Pharmacology for Allied Health Question Bank
Course Introduction
This course introduces the fundamental principles of pharmacology as they apply to allied health professionals. Students will explore drug classifications, mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, side effects, and interactions of commonly used medications. Emphasis is placed on safe medication administration, dosage calculation, and the role of the allied health professional in patient education and advocacy. Through case studies and practical scenarios, the course prepares students to contribute effectively to medication management within a multidisciplinary healthcare team.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology An Introduction 6th Edition by Henry Hitner
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46 Chapters
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2
Chapter 1: Pharmacology: An Introduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Competitive antagonism occurs when:
A) Two agonists compete for the same receptor.
B) An agonist and an antagonist compete for the same receptor.
C) An antagonist directly inactivates an agonist.
D) An antagonist cancels out the effect of an agonist by binding to a unique receptor.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following would not be considered a dose-dependent adverse effect?
A) Teratogen
B) Carcinogen
C) Kidney damage
D) Idiosyncrasy
Answer: D
Q3) Toxic effects that are most often fatal occur from:
A) Low doses
B) Therapeutic doses taken PRN
C) High doses
D) Therapeutic doses taken on schedule
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics and Factors of Individual
Variation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare the routes of administration based on the parameters of patient safety and ease of drug use in order to select the correct route of administration for a patient with a busy lifestyle and a hectic schedule.
A) Parenteral administration
B) Oral administration
C) Topical administration
D) Inhalation administration
Answer: B
Q2) Select the most appropriate reason why a patient with cirrhosis of the liver does not get the therapeutic response expected from the medications that she is taking.
A) The patient's ability to absorb drug is impaired.
B) The patient's ability to distribute drug throughout the body is impaired.
C) The patient's ability to metabolize drug is impaired.
D) The patient's ability to excrete unused drug from the body is impaired.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Geriatric Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) One way to improve compliance for a patient with arthritis would be to:
A) Encourage the patient to take medication on an empty stomach.
B) Suggest not using child safety caps on medication bottles.
C) Encourage the patient to read medication information literature.
D) Suggest drinking plenty of fluids when taking medications.
Answer: B
Q2) In relation to their medications,why is it important for elderly patients to increase their dietary protein intake?
A) To maintain appropriate albumin levels
B) To increase serum potassium levels
C) To lower serum triglyceride levels
D) To maintain serum calcium levels
Answer: A
Q3) An elderly patient who drinks lots of water and takes a water-soluble drug can expect:
A) A toxic effect
B) A subtherapeutic effect
C) A therapeutic effect
D) Competitive antagonism
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Math Review and Dosage Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a weight in volume (W/V) solution would contain:
A) A given weight of drug in a definite weight of solvent so that the final solution is 100 parts by weight
B) A definite volume of solute added to enough water so that the final solution is 100 parts by volume
C) A given weight of solute in enough solvent so that the final solution contains 100 parts by volume
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Use Fried's rule to determine the necessary dose of drug Y routinely ordered for adults as 2 teaspoons every 4 hours.The child is 3.5 years old and weighs 36 pounds.
A) 2.8 ml
B) 2.6 ml
C) 2.4 ml
D) 2.2 ml
Q3) Which unit of measure in the metric system is used to determine liquid volume?
A) Meter
B) Liter
C) Gram
D) Grain
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Chapter 5: Introduction to the Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main chemical released by the medulla in sympathetic stimulation?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Acetylcholine
C) Dopamine
D) Epinephrine
Q2) The neurotransmitter common to both preganglionic fibers in the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system is:
A) Norepinephrine
B) Acetylcholine
C) Epinephrine
D) Serotonin
Q3) Another name for the autonomic nervous system is:
A) Somatic nervous system
B) Sensory nervous system
C) Visceral nervous system
D) Spinal nervous system
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Chapter 6: Drugs Affecting the Sympathetic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Use the moderate-dose range of 2-10 mcg/kg/min to determine the appropriate dose range of dopamine that would result in increased cardiac output for a patient who weighs 176 pounds.
A) 2.4-12 mg/hr
B) 9.6-48 mg/hr
C) 19.2-96 mg/hr
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Differentiate between the drug effects of the nonselective and selective beta-1 blockers,and select the major pharmacokinetic differences that exist between the two that can alter the therapeutic response.
A) Duration of action and extent of drug metabolism
B) Onset of action and extent of drug metabolism
C) Duration of action and extent of drug excretion
D) Onset of action and extent of drug absorption
Q3) What is the primary reason that alpha-blockers are used to treat Raynaud's disease?
A) Vasoconstriction increases blood flow to the skin and extremities.
B) Vasodilation lowers blood pressure.
C) Vasodilation increases blood flow to the skin and extremities.
D) None of these are correct.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Drugs Affecting the Parasympathetic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed by intravenous injection of:
A) Edrophonium
B) Neostigmine
C) Pyridostigmine
D) Ambenonium
Q2) What class of drugs is preferred for increasing urinary flow in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia?
A) Beta-blockers
B) Alpha-blockers
C) Muscarinic blockers
D) Nicotinic blockers
Q3) This type of cholinergic receptor is not associated with the autonomic nervous system:
A) Muscarinic
B) Ganglionic
C) Nicotinic-n
D) Nicotinic-m
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Drugs Affecting the Autonomic Ganglia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Match the drug preparation verenicline with the correct trade name:
A) Zyban
B) Commit
C) Chantix
D) Wellbutrin SR
Q2) Implementing a treatment plan that includes ganglionic blocking drugs and vasodilators could lead to a drug interaction that could result in:
A) Additive anticholinergic effects
B) Additive vasodilating effects
C) Antagonism of anticholinergic effects
D) Additive antiadrenergic effects
Q3) Implementing a treatment plan that includes mecamylamine is indicative of a diagnosis of:
A) Smoking addiction
B) Severe hypertension
C) Depression
D) Constipation
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Chapter 9: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication can potentiate the effects of succinylcholine due to shifting the levels of potassium in the body?
A) Narcotics
B) NSAIDs
C) Antiemetics
D) Diuretics
Q2) What is the drug of choice for treating malignant hyperthermia?
A) Tizanidine
B) Dantrolene
C) Baclofen
D) Diazepam
Q3) A patient with breathing problems has been given a muscle relaxant and begins to experience bronchospasms,which may lead to an asthmatic attack.This can be attributed to the release of:
A) Acetylcholine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Serotonin
D) Histamine
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11
Chapter 10: Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how local anesthetics affect cardiac function.
A) Local anesthetics depress the function of the cardiac conduction system.
B) Local anesthetics produce tachycardia.
C) Local anesthetics cause hypertension.
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Identify the most commonly used local anesthetic technique.
A) Regional nerve block
B) Infiltration anesthesia
C) Intradermal anesthesia
D) Cryoanesthesia
Q3) Match lidocaine,a local anesthetic,to a condition it is used to treat.
A) Rash
B) Hypotension
C) Cardiac arrhythmias
D) None of these are correct.
Q4) When differentiating between local and general anesthetics,general anesthetics:
A) Cause total loss of consciousness
B) Stimulate the activity of the CNS
C) Can limit the response to one area of the body
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 11: Introduction to the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two types of medications that can be used to control people primarily having emotional or certain behavioral problems.
A) Neuroleptics and antipsychotics
B) Neuroleptics and anticonvulsants
C) Antianxiety and antidepressants
D) Antianxiety and Antipsychotics
Q2) What are the two main components to the central nervous system?
A) Brain and spinal cord
B) Brain and spinal nerves
C) Cranial nerves and spinal cord
D) Cranial nerves and spinal nerves
Q3) Degeneration of neurons in the basal ganglia will lead to
A) Stroke
B) Alzheimer's disease
C) Schizophrenia
D) Parkinson's disease
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Chapter 12: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs and Alcohol
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Sample Questions
Q1) Use critical thinking to determine the pharmacokinetic effect of barbiturates as a result of enzyme induction.
A) Enzyme induction leads to slower metabolism of the barbiturate in the liver and increased duration of action.
B) Enzyme induction leads to faster metabolism of the barbiturate in the liver and decreased duration of action.
C) Enzyme induction leads to slower metabolism of the barbiturate in the liver and decreased duration of action.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) The statement that best explains automatism is:
A) Drug-induced hangover effect resulting from benzodiazepine use
B) Drug-induced heightened tolerance resulting from benzodiazepine use
C) Drug-induced confusion that can lead to barbiturate drug overdose
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) Identify the clinical indication for the use of a sedative.
A) Mental relaxation and sleep disorders
B) Reduction of anxiety and sleep disorders
C) Mental relaxation and reduction in desire for physical activity
D) Reduction of anxiety and desire for physical activity
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Antipsychotic and Antianxiety Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excessive blockade of dopamine D2 receptors will eventually result in:
A) Downregulation of receptors
B) Schizoprenia
C) Extrapyramidal syndrome
D) Anxiety
Q2) A potentially fatal condition associated with antipsychotic use characterized by hyperthermia,muscular rigidity,and catatonia:
A) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
B) Dystonic reactions
C) Akathesia
D) Tardive dyskinesia
Q3) The manic phase of manic depressive personality disorder can best be treated with which class of antipsychotic medication?
A) Butyrophenones
B) Phenothiazines
C) Thioxanthenes
D) Atypical antipsychotics
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15
Chapter 14: Antidepressants, psychomotor Stimulants, and Lithium
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Sample Questions
Q1) When summarizing the adverse effects of the atypical SSRIs,you identify the key adverse effects to be:
A) Sedation, hypertension, and renal insufficiency
B) Orthostatic hypotension, GI disturbances, and renal insufficiency
C) Sedation, orthostatic hypotension, and liver toxicity
D) Sedation, GI disturbances, and renal insufficiency
Q2) Using the Physicians' Desk Reference,you determine that the common adverse effects of use of the psychomotor stimulant drugs are:
A) Dry mouth, tachycardia, hypertension, and insomnia
B) Excess saliva production, bradycardia, hypotension, and sedation
C) Dry mouth, bradycardia, hypotension, and sedation
D) Excess saliva production, tachycardia, hypertension, and insomnia
Q3) The TCAs possess significant anticholinergic and alpha-blocking actions.Differentiate between the TCAs,and select the tricyclic agent that causes moderate sedation,moderate anticholinergic effects,and moderate alpha-blocking effect.
A) Doxepin
B) Amitriptyline
C) Nortriptyline
D) Imipramine
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Psychotomimetic Drugs of Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) What physical characteristics would you expect to see from someone who habitually smokes marijuana?
A) Dry eyes and decreased heart rate
B) Dilated pupils and decreased heart rate
C) Pinpoint pupils and increased heart rate
D) Red eyes and increased heart rate
Q2) As cocaine dosages are increased,_____ may cause _____ to occur.
A) Excessive sympathetic stimulation, clonic-tonic convulsions
B) Excessive sympathetic stimulation, status epilepticus
C) Excessive CNS stimulation, clonic-tonic convulsions
D) Excessive CNS stimulation, status epilepticus
Q3) A designer drug is usually an altered form of _____ or _____.
A) Amphetamines or marijuana
B) Amphetamines or narcotics
C) Cocaine or narcotics
D) Cocaine or marijuana
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Chapter 16: Antiepileptic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the statement that best explains the parameters used when deciding to treat a patient with lacosamide (Vimpat).
A) Lacosamide is used as adjunct therapy with other drugs for the treatment of grand mal seizures in patients 17 or older.
B) Lacosamide is used as adjunct therapy with other drugs for the treatment of myoclonic seizures in patients 17 or older.
C) Lacosamide is used as adjunct therapy with other drugs for the treatment of partial seizures in patients 17 or older.
D) Lacosamide is used as a single therapy for the treatment of partial seizures in patients 17 or older.
Q2) Explain why diazepam (Valium),although effective in the treatment of status epilepticus,may require additional administration of the drug to control the seizures.
A) Diazepam has a quick onset of action.
B) Diazepam has a short duration of action.
C) Diazepam has a long half-life.
D) None of these are correct.
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18
Chapter 17: Antiparkinson Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is an excitatory neurotransmitter released from the _____ area of the basal ganglia
A) Dopamine, corpus striatum
B) Acetylcholine, corpus striatum
C) Dopamine, substantia nigra
D) Acetylcholine, substantia nigra
Q2) Levodopa crosses the blood brain barrier through _____ which is normally specific for _____
A) Transporters, amino acids
B) Transporters, glucose
C) Ligand-gated ion channels, sodium
D) Ligand-gated ion channels, calcium
Q3) The addition of carbidopa to levodopa is beneficial because it _____ the amount of dopamine being produced in the periphery and decreases the _____ seen with higher levels of levodopa.
A) Decreases, side effects
B) Increases, side effects
C) Maintains, toxic effects
D) Increases, toxic effects
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Page 19
Chapter 18: General Anesthetics
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Q1) Select the reason why the neuromuscular blocking agent succinylcholine is the drug of choice for rapid sequence induction in adults.
A) Succinylcholine has a slow onset of action and a short duration of action, making it the paralytic of choice for rapid sequence induction.
B) Succinylcholine has a rapid onset of action and a long duration of action, making it the paralytic of choice for rapid sequence induction.
C) Succinylcholine has a rapid onset of action and an ultrashort duration of action, making it the paralytic of choice for rapid sequence induction.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Differentiate between the available inhaled anesthetics,and select the true statement related to their use.
A) All of the inhalation anesthetics produce all stages of general anesthesia.
B) Nitrous oxide is not potent enough to maintain Stage III, Plane 3 anesthesia.
C) The standard reference for inhaled anesthetics is MAC or median minimum alveolar concentration that keeps 75 percent of the patients from moving in response to a surgical stimulus (e.g., incision).
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 20: Nonopioid Analgesic, nonsteroidal
Antiinflammatory, and Antigout DR
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Sample Questions
Q1) Use the administration guidelines for the nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs to select the NSAID that is commercially available for parenteral administration to induce closure of the atrial opening in premature infants with patent ductus arteriosis.
A) Ibuprofen and indomethacin
B) Ibuprofen and ketorolac
C) Ketorolac and indomethacin
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Differentiate between the COX-2 inhibitors and other NSAIDs,and select the true statement about COX-2.
A) The selective COX-2 inhibitors exhibit potentially less serious cardiac or renal adverse effects than do other NSAIDs because they focus only on one group of enzymes.
B) Selective COX-2 inhibitors do not have the antithrombotic (clot prevention) protective action of aspirin and other COX-1 inhibitors because platelets are predominately a COX-1 pathway.
C) NSAIDs and COX-2 inhibitor drugs do not promote sodium and water retention.
D) All of these are correct.
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22
Chapter 21: Review of Cardiac Physiology and Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Repolarization of the ventricles occurs in the:
A) QRS interval
B) P wave
C) ST segment
D) T wave
Q2) Blood exits the heart from the _____,which then passes through the _____ before circulating throughout the body.
A) Left atrium, lungs
B) Left ventricle, lungs
C) Left ventricle, aorta
D) Right ventricle, aorta
Q3) A patient with atherosclerosis will also have:
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypercholesterolemia
C) Hypotension
D) Hypoglycemia
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Chapter 22: Treatment of Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the main causes of heart failure.
A) Untreated hypertension, myocardial infarction, and valvular defects
B) Untreated hyperglycemia, myocardial infarction, and valvular defects
C) Untreated hyperthyroidism, myocardial infarction and valvular defects
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Implementing a treatment plan that includes a vasodilator such as hydralazine requires monitoring the patient for:
A) Postural hypotension
B) Reflex tachycardia
C) Nausea and headache
D) All of these are correct.
Q3) Use the mechanism of action of the ACE inhibitors to determine the physiologic action that results from their use in the treatment of CHF.
A) ACE inhibitors reduce the formation of angiotensin II.
B) ACE inