Pharmacology for Allied Health Question Bank
Course
Introduction
Pharmacology for Allied Health provides an essential introduction to the principles of pharmacology as they apply to various allied health professions. This course covers the basic concepts of drug action, pharmacokinetics, and pharmacodynamics, with an emphasis on commonly used medications in clinical practice. Students will explore drug classifications, therapeutic uses, side effects, interactions, and safe administration practices. The curriculum also addresses legal and ethical considerations, as well as the importance of patient education and adherence. Designed for students in nursing, physical therapy, occupational therapy, and related fields, this course prepares learners to safely and effectively assist in medication management within their scope of practice.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology An Introduction 7th Edition by Henry Hitner PhD
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46 Chapters
1602 Verified Questions
1602 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pharmacology
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following values can be derived from a drug-response curve and used to compare the potency of drugs that produce the same response?
A) Infusion rate
B) Half-life
C) Effective dose 50
D) Drug clearance
Answer: C
Q2) David is analyzing the drug-response relationships of two different drugs,drug A and drug B.Drug A and drug B belong to the same class of drugs.During his study,David discovers that drug A produces the ceiling effect at a much lower dosage than drug B.What does this imply?
A)Drug B is more potent than drug A.
B)Drug A is more potent than drug B.
C)The effective dose 50 (ED50)of drug B is lower than the ED50 of drug A.
D)Drug dosage and drug response are independent of each other.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics and Factors of Individual
Variation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the most likely reason why a patient who has been diagnosed with end-stage renal disease must have routine blood work drawn to check his plasma levels of a prescribed drug.
A) Due to the renal disease, the patient will be unable to effectively eliminate the drug, causing accumulation of the drug in the plasma.
B) Due to the renal disease, the patient will be unable to effectively metabolize the drug, causing low levels of the drug in the plasma.
C) Due to the renal disease, the patient will be unable to effectively absorb the drug, causing low levels of the drug in the plasma.
D) None of the above statements are correct.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following routes of drug administration has the slowest onset of action?
A) Inhalation
B) Transdermal
C) Intramuscular
D) Sublingual
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Geriatric Pharmacology
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A decrease in renal function is associated with:
A) an increase in the rate of drug excretion.
B) an increase in the duration of the drug action.
C) a decrease in the intensity of the drug action.
D) a decrease in the rate of drug metabolism.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following physiological changes in an elderly patient lowers the rate of drug metabolism?
A) An increase in the flow of blood to the liver
B) A decrease in the production of enzymes that oxidize drugs
C) An increase in renal blood flow
D) A decrease in the percentage of adipose tissue in the body
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following pharmacokinetic processes is most affected by the reduction of renal blood flow with age?
A) Drug absorption
B) Drug metabolism
C) Drug distribution
D) Drug excretion
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Math Review and Dosage Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sample of a weight in volume (W/V)solution would contain:
A) a given weight of drug in a definite weight of solvent so that the final solution is 100 parts by weight.
B) a definite volume of solute added to enough water so that the final solution is 100 parts by volume.
C) a given weight of solute in enough solvent so that the final solution contains 100 parts by volume.
D) none of these.
Q2) You are reviewing dosage calculations with a new employee.You summarize the dosage calculations based on weight as:
A) the amount of drug in mg ordered per unit of weight in kg.
B) the amount of drug in mg ordered per unit of weight in lb.
C) the amount of drug in ml ordered per unit of weight in kg.
D) none of these.
Q3) Match the set of examples to the definition of a ratio.
A) 2.1, 3.5, 2.9
B) 1:5, 4:10, 10:100
C) The 3 in 3/4 or the 9 in 9/11
D) All of these
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify an accurate statement about the autonomic nervous system (ANS).
A) The ANS is under one's conscious control.
B) The ANS is composed of nerves that innervate the skeletal muscles.
C) The ANS is regulated by the cerebral cortex.
D) The ultimate purpose of the ANS is to maintain homeostasis in the body.
Q2) Another name for the autonomic nervous system is:
A) the somatic nervous system.
B) the sensory nervous system.
C) the visceral nervous system.
D) the spinal nervous system.
Q3) While Alice is mowing her lawn,she sees a big snake slithering out from under some flower pots.In response to the sudden threat of danger,Alice's heart rate increases,and she begins to breathe rapidly.Which of the following neurotransmitters is primarily responsible for triggering these physical reactions in Alice's body?
A) Dopamine
B) Acetylcholine
C) Epinephrine
D) Somatostatin
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Chapter 6: Drugs Affecting the Sympathetic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the correct clinical indication associated with the use of IV dobutamine (Dobutrex),a drug that is similar to dopamine but has greater beta-1 effects.
A) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
B) Acute allergy or asthma
C) Acute heart failure
D) Hypertension
Q2) Select the primary clinical use of the alpha-adrenergic blocking drugs alfuzosin,tamsulosin,terazosin,and doxazosin.
A) Treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia
B) Treatment of hypotension
C) Treatment of excessive production of epinephrine
D) Treatment of pheochromocytoma
Q3) Analyze the major adrenergic effects of the alpha-adrenergic drug class,and select the main drug effect that the alpha-adrenergic drugs have on the alpha-2 receptors.
A) Negative feedback effect to decrease the release of epinephrine
B) Negative feedback effect to decrease the release of norepinephrine
C) Contraction of smooth muscle
D) Increased blood pressure
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Chapter 7: Drugs Affecting the Parasympathetic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic system is _____.
A) dopamine
B) acetylcholine
C) epinephrine
D) adrenaline
Q2) Which type of cholinergic receptor will an injection of Botox most likely affect?
A) Ganglionic receptor
B) Muscarinic receptor
C) Nicotinic-muscle receptor
D) Nicotinic-neural receptor
Q3) An intravenous injection of acetylcholine may not be successful in facilitating cholinergic activity in the presence of:
A) phosphodiesterase.
B) pseudocholinesterase.
C) serum albumin.
D) hemoglobin.
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Chapter 8: Drugs Affecting the Autonomic Ganglia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two weeks after beginning treatment for smoking cessation,Joe visits a physician and complains of having suicidal tendencies and feeling mentally depressed.Which of the following is a most likely reason for this occurrence?
A) Joe is not taking his medication regularly and has reverted to smoking to satisfy his craving for nicotine.
B) The acetylcholine in Joe's body is at toxic levels, impairing his neuromuscular function.
C) Joe is consuming tobacco to overcome the effects of nicotine withdrawal.
D) The treatment for Joe's condition involves a drug preparation known as varenicline.
Q2) Implementing a treatment plan that includes mecamylamine requires monitoring the patient for:
A) suicidal ideation.
B) depression of the cardiovascular system.
C) mental depression.
D) neuropsychiatric effects such as hostility.
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Chapter 9: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The antidote that is administered for depolarizing neuromuscular blocker toxicity is:
A) pancuronium.
B) succinylcholine.
C) demecarium.
D) No antidote is available.
Q2) _____ ions are the most critical for muscle contraction because they interact with the contractile filaments.
A) Magnesium
B) Zinc
C) Calcium
D) Phosphate
Q3) _____ is the only available depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drug.
A) Pancuronium
B) Atracurium
C) Succinylcholine
D) Carbachol
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Chapter 10: Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient has any form of liver disease that results in hepatic failure,which of the following may result from the administration of amide local anesthetics?
A) Rapid metabolism of the amide anesthetic agent
B) Accumulation of amide metabolites
C) Increased amide anesthetic clearance
D) None of the above
Q2) Why should one avoid applying local anesthetic agents to damaged,open,or broken skin?
A) The broken skin allows the anesthetic agent to reach the blood vessels.
B) The patient may develop overdose effects.
C) The patient may develop hypotension.
D) All of the above are true
Q3) What is the effect of local anesthetics on the heart?
A) Local anesthetics depress the function of the cardiac conduction system.
B) Local anesthetics produce tachycardia.
C) Local anesthetics cause hypertension.
D) Local anesthetics increase the function of the myocardium.
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Chapter 11: Introduction to the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of the thalamus?
A) The thalamus receives and evaluates almost all of the sensory nerve impulses from peripheral sensory receptors.
B) The thalamus passes the information it receives from the sensory receptors to the temporal lobes of the cerebral cortex.
C) The thalamus is part of the brainstem and is continuous with the spinal cord.
D) The thalamus regulates reflexes such as vomiting, coughing, swallowing, and gagging.
Q2) Alex hears a loud explosion outside his window.He immediately stands up and becomes more alert and attentive to his surroundings.Which part of Alex's brain has most likely been activated by the sudden explosion?
A) The reticular activating system
B) The inhibitory fibers of the reticular formation
C) The thalamus
D) The hippocampus
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Chapter 12: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs and Alcohol
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the therapy of choice for patients suffering from insomnia that is complicated with anxiety or stressful situations.
A) Benzodiazepines
B) Barbiturates
C) Amphetamines
D) None of the above
Q2) Identify the possible cause of nausea, vomiting, and headache that an alcoholic patient is experiencing while taking disulfiram.
