Pharmacology for Allied Health Review Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an introduction to pharmacology with a focus on concepts relevant to allied health professions. Students will explore the basic principles of drug action, absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. The course covers the major drug classes, their therapeutic uses, mechanisms of action, side effects, and implications for patient care. Emphasis is placed on safety, dosage calculations, medication administration, and the role of allied health professionals in monitoring and educating patients about pharmacological therapies.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Pharmacology 2nd Edition by Workman
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32 Chapters
1305 Verified Questions
1305 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Drug Regulation, Actions, and Responses
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49270
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the weight in pounds for an individual who weighs 70 kg? _____lb
Answer: 154
1 kg = 2.2 lb;70 11ea681a_435c_e10b_b611_a9ed3a6aed86_TB1177_11 2.2 = 154 lb.
Q2) A 25-year-old patient is prescribed a drug for acne for 6 months that is teratogenic.Which precaution is most important to teach this patient?
A) "Drugs with this classification reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives and you will need to switch to another form of birth control to prevent pregnancy."
B) "One side effect of drugs with this classification is nausea,which will make morning sickness more severe if you become pregnant while taking this drug."
C) "Use two reliable forms of birth control during the next 6 months because drugs with this classification cause severe birth defects."
D) "Your risk for sexually transmitted diseases is increased while taking this drug and for 3 months after therapy is completed."
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Safely Preparing and Giving Drugs
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prescriber orders all of the following drugs for a patient who had surgery 2 days ago.Which drug order should you administer first?
A) Alphamine (cyanocobalamin)100 mcg intramuscularly once
B) Benadryl (diphenhydramine)25 mg orally every 8 hours
C) Compazine (prochlorperazine)10 mg orally STAT
D) Dalmane (flurazepam)30 mg orally at night PRN
Answer: C
Q2) Which needle position is best for an intradermal injection?
A) Bevel side to the right
B) Bevel side to the left
C) Bevel side down
D) Bevel side up
Answer: D
Q3) What is the correct position for a sublingual tablet?
A) As far back on the top of the tongue as possible without swallowing it
B) Between the cheek and the gum of the upper teeth
C) Between the cheek and the gum of the lower teeth
D) Under the front of the tongue
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Mathematics Review and Introduction to Dosage Calculation
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is 12% of 60?
A) 5
B) 7.2
C) 10.6
D) 12.8
Answer: B
Q2) Which decimal represents the smallest part of a whole?
A) 0.2
B) 0.15
C) 0.085
D) 0.85
Answer: C
Q3) Which fraction is reduced to its lowest common denominator?
A) 3/17
B) 4/8
C) 2/20
D) 5/15
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Medical Systems of Weights and Measures
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of information is measured in liters?
A) Distance
B) Weight
C) Liquid
D) Temperature
Q2) What technique should you use when measuring a liquid drug in a medicine cup to ensure an accurate dose?
A) Hold the cup at eye level while pouring the drug.
B) Hold the cup below eye level while pouring the drug.
C) Hold the cup above eye level while pouring the drug.
D) Use a syringe to draw up the drug and then place it in the medicine cup.
Q3) What is the weight in kilograms for a patient who weighs 185 lb?
A) 407.1
B) 203.5
C) 92.5
D) 84.1
Q4) For the patient who is to receive 5 mg of amphotericin B,the order indicates to administer it by slow intravenous infusion over 6 hours at a concentration of 0.01 mg/mL.How many milliliters of dextrose 5% in water will be needed to make a concentration of 0.01 mg/mL?
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Chapter 5: Dosage Calculation of Intravenous Solutions and Drugs
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term describes how much fluid is to be infused intravenously?
A) Rate
B) Infusion
C) Volume
D) Duration
Q2) A patient is to receive 100 mL of normal saline over the next 5 hours with microdrip
tubing.How many drops per minute are required to infuse this fluid in the prescribed time?
_____ gtt per minute
Q3) On an infusion pump,what does the abbreviation "VTBI" indicate?
A) Amount of fluid already infused
B) Amount of fluid remaining in the bag or bottle
C) Total amount of fluid prescribed for the day
D) How fast the infusion should be run
Q4) What sign or symptom is an indication of IV extravasation?
A) Fever
B) Purulent drainage
C) Pain at the infusion site
D) Strong blood return when the IV bag is positioned below the level of the IV site
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Chapter 6: Anti-Inflammatory Drugs
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which side effect of corticosteroid therapy is permanent even after the drug is stopped?
A) Difficulty sleeping
B) Stretch marks
C) Weight gain
D) Moon face
Q2) Which statement about corticosteroid use and pediatric patients is true?
A) Adrenal atrophy does not occur during long-term use because this organ is younger and healthier in children.
B) Because these drugs slow cell division,they can interfere with normal growth and are not used in children.
C) Children are at the same risk for every side effect of long-term corticosteroid use that adults experience.
D) Drug doses are usually higher than for adults because children metabolize corticosteroids faster than adults.
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8
Chapter 7: Drugs for Pain Control
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How long must pain be present to be considered "chronic pain?"
A) 6 days
B) 6 weeks
C) 6 months
D) 6 years
Q2) You are administering the first dose of an opioid drug to a patient.Which specific related actions should you take before and after giving the dose?
A) Ask if the patient is allergic to sulfa drugs and monitor for a reaction after giving the drug.
B) Place the patient on bed rest before giving the drug and keep him or her on bed rest after to avoid accidental falling.
C) Check the patient's respiratory rate and oxygen saturation before and after giving the drug and monitor for respiratory depression.
D) Administer a drug such as naloxone (Narcan)both before and after giving the opioid drug to prevent respiratory depression.
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Chapter 8: Anti-Infectives: Antibacterial Drugs
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62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition is most likely to lead to antibacterial drug resistance?
A) Having a parent with antibacterial drug resistance
B) Receiving prolonged antibacterial drug therapy
C) Taking an antibacterial drug for the very first time
D) Being allergic to a specific antibacterial drug
Q2) Which precaution is most important to teach a patient who has been prescribed sulfisoxizole (Gantrisin)?
A) Evenly space this drug throughout the 24-hour day.
B) Take the drug 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal.
C) Drink at least 3 L of liquids throughout the day.
D) Stop the drug immediately if diarrhea develops.
Q3) A patient is to receive linezolid (Zyvox)300 mg orally.You have on hand linezolid tablets of 600 mg/tablet.How many tablets will you give for a 300 mg dose?
A) 3 tablets
B) 2 tablets
C) 1 tablet
D) 0.5 tablet
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Chapter 9: Anti-Infectives: Antiviral Drugs
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed to receive 300 mg of ribavirin by oral suspension.The drug on hand is ribavirin oral suspension with a concentration of 50 mg/mL.How many milliliters will you prepare as the correct dose?
Q2) Which problem is a sign or symptom of an allergic or anaphylactic response to an antiviral drug?
A) Nausea
B) Vivid dreams
C) Intolerance to fatty foods
D) Swelling of the face or throat
Q3) For what reason does adefovir dipivoxil have a black box warning?
A) It induces type 2 diabetes mellitus.
B) It increases the severity of hepatitis B symptoms.
C) It is highly toxic to both the liver and the kidneys.
D) It has a high likelihood of increasing the risk for birth defects and fetal damage.
Q4) A child who is HIV positive and weighs 40 lb is prescribed to receive atazanavir (Reyataz)at a dose of 7 mg/kg.The drug on hand is a premixed oral suspension of 50 mg/60 mL.How many milliliters will you prepare as the correct dose?
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11
Chapter 10: Anti-Infectives: Antitubercular and Antifungal Drugs
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been prescribed flucytosine (Ancobon)reports reduced sensation in the fingers and toes.What is your best action?
A) Document the report as the only action.
B) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber.
C) Remind the patient to continue the drug as usual and to take a multiple vitamin daily.
D) Reassure the patient that this is an expected drug side effect and to use injury precautions.
Q2) A patient prescribed a systemic antifungal drug reports a change in how food tastes.What is your best action?
A) Document the report as the only action.
B) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber immediately.
C) Caution the patient to wear sunglasses and a hat when outside.
D) Reassure the patient that this is a common side effect of the drug.
Q3) Which drug must a patient be taught to avoid during TB drug therapy?
A) Aspirin
B) Ibuprofen
C) Acetaminophen
D) Iron supplements
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Chapter 11: Drugs That Affect the Immune System
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug is administered as an oral agent?
A) Antithymocyte globulin (Atgam)
B) Basiliximab (Simulect)
C) Sirolimus (Rapamune)
D) Daclizumab (Zenapax)
Q2) How are vaccination and immunization related?
A) They are actually the same thing.
B) They are completely unrelated to each other.
C) The outcome of successful vaccination is immunization.
D) The outcome of successful immunization is vaccination.
Q3) With which drug is it important to assess the patient's lipid levels?
A) Azathioprine (Imuran)
B) Basiliximab (Simulect)
C) Tacrolimus (Prograf)
D) Sirolimus (Rapamune)
Q4) A child who weighs 78 lb is prescribed to receive azathioprine (Imuran)2 mg/kg intravenously.The solution available is azathioprine 100 mg/10 mL.How many milliliters will you prepare for a correct dose?
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Anticancer Drugs
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is therapy with biological response modifiers (BRMs)different from targeted therapy?
A) There is no difference;the terms mean the same thing.
B) Targeted therapy only works on cancers that are inherited and BRMs work on all cancers.
C) BRMs are administered as oral agents whereas targeted therapies must be injected directly into the tumor to be effective.
D) BRMs affect the general immune response of anyone who takes the drug and targeted therapies only work in cancer cells that have a specific target.
Q2) Which action is most important to perform the first time a patient receives intravenous chemotherapy?
A) Close the door to the room and do not let children visit.
B) Wear a gown,mask,and gloves while taking vital signs.
C) Stay with the patient during the first 15 minutes of the infusion.
D) Be sure that two units of blood for the patient are on the unit before starting the infusion.
Q3) Calculate the meter square body surface area for a man who is 5 feet 9 inches tall and weighs 157 lb.
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Chapter 13: Drug Therapy for Diabetes
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What makes insulin a "high-alert" drug?
A) Many people are very allergic to insulin.
B) Serious harm can occur if the wrong dose is given.
C) If too much insulin is given,the respiratory system is depressed.
D) If too much insulin is given,the blood glucose level could climb to dangerously high levels.
Q2) Which drug therapy class is considered the treatment of choice for people who have gestational diabetes mellitus?
A) Insulin
B) Insulin sensitizers
C) Thiazolidinediones
D) Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
Q3) Why should you avoid aspirating the syringe before injecting an insulin dose?
A) There are no blood vessels in subcutaneous tissue.
B) The needle is too thin to penetrate the wall of a vein.
C) Tissue can be damaged by pulling it into the needle.
D) Aspirating blood into the syringe affects insulin activity.
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15
Chapter 14: Drug Therapy for Thyroid and Adrenal Gland
Problems
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid)and a fiber supplement.What key point would you be sure to teach the patient about these drugs?
A) "Take the drugs together as there are no interactions between them."
B) "Be sure to take the fiber supplement 2 hours before a meal and the levothyroxine 3 hours after a meal."
C) "Take the fiber supplement in the morning with breakfast and the levothyroxine in the evening before you go to bed."
D) "Do not take the drugs together because a fiber supplement will decrease the absorption of your levothyroxine."
Q2) Which precaution is most important to teach a patient taking fludrocortisone (Florinef)?
A) "Weigh yourself daily and keep a record."
B) "Avoid aspirin and aspirin-containing drugs."
C) "Increase your intake of carbohydrates while taking this drug."
D) "Do not take prednisone or prednisolone while taking this drug."
Q3) A 6-year-old child is being started on levothyroxine (Synthroid)intravenously and is prescribed 5 mcg/kg.The child weighs 32lb.The drug vial contains 100 mcg/mL.How many milliliters should you draw up for a correct dose?
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Chapter 15: Drugs That Affect Urine Output
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are to administer 20 mg of furosemide (Lasix)to a patient by the intravenous (IV)route.Which action is most important for you to take?
A) Give the drug slowly over at least 2 minutes.
B) Check the patient carefully for symptoms of low blood glucose levels.
C) Mix the drug with potassium chloride to prevent a rapid drop in serum potassium levels.
D) Monitor the IV site after giving the drug because furosemide causes severe tissue damage if infiltration occurs.
Q2) A patient with overactive bladder has been prescribed tolterodine (Detrol).While assessing the patient,you discover the presence of the following health problems.For which problem should you contact the prescriber and question the drug order?
A) Asthma
B) Glaucoma
C) Hypotension
D) Diabetes mellitus
Q3) The adult patient is prescribed 100 mg of hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ [Oretic])in 2 divided doses per day.HCTZ is available on 25 mg tablets.How many tablets per dose will you give the patient?
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17
Chapter 16: Drug Therapy for Hypertension
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What condition is a major cause of long-term high blood pressure?
A) Atherosclerosis
B) Bleeding disorders
C) Chronic liver disease
D) Diabetes insipidus
Q2) A 38-year-old patient has been prescribed nadolol (Corgard)80 mg daily for hypertension.The patient tells you that he has stopped taking the drug.What is your best first action at this time?
A) Instruct the patient to begin taking the drug immediately.
B) Ask the patient if he is experiencing side effects of the drug.
C) Document this finding in detail.
D) Immediately notify the prescriber.
Q3) Which action or precaution is most important for before giving any type of drug for hypertension?
A) Check the patient's blood pressure.
B) Ensure that the patient is in a sitting position.
C) Check the patient's pulse for regularity.
D) Have the patient drink a full glass of water.
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18
Chapter 17: Drug Therapy for Heart Failure
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin)0.03 mg as a liquid dose.The drug on hand is digoxin 0.05 mg/mL.How many milliliters do you give?
Q2) What is the most important reason intravenous potassium is considered a high alert drug?
A) When intravenous potassium is administered at too low a dose its mechanism of action is greatly reduced.
B) Intravenous potassium is a highly irritating solution and can cause significant pain or burning at the infusion site.
C) Administering too much intravenous potassium or administering it too quickly may cause life-threatening problems.
D) Excessive blood potassium levels can lead to nausea,vomiting,severe diarrhea,abdominal cramping,and other intestinal problems.
Q3) Which symptom is commonly assessed when a patient has left ventricular heart failure?
A) Weight gain
B) Swelling in the legs
C) Jugular vein distention
D) Crackles in the lungs
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Chapter 18: Drug Therapy for Dysrhythmias
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed intravenous (IV)adenosine (Adenocard)for treatment of supraventricular tachycardia.Which safety precaution is most important to perform before this drug is administered?
A) Bring the crash cart and defibrillator to the patient's bedside.
B) Make sure that all four bed side rails are in the upright position.
C) Place the patient's bed in the lowest position.
D) Continuously monitor blood pressure.
Q2) The prescriber orders atropine 0.3 mg IV push for an adult patient with symptomatic bradycardia.What is your best action?
A) Contact the prescriber and question the order.
B) Give the drug exactly as prescribed.
C) Administer a prepared amp of 1 mg atropine in 5 mL NS.
D) Give half an amp of prepared atropine 1 mg in 5 mL NS.
Q3) Nausea,vomiting,and an irregular heart rate develop in a patient who takes oral digoxin every morning.What is your best action?
A) Give prescribed promethazine (Phenergan)as needed.
B) Check the patient's cardiac monitor strip.
C) Assess the apical pulse for a full minute.
D) Check laboratory results for a digoxin level.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Drug Therapy for High Blood Lipids
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the expected and intended responses for nicotinic acid agents? (select all that apply)
A) Total cholesterol is decreased.
B) Total triglyceride level is increased.
C) LDL cholesterol level is decreased.
D) VLDL cholesterol is increased.
E) HDL cholesterol level is increased.
Q2) Which statement by a patient who has been prescribed an antilipidemic drug indicates the need for additional teaching?
A) "Once my lipid profile levels are normal,I will no longer need to take the drug."
B) "Taking this drug will decrease my risk for having a heart attack."
C) "My goal is to increase my HDL cholesterol and decrease my LDL cholesterol."
D) "I will continue walking and watching the fat in my diet while I'm taking this drug."
Q3) A patient is prescribed to receive simvastatin (Zocor)60 mg orally.The drug on hand is simvastatin 40 mg/scored tablet.How many tablets should you give for the correct dose?
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Chapter 20: Drugs That Affect Blood Clotting
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which category of drugs actually dissolves existing clots?
A) Heparins
B) Coagulants
C) Antiplatelets
D) Thrombolytics
Q2) A patient who has been receiving heparin subcutaneously for 3 weeks has all of the following laboratory blood test values.Which value should you report immediately to the prescriber?
A) Activated partial thromboplastin time 1.5
B) International normalized ratio (INR)1.7
C) Red blood cells 4.2 million/mm<sup>3</sup>
D) Platelets 20,000/mm<sup>3</sup>
Q3) What health problem is a possible side effect of erythropoiesis-stimulating agent (ESA)therapy?
A) Increased risk for infection
B) Low blood pressure
C) Hypertension
D) Anemia
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Chapter 21: Drug Therapy for Asthma and Other Respiratory Problems
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 75-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)is prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva),an inhaled drug that must be loaded into a HandiHaler with each dose.The patient has all of the following health problems.For which problem do you suggest to the prescriber that this drug may not be appropriate?
A) Reduced hearing
B) Visual impairment
C) Chronic high blood pressure
D) Arthritis of hands and knees
Q2) Which type of problem narrows the airways by tightening bronchial smooth muscle?
A) Alveoli
B) Emphysema
C) Chronic bronchitis
D) Bronchoconstriction
Q3) Which type of asthma problem is helped most by bronchodilator drugs?
A) Thick mucus
B) Mucosal swelling
C) Bronchoconstriction
D) Large,flabby alveoli
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Chapter 22: Drug Therapy for Gastrointestinal Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient prescribed prochlorperazine (Compazine)has reddish-brown urine.What is your best action?
A) Collect a urine sample and send it for culture and sensitivity.
B) Check the patient's vital signs with special emphasis on body temperature.
C) Assess for signs of bleeding around the urethra.
D) Teach the patient that this is an expected side effect of the drug.
Q2) When should metoclopramide (Reglan)be taken?
A) 1 hour before meals and at bedtime
B) 30 minutes before meals and at bedtime
C) 30 minutes after meals and at bedtime
D) 1 hour after meals and at bedtime
Q3) Which drug for nausea/vomiting can cause decreased sweating and increased risk for overheating?
A) Meclizine (Antivert)
B) Ondansetron (Zofran)
C) Trimethobenzamide (Tigan)
D) Prochlorperazine (Compazine)
Q4) A child is prescribed metoclopramide (Reglan)8 mg by oral solution.The available drug solution is 5 mg/5 mL of solution.How many milliliters does the nurse administer?
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Chapter 23: Drug Therapy for Gastric Ulcers and Reflux
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which precaution is most important to teach a patient who is prescribed rabeprazole (Aciphex)?
A) "Wear a hat and sunscreen outdoors to prevent sunburn."
B) "Take this drug 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal."
C) "Drink at least 3 L of fluid daily to prevent constipation."
D) "Avoid eating raw fruits and vegetables while taking this drug."
Q2) A patient is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec)40 mg orally for 6 weeks.For which common side effects will you monitor after giving this drug?
A) Shortness of breath and increased respiratory rate
B) Burning and itching with urination attempts
C) Muscle aches and pains
D) Diarrhea and gas
Q3) What common symptom do you expect to find in a patient with peptic ulcer disease?
A) Frequently vomiting bright red blood
B) Burning gnawing pain between the navel and sternum
C) Nausea with reflux before and after all meals
D) Dark coffee-ground textured stools
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Chapter 24: Drug Therapy With Nutritional Supplements
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving supplemental enteral feedings with Osmolite,1 can three times a day between meals.For which main side effect should you monitor?
A) Constipation
B) Nausea
C) Vomiting
D) Diarrhea
Q2) Which enteral supplemental feedings are specialized formulas? (select all that apply)
A) Optimental
B) NutriHep
C) Glytrol
D) Osmolite
E) Nepro
F) Jevity
G) Pulmocare
Q3) Which substance should a patient avoid when prescribed a potassium supplement?
A) Table salt
B) Salt substitutes
C) Garlic salt
D) Onion salt
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Chapter 25: Drug Therapy for Seizures
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed lamotrigine for seizure control.The drug received from the pharmacy is Lamisil.What is your best action?
A) Administer the drug as prescribed.
B) Hold the dose and call the pharmacy immediately.
C) Ask the patient whether he or she recognizes the tablet.
D) Notify the prescriber that the usual brand of lamotrigine is not available.
Q2) How does carbamazepine (Tegretol)work to decrease seizure activity?
A) Increasing the amount of the neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)present in the brain
B) Decreasing the amount of the neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)present in the brain
C) Slowing electrical impulse conduction in the brain by altering sodium channels
D) Slowing electrical impulse conduction in the brain by altering calcium channels
Q3) A child who weighs 56 lb is prescribed to receive lamotrigine (Lamictal)0.5 mg/kg as the first dose of the drug.The drug available is lamotrigine 5 mg/scored tablet.How many tablets should you prepare to administer for a correct dose?
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Chapter 26: Drug Therapy for Alzheimers and Parkinsons Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the major symptoms of Parkinson's disease? (select all that apply)
A) Bradycardia
B) Rigidity
C) Abnormal gait
D) Tremor at rest
E) Lack of facial expression
Q2) What problem is a possible adverse effect of memantine (Namenda)for Alzheimer's disease?
A) Seizures
B) Tachycardia
C) Severe hypertension
D) Peripheral neuropathy
Q3) Which problem is a common side effect of most drugs used to treat Parkinson's disease?
A) Asthma
B) Hypotension
C) Constipation
D) Weight gain
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Chapter 27: Drug Therapy for Psychiatric Problems
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49296
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed 30 mg of chlorpromazine (Thorazine)intramuscularly.The drug available is 25 mg/mL.How many milliliters will you draw into the syringe?
A) 0.8 mL
B) 1 mL
C) 1.2 mL
D) 1.4 mL
Q2) A patient is prescribed Ziprasidone (Geodon),80 mg twice a day.Tablets from the pharmacy are 20 mg per tablet.How many tablets will you give for each dose?
A) 2 tablets
B) 4 tablets
C) 6 tablets
D) 8 tablets
Q3) Which theory about the cause of depression is supported by research?
A) Heredity or genetics
B) Altered neuroendocrine function
C) Psychosocial factors
D) Neurotransmitter level imbalance
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Chapter 28: Drug Therapy for Insomnia
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49297
Sample Questions
Q1) A child who weighs 56 lb is prescribed to receive chloral hydrate 40 mg/kg.The available drug is 250 mg/5 mL.How many milliliters should you give for the correct dose?
Q2) Which drug can increase the risk for seizures in a patient who has epilepsy?
A) Pentobarbital (Nembutal)
B) Romazicon (Flumazenil)
C) Secobarbital (Seconal)
D) Triazolam (Halcion)
Q3) A patient taking a drug for insomnia reports becoming sunburned even when only minimally exposed to the sun.What is your best action?
A) Ask the patient whether he or she usually burns when exposed to the sun.
B) Instruct the patient to stop the drug and notify the prescriber immediately.
C) Teach the patient to use sunscreen and wear protective clothing when outdoors.
D) Document the report as the only action and reassure the patient that this problem is temporary.
Q4) An adult patient is prescribed 0.5 mg of triazolam (Halcion)as a one-time order.The available drug is triazolam 0.125 mg/tablet.How many tablets should be given?
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Drug Therapy for Eye Problems
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49298
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement regarding primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG)is true?
A) It is most common in children.
B) The major cause is trauma to the eye.
C) The problem usually affects both eyes.
D) The first symptom is chronic eye pain.
Q2) Which drug reduces the production of aqueous humor to the greatest degree?
A) Acetazolamide (Diamox)
B) Pilocarpine (Isopto)
C) Dipivefrin (AK-Pro)
D) Travoprost (Travatan)
Q3) A patient who has been prescribed echothiophate (Phospholine Iodide)for the last 2 weeks reports all of the following symptoms or conditions.Which symptom or condition should be reported immediately to the prescriber?
A) Excessive drooling
B) Pinpoint pupils
C) Cold hands
D) Dry mouth
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Chapter
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what way do uric acid synthesis inhibitors reduce gout symptoms?
A) Increasing the amount of enzymes that enhance urinary excretion of uric acid
B) Suppressing the reabsorption of sodium and calcium by the kidney tubules
C) Decreasing the inflammation and pain caused by joint damage
D) Suppressing the conversion of purines into uric acid crystals
Q2) Which process replaces new bone cells within bone to keep the bone dense?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Osteoblastic activity
C) Osteoclastic activity
D) Bone resorption of calcium
Q3) Which action is most important to teach a patient prescribed to take allopurinol (Zyloprim)daily for gout?
A) "Avoid operating heavy machinery."
B) "Drink plenty of water."
C) "Avoid alcohol and caffeine."
D) "Take the drug only when symptoms of gout are present."
Q4) A patient is prescribed to receive methocarbamol 300 mg by direct intravenous push.The drug available is a 10% solution of 1000 mg/10 mL.How many milliliters will you prepare to administer?
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Chapter 31: Drug Therapy for Male Reproductive Problems
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49300
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed tadalafil (Cialis).The pharmacy sends vardenafil (Levitra).What is your best action?
A) Give the drug because these drugs can be used interchangeably.
B) Notify the prescriber to clarify the order.
C) Ask the patient which drug he would prefer to take.
D) Contact the pharmacy and request the correct drug.
Q2) When a patient with prostate enlargement has urine in his bladder longer than normal,which adverse effect is likely to occur?
A) Interstitial cystitis
B) Bladder infection
C) Bladder stones
D) Overactive bladder
Q3) A patient is prescribed testosterone 100 mg IM every 4 weeks.What finding will you teach the patient to report to the prescriber immediately?
A) Blood pressure decrease of 10 mm Hg systolic
B) Urine output increase of 200 mL/day
C) Weight gain of 5 lb
D) Increased prostate size
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Chapter 32: Drug Therapy for Female Reproductive Issues
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49301
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient prescribed to take the oral contraceptive with the brand name Ortho Tri-Cyclen asks whether she should stop taking the pill for the 10 days that her husband is out of town on business.What is your best advice?
A) No,this drug's protection against pregnancy requires taking the drug as prescribed.
B) No,the hormonal confusion this would cause could result in an increased risk for blood clots.
C) Yes,if you would normally have your period any time during the 10 days that your husband is away.
D) Yes,it is very important that your body experience drug-free period from time to time to ensure optimal drug effect.
Q2) Which hormone levels in the blood are reduced as a result of taking hormone replacement therapy for menopause?
A) Estrogen and progesterone
B) Estrogen and follicle stimulating hormone
C) Gonadotrophin releasing hormone and progesterone
D) Follicle stimulating hormone and gonadotrophin releasing hormone
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