Q3) Convulsions are generally self-limiting, and treatment should include protecting the patient from self-harm.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tepid baths and aspirin are indicated for:
A) myocardial infarction.
B) thyroid storm.
C) acute adrenocortical insufficiency.
D) all of the above.
E) none of the above.
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Chapter 25: Pregnancy and Breast Feeding
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Q1) Metronidazole:
A) should only be used during the second trimester of pregnancy.
B) is expressly contraindicated for the nursing mother.
C) has been shown to produce birth defects in animals.
D) Both a and b are correct.
E) Both b and c are correct.
Q2) Which of the following antiinfective agents is regarded as safe to use during pregnancy?
A) Doxycycline
B) Azithromycin
C) Minocycline
D) Amoxicillin
Q3) Benzodiazepines are indicated for the treatment of _____ during pregnancy.
A) anxiety during oral surgery procedures
B) discomfort during scaling and root planing procedures
C) status epilepticus
D) both a and b
E) both b and c
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Chapter 26: Drug Abuse
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Q1) What is the primary reason why treatment can be dangerous with an active methamphetamine user?
A) The person may be psychotic.
B) The person may become paranoid and bite the operator.
C) The use of local anesthetic can intensify the cardiac effects of meth.
D) The sound of the dental drill can cause the patient to become agitated.
Q2) Advanced periodontal disease, jaundice, and palmar erythema are signs of:
A) smokeless tobacco use.
B) Wernicke encephalopathy.
C) advanced alcoholic liver disease.
D) chronic nitrous oxide use.
Q3) Tolerance is characterized by the need to _____ the dose continually to achieve a desired effect or providing the same dose that produces a(n)_____ effect.
A) increase; increasing
B) increase; diminishing
C) decrease; increasing
D) decrease; diminishing
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28
Chapter 27: Natural/Herbal Products and Dietary Supplements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding the safety of herbal and nutritional products?
A) Some products may have potential therapeutic effects.
B) The majority cause adverse effects and drug interactions.
C) Noting the use of herbal products by the patient in his or her chart is unnecessary.
D) Both a and b are true.
E) Both b and c are true.
Q2) Which of the following oral and dental effects have been observed with herbal medications? (Select all that apply.)
A) Intraoral hemorrhage
B) Xerostomia
C) Oral candidiasis
D) Stomatitis
Q3) The FDA inspects all manufacturing facilities of herbal products for compliance. A)True
B)False
Q4) Herbal products will not interact with conventional drugs.
A)True
B)False
29
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