A) Acetaldehyde is accumulating in the blood, causing these symptoms to occur.
B) The patient may be drinking alcoholic beverages while taking disulfiram.
C) The patient may be using OTC products that contain alcohol while taking disulfiram.
D) All of the above are correct.
Q3) Identify the clinical indication for the use of benzodiazepines.
A) Reduction of anxiety
B) Increase in mental alertness
C) Increase in desire for physical activity
D) Decrease in drowsiness
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14
Chapter 13: Antipsychotic and Antianxiety Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atypical antipsychotics differ from the other classes of antipsychotics because they:
A) reduce dopamine activity more than they reduce the activity of serotonin.
B) greatly enhance the activity of acetylcholine.
C) reduce the activity of serotonin more than they reduce the activity of dopamine.
D) enhance the activity of serotonin in the limbic system.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of atypical antipsychotic drugs?
A) The atypical antipsychotic drugs affect and reduce the activity of D<sub>2</sub> receptors more than they interfere with 5HT<sub>2A</sub> receptors.
B) The atypical antipsychotic drugs produce the highest incidence of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
C) The atypical antipsychotic drugs are associated with metabolic disturbances such as weight gain, elevated triglycerides, and the development of diabetes mellitus.
D) The atypical antipsychotic drugs include the drug classes phenothiazines, butyrophenones, and thioxanthenes.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Antidepressants,psychomotor Stimulants,and
Lithium
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients taking lithium should be instructed to drink adequate amounts of fluids and take adequate amounts of sodium.Select the reason for this instruction.
A) Hyponatremia promotes the retention of lithium, which can lead to toxic levels of lithium in the blood.
B) Sodium ions and lithium ions compete against each other for renal elimination.
C) Lithium is a salt and leads to an increase in thirst and an increase in the frequency of urination.
D) All of the above are correct.
Q2) You have been asked to explain to tell a patient about the common side effects that he should report while taking SSRIs.Which of the following should be included in the reportable side effects?
A) Excessive agitation and seizures
B) Loss of appetite and nausea
C) Headache and nervousness
D) All of the above
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16
Chapter 15: Psychotomimetic Drugs of Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of marijuana?
A) The cannabinoids in marijuana are highly water-soluble compounds.
B) Taking marijuana orally is the most common route of administration.
C) The effects of marijuana set in only 2 to 3 hours after administration.
D) Marijuana increases the activity of the mesolimbic dopamine system.
Q2) Which of the following symptoms will a person who is under the influence of lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)most likely experience?
A) Piloerection
B) Decreased blood pressure
C) Bradycardia
D) Pupillary contraction
Q3) Heavy marijuana use can cause _____,which could be an indication of a latent psychiatric disorder.
A) drowsiness
B) lapses of attention
C) auditory hallucinations
D) psychosis
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Chapter 16: Antiepileptic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the mechanism of action of topiramate (Topamax).
A) Topiramate interferes with the action of Na+ ions and the generation of high-frequency action potentials. The drug may also increase the inhibitory actions of gamma-aminobutyric acid.
B) Topiramate shortens the inactivation period of sodium ion (Na+) channels in the nerve membrane, leading to a reduction in the generation of high-frequency repetitive firing of action potentials from neurons involved in initiating seizures.
C) Topiramate reduces the T-type calcium currents in the thalamus, which reduces the occurrence of seizures.
D) Topiramate prolongs the inactivation period of potassium (K+) channels in the nerve membrane, leading to a reduction in the generation of high-frequency repetitive firing of action potentials from neurons involved in initiating seizures.
Q2) A series of generalized seizures,particularly tonic-clonic,without cessation is referred to as _____.
A) simple partial seizure
B) status epilepticus
C) complex partial seizure
D) absence seizure
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Antiparkinson Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The drug carbidopa enhances the action of the drug levodopa by:
A) inhibiting the conversion of levodopa to dopamine in the basal ganglia.
B) inhibiting the conversion of levodopa to dopamine in the periphery.
C) promoting the conversion of levodopa to dopamine in the basal ganglia.
D) promoting the conversion of levodopa to dopamine in the periphery.
Q2) Stalevo is a triple combination medication containing all of the following except: A) bromocriptine.
B) levodopa.
C) carbidopa.
D) entacapone.
Q3) The main cause of Parkinson's disease is the accelerated loss of:
A) cholinergic neurons.
B) dopamine neurons.
C) serotonin neurons.
D) norepinephrine neurons.
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19
Chapter 18: General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the part of the brain that influences mood,motivation,and the ability to perceive pain.
A) Hypothalamus
B) Thalamus
C) Medulla oblongata
D) Cerebral cortex
Q2) Select the true statement related to the use of the available inhaled anesthetics.
A) All of the inhalation anesthetics produce all stages of general anesthesia.
B) Nitrous oxide is not potent enough to maintain Stage III, Plane 3 anesthesia.
C) Nitrous oxide loses its analgesic effect when incorporated with other anesthetics.
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) Explain the mechanism of action of flumazenil.
A) Flumazenil inhibits glutamate, the excitatory neurotransmitter, in the brain.
B) Flumazenil depresses the neuronal nicotinic acetylcholine (ACH) receptors.
C) Flumazenil competitively inhibits the activity at the benzodiazepine recognition site on the GABA receptor.
D) None of these are correct
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Opioid Narcoticanalgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who among the following should be the most cautious when using an opioid drug?
A) Carrie, who has asthma
B) Harry, who has a cough
C) David, who has diarrhea
D) Julia, who has chronic pain
Q2) Which of the following is true of Mu1 receptors?
A) Mu<sub>1</sub> receptors are located inside the spinal cord.
B) Mu<sub>1</sub> receptors are responsible for respiratory depression, analgesia, euphoria, and physical dependence.
C) Mu<sub>1</sub> receptors primarily interact with enkephalin.
D) Mu<sub>1</sub> receptors interpret pain.
Q3) Which of the following changes takes place when opioids bind to their mu receptors?
A) Calcium ion channels on presynaptic neurons close.
B) The release of glutamate increases.
C) Postsynaptic mu receptor binding closes potassium ion channels.
D) Calcium ions flow into the cells.
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Chapter 20: Nonnarcotic Analgesics
Anti-Inflammatory,and Antigout Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unlike COX-1,COX-2 is only manufactured in _____.
A) uterine muscle
B) the kidneys
C) the platelets
D) activated macrophages
Q2) Identify the correct dose of acetaminophen for a 5-year-old boy weighing 45 pounds.
A) 240 mg every 4 to 6 hours
B) 160 mg every 4 to 6 hours
C) 320 mg every 4 to 6 hours
D) 650 mg every 4 to 6 hours
Q3) Why do aspirin-sensitive patients substitute aspirin with acetaminophen to relieve pain?
A) Acetaminophen does not produce GI irritation or ulceration in therapeutic doses.
B) Acetaminophen does not affect platelet aggregation.
C) Acetaminophen does not affect prothrombin response.
D) All of the above are correct.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Cardiac Glycosides and the Treatment of
Congestive Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Deoxygenated blood passes from the right atrium into the right ventricle through the
A) bicuspid valve
B) tricuspid valve
C) right semilunar valve
D) mitral valve
Q2) Identify an accurate statement about the conduction system of the heart.
A) An electrical impulse is normally generated within the atrioventricular node.
B) The Purkinje fibers distribute excitation through the ventricular myocardium.
C) Impulse conduction first results in the contraction of the left ventricle and then in the contraction of the right ventricle.
D) The left side of the heart pumps a greater amount of blood than the right side of the heart in a particular amount of time.
Q3) Parasympathetic nerves release acetylcholine to _____.
A) drastically decrease the activities of the SA node and the myocardium
B) increase the activities of the AV node and the SA node
C) decrease the activities of the SA node and the AV node
D) drastically increase the activities of the myocardium and the Purkinje fibers
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Chapter 22: Antiarrhythmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the site at which aldosterone antagonists act?
A) The loop of Henle
B) The distal tubules of the kidney nephrons
C) The walls of the heart chambers
D) The collecting ducts of the nephrons
Q2) Identify the main causes of heart failure.
A) Untreated hypertension, myocardial infarction, and valvular defects
B) Untreated hyperglycemia, myocardial infarction, and valvular defects
C) Untreated hyperthyroidism, myocardial infarction, and valvular defects
D) None of the above
Q3) While treating chronic heart failure,which of the following signs should one look out for after the administration of a vasodilator such as hydralazine?
A) Postural hypotension
B) Reflex tachycardia
C) Nausea and headache
D) All of the above
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Chapter 23: Antianginal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of these drugs slow atrioventricular (AV)conduction to protect the ventricles in atrial fibrillation except:
A) beta-blockers.
B) atropine.
C) calcium channel blockers.
D) digoxin.
Q2) Eva has been using a certain Class 1A antiarrhythmic drug for a very long time.However,over the past few weeks,Eva has lost a lot of weight and has been experiencing severe episodes of nausea and diarrhea.She has also developed a scaly red skin rash.She visits Dr.Redford's clinic for a consultation.Dr.Redford studies her electrocardiogram (ECG)and notices that the durations of the PR,QRS,and QT waves in Eva's heart are much longer than usual.He advises Eva to stop taking the drug.Which of the following drugs has Eva most likely been using?
A) Propranolol
B) Procainamide
C) Sotalol
D) Amiodarone
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Diuretics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the nitrate drug that is used prophylactically to prevent the occurrence of anginal attacks.
A) Nitroglycerin sublingual pump
B) Nitroglycerin for IV infusion
C) Sublingual nitroglycerin
D) Nitroglycerin extended-release capsules
Q2) Jason's physician diagnosed him with coronary artery disease and angina.He has been prescribed nitroglycerin for the angina.Select the drug that the physician can prescribe to treat Jason's coronary artery disease?
A) Nadolol
B) Propranolol
C) Atenolol
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is true of nitroglycerin ointment?
A) It has an onset of action of about 2 to 5 minutes.
B) It is used sublingually to relieve intense pain during attacks of angina.
C) It has a duration of action of about 1 to 2 hours.
D) It is applied topically to an area of the chest and absorption occurs through the skin.
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26
Chapter 25: Antihypertensive Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The filtration of substances from the blood into the nephrons occurs in the:
A) nephron loop.
B) collecting duct.
C) proximal convoluted tubule.
D) glomerulus.
Q2) Metabolic acidosis can occur as a side effect of taking acetazolamide because:
A) bicarbonate ions are wasted when sodium is excreted into the urine, leaving behind acidic metabolic waste products that need to be neutralized.
B) chloride ions are wasted when sodium is excreted into the urine, leaving behind acidic metabolic waste products that need to be neutralized.
C) bicarbonate ions are wasted when sodium is reabsorbed into the tubule as it attracts hydrogen ions.
D) chloride ions are wasted when sodium is reabsorbed into the tubule as it attracts hydrogen ions.
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Chapter 26: Anticoagulants and Coagulants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the preferred treatment for hypertension for patients with renal disease.
A) Beta-blockers and diuretics
B) ACEIs and ARBs
C) Calcium channel blockers and diuretics
D) Thiazide and loop diuretics
Q2) Which of the following is a difference between ACEIs and ARBs?
A) Unlike the ACEIs, the ARBs increase bradykinin concentrations.
B) . Unlike the ACEIs, the ARBs bind to the AT1 receptor and competitively antagonize the actions of angiotensin II.
C) Unlike the ACEIs, the ARBs are contraindicated during pregnancy.
D) Unlike the ACEIs, the ARBs block the enzymatic conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
Q3) Which of the following factors reduces hypertension?
A) Elimination of smoking and regular physical exercise can lead to a reduction in blood pressure.
B) Practicing relaxation techniques aimed at reducing stress can lead to a reduction in blood pressure.
C) Sodium restriction and weight loss can lead to a reduction in blood pressure.
D) All of these are correct.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Nutrition and Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The preferred anticoagulant during pregnancy is:
A) heparin.
B) warfarin.
C) streptokinase.
D) enoxaparin.
Q2) Toxicity from oral anticoagulants and other medications can often occur because of:
A) enhanced metabolism in the liver.
B) increase in synthesis of several vitamin K dependent clotting factors.
C) enhanced plasma protein binding by the oral anticoagulant.
D) plasma protein binding displacement.
Q3) Which anticoagulant's mechanism of action involves an inhibition of platelet aggregation?
A) Heparin
B) Warfarin
C) Streptokinase
D) Aspirin
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Chapter 28: Hypolipidemic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select a true statement about vitamins.
A) The fat-soluble vitamins are vitamin B and vitamin C
B) Water-soluble vitamins are typically well stored in the liver and fatty tissues.
C) Fat-soluble vitamins are affected by conditions such as biliary obstruction and pancreatic disease.
D) Fat-soluble vitamins are not stored in the body
Q2) The major source of the hydrogen that is used by the human body is from:
A) the air that is inhaled into the lungs.
B) the dissociation of water, protein, bicarbonate, and phosphate buffer systems.
C) the fluid moving out of the intracellular compartment.
D) none of the these.
Q3) What is the minimum amount of milk,cheese,and dairy products that a senior adult should consume in a day?
A) 6-8 servings
B) 1 serving
C) 2 servings
D) 3-5 servings
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Chapter 29: Antianemic
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Q1) Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of statins?
A) Hypertension
B) Active liver disease
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Adults below 25 years of age
Q2) Rhabdomyolysis is considered to be a serious side effect of statin medications because:
A) immunoglobulin molecules can disrupt blood flow and cause renal failure.
B) myoglobin molecules can disrupt blood flow to kidneys and cause renal failure.
C) immunoglobulin molecules can disrupt blood flow and cause an aneurism.
D) myoglobin molecules can disrupt blood flow and cause myocardial infarction.
Q3) Leonard presents with symptoms of hyperlipidemia and is prescribed simvastatin.Simvastatin is available as 20-mg tablets.If the duration of the treatment is 7 weeks and the daily dosage is 40 mg,calculate the total number of tablets required for the duration of the treatment.
A) 140 tablets
B) 280 tablets
C) 135 tablets
D) 98 tablets
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Antiallergic and Antihistaminic Drugs
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Q1) Why are patients advised not to chew or crush enteric-coated or delayed-release iron supplements?
A) Because it will lead to the development of a smooth, sore, beefy red tongue
B) Because it will lead to gastrointestinal (GI) irritation
C) Because it will lead to iron poisoning
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of erythropoietin?
A) Erythropoietin is a protein normally produced by the parietal cells of the stomach.
B) Erythropoietin is not effective in the treatment of chronic renal failure and cancer.
C) Erythropoietin can be used to treat zidovudine-related anemia in HIV patients.
D) Preparations of erythropoietin should be vigorously shaken before use.
Q3) _____ is a protein normally produced by the kidneys that participates in red blood cell homeostasis.
A) Intrinsic factor
B) Erythropoietin
C) Transcobalamin II
D) Transferrin
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Bronchodilator Drugs and the Treatment of Asthma
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents with the following symptoms.The patient's upper eyelid has hard bumps,and the conjunctiva is swollen.There is yellow discharge from the eyes.Which of the following drugs should be used to treat this patient?
A) Nedocromil
B) Pemirolast
C) Lodoxamide
D) Cromolyn sodium
Q2) One of the effects of histamine on the vasculature is:
A) vasoconstriction of the blood vessels and vasodilation of the capillaries.
B) vasodilation of the blood vessels and vasoconstriction of the capillaries.
C) vasoconstriction of the blood vessels and the capillaries.
D) vasodilation of the blood vessels and the capillaries.
Q3) Which of the following is a common ingredient in OTC analgesic and cough-cold medications?
A) Chlorpheniramine
B) Doxylamine
C) Brompheniramine
D) All of the above
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Chapter 32: Respiratory Pharmacology, treatment of
Asthma and Copd
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Q1) Which of the following is an expectorant available over the counter and is used for the relief of an unproductive cough?
A) Mucinex
B) Mucosil
C) Potassium citrate
D) Ammonium chloride
Q2) Kevin suffers from occasional asthmatic episodes caused due to various allergic reactions.His doctor prescribes cromolyn sodium for his treatment.During a subsequent visit,his doctor informs him that he could use a substitute drug that is similar in mechanism and pharmacological effect to cromolyn.Which of the following drugs is being referred to in this scenario?
A) Formoterol (Foradil)
B) Tiotropium (Spiriva)
C) Dyphylline (Lufyllin)
D) Nedocromil (Tilade)
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34
Chapter 33: Agents That Affect Intestinal Motility
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Q1) Identify the mechanism of action of antacids.
A) Neutralizing gastric acid
B) Reducing the volume of gastric acid
C) Reducing the concentration of gastric acid
D) Stimulating the production of gastric acid
Q2) A patient with peptic ulcer complains of severe duodenal pain.Which of the following treatment options is most likely to relieve this pain?
A) Administration of food
B) Administration of histamine H<sub>1</sub>-receptor antagonists
C) Administration of calcium channel blockers
D) Administration of cholinergic drugs
Q3) Gastric juices mainly consist of _____.
A) HCl and gastrin
B) HCl and pepsin
C) sodium bicarbonate and gastrin
D) sodium bicarbonate and pepsin
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Chapter 34: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Q1) Diphenoxylate works by:
A) reducing constriction in sphincters.
B) stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system to increase peristalsis.
C) stimulating mu receptors in the myenteric plexus.
D) increasing the gastrointestinal transit time.
Q2) Liam consults a doctor as he has been suffering from diarrhea for two days.The doctor prescribes diphenoxylate to decrease peristalsis.Which of the following statements,if true,would indicate that the doctor's prescription is inappropriate for Liam?
A) Liam's electrolyte levels have changed.
B) Liam suffers from lactose intolerance.
C) Liam shows symptoms of liver disease.
D) Liam complains of constipation after taking the drug.
Q3) Difenoxen is a _____ receptor agonist.
A) serotonin
B) glycine
C) mu
D) gamma-amino butyric acid (GABA)
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Chapter 35: Introduction to the Endocrine System Adrenal
Steroids
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Q1) Which of the following hormones is acutely regulated through a positive feedback loop?
A) Antidiuretic hormone
B) Oxytocin
C) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
D) Cortisol
Q2) Which of the following is associated with red blood cell production?
A) Cholecystokinin
B) Erythropoietin
C) Gastrin
D) Prolactin
Q3) The hormones of the anterior lobe that control the activities of the other endocrine glands are known as _____ hormones.
A) tropic
B) source
C) inter
D) counter
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Gonadal Hormones and the Oral Contraceptives
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Q1) Which of the following is true of catabolism?
A) Catabolism primarily occurs in the skeletal muscle.
B) Catabolism refers to the process of synthesizing complex compounds from simpler molecules.
C) Catabolism primarily occurs in the liver.
D) Catabolism is not associated with the release of energy.
Q2) What information must be given to a female patient who is on steroid therapy and who has just learned that she is pregnant?
A) If she is going to continue treatment, the infant will have to be monitored for adrenal function after birth.
B) Chronic maternal steroid use in the first trimester can result in a cleft palate in newborns (about 1 percent incidence).
C) If she is going to continue treatment, her dose will have to be reduced to the lowest possible effective dose.
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 37: Drugs Affecting the Thyroid and Parathyroid Glands and
Bone Degeneration
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Q1) Which of the following hormones has an inhibitory effect on endometrial muscle contractions?
A) Estriol
B) Estradiol
C) Estrone
D) Progesterone
Q2) A triphasic oral contraceptive formulation contains:
A) two different-strength estrogen pills and a progestin pill.
B) three different strengths (dose ratio) of estrogens to progestin pills.
C) two different strengths (dose ratio) of estrogens to progestin pills.
D) fixed amounts of estrogen (relative to progestin) in each pill.
Q3) Which of the following drugs is used for the induction of spermatogenesis in men?
A) Clomiphene
B) Follitropin
C) Chorionic gonadotropin recombinant DNA
D) Human chorionic gonadotropin hCG
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Chapter 38: Pancreatic Hormones and Antidiabetic Drugs
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Q1) For bisphosphonates to be optimally effective,these medications must be taken with an adequate amount of:
A)oral calcium and vitamin D
B)vitamin C
C)iron.
D)folic acid.
Q2) Which of the following instructions should a healthcare professional give a patient who is undergoing hormonal replacement therapy?
A) One need not inform the physician if he or she chooses to discontinue thyroid hormone replacement therapy.
B) If one is receiving radioactive iodide, he or she should not expectorate.
C) Drugs like cholestyramine should be taken only an hour after taking the thyroid hormones.
D) Thyroid hormones should preferably be taken at night.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of thyroid hormone?
A) Thyroid hormone inhibits protein synthesis.
B) Thyroid hormone decreases the rate of carbohydrate breakdown.
C) Thyroid hormone decreases the insulin-dependent entry of glucose into cells.
D) Thyroid hormone decreases the level of serum cholesterol.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Posterior Pituitary Hormones and Drugs
Affecting Uterine
Muscle
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Q1) Medical professionals can determine how well a patient is managing his or her blood glucose levels by:
A) analyzing a tissue sample.
B) analyzing a urine sample.
C) analyzing hemoglobin.
D) analyzing the white blood cells.
Q2) Insulin sensitizers include _____.
A)meglitinides
B)sulfonylureas
C)secretagogues
D)thiazolidinediones
Q3) Which glucose receptor also functions as a carrier protein in cells of skeletal and heart muscles?
A) GLUT1
B) GLUT2
C) GLUT3
D) GLUT4
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Antibacterial Agents
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Q1) The ergot alkaloid methylergonovine (Methergine)is used to:
A) induce labor.
B) induce abortion.
C) decrease uterine bleeding.
D) treat hypothalamic DI.
Q2) Select the statement that brings out the difference between oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
A) Oxytocin and ADH travel down nerve axons to the anterior lobe, where the hormones are stored until needed.
B) Oxytocin and ADH are polypeptides that differ only in the placement of three amino acids.
C) Oxytocin is primarily involved with labor contractions before birth and milk ejection after birth, while ADH is essential for water conservation throughout life.
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) Control of water output is primarily through _____.
A) sweat production
B) urine production
C) cutaneous transpiration
D) expiration of air
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Page 42
Chapter 41: End of Chapter Questions
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Q1) A person experiencing a delayed allergic reaction to a penicillin would most likely be switched to a(n)_____.
A) aminoglycoside
B) tetracycline
C) cephalosporin
D) sulfonamide
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about cephalosporins and penicillins?
A) The chemical structure of the cephalosporins is completely different from that of the penicillins.
B) The mechanism of action of the cephalosporins is the same as that of the penicillins.
C) The cephalosporins are usually less resistant than the penicillins to the bacterial beta-lactamase enzymes.
D) The cephalosporins are used as substitutes for penicillins in the treatment of certain gram-positive infections.
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Chapter 42: Antifungal and Antiviral Aidsdrugs
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Q1) Select the statement that best explains why it has not been possible to develop a vaccine for HIV.
A) HIV rapidly replicates and undergoes mutations so frequently that even small changes in its proteins make the virus unrecognizable to host immune cells.
B) The current understanding of the metabolic process and identification of the subtypes of HIV is not yet enough to create a vaccine that would protect against all of the subtypes of HIV.
C) The macrophages, dendritic cells, and T and B cells interact with the protein components of HIV; therefore, no vaccine can be developed until a solution to the interaction between the cells of the body and the protein components is found.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Which of the following is used in the treatment of respiratory syncytial virus-induced severe lower respiratory infections in hospitalized children?
A) Tipranavir (Aptivus)
B) Ribavirin (Virazole)
C) Amantadine (Symadine)
D) None of these
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Antiprotozoal and Anthelmintic Drugs
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Q1) Entamoeba histolytica is more dangerous than Giardia lamblia at producing dysentery because:
A) Entamoeba can invade the liver.
B) Entamoeba can cross the blood-brain barrier.
C) Entamoeba causes tenesmus.
D) Entamoeba can become resistant to treatment.
Q2) Which of the following is a disease associated with protozoal infection in humans?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Trichomoniasis
C) Tuberculosis
D) Pneumonia
Q3) A desirable feature of metronidazole is its ability to:
A) limit its effect to certain regions of the body.
B) distribute over a wide range of tissues systemically.
C) be well tolerated in patients with severe liver disease.
D) cross the placenta.
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Chapter 44: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Q1) Select the false statement about hexachlorophene.
A) Despite its selectivity, hexachlorophene is useful as a skin cleanser and surgical scrub because potential pathogens that reside on the skin surface are frequently gram-positive bacteria.
B) With repeated use, hexachlorophene accumulates in the skin and maintains its bacterial response.
C) Hexachlorophene is a bactericidal preparation that is primarily effective against gram-negative bacteria and provides relatively weak activity against gram-positive bacteria.
D) Hexachlorophene should not be used for bathing infants or applied to burns because it will be absorbed into the circulation.
Q2) _____ is used to treat acne as it releases oxygen into the pores of the skin and destroys bacteria.
A) Povidone-iodine
B) Chlorhexidine
C) Benzoyl peroxide
D) Silver nitrate
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Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Agents
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Q1) Jimenez is not responding well to chemotherapy.The cancer cells continue to grow despite the chemotherapy.Which of the following is most likely to be the next step in his treatment?
A) Initiation of radiation therapy
B) Switching to a different chemotherapy drug in the same class of antineoplastic drugs
C) Initiation of combination therapy
D) Switching to a drug that belongs to a different class of antineoplastic drugs
Q2) Busulfan is used to treat _____.
A) chronic myelogenous leukemia
B) multiple myeloma
C) non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
D) Hodgkin's disease
Q3) _____ inhibits the enzyme topoisomerase I to cause cell death.
A) Docetaxel
B) Teniposide
C) Irinotecan
D) Doxorubicin
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Chapter 46: Immunopharmacology
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Q1) Select the false statement about the effect of lymphopenia on the immune response following administration of immunosuppressive drugs like the corticosteroids.
A) The immunosuppressive effect (lymphopenia) occurs 4 to 6 hours following drug administration and significantly reduces the number of circulating lymphocytes in the blood.
B) Lymphopenia decreases the ability of lymphocytes to initiate and participate in an immune response.
C) Corticosteroids increase the amount of lymphoid tissue and cells in the lymph nodes and spleen.
D) None of these are false.
Q2) The use of infliximab (Remicade)leads to an infusion reaction that:
A) can include tremors and seizures.
B) can include high blood pressure, renal impairment, and chest pain.
C) can include fever, chills, hives, hypotension, and chest pain.
D) none of these.
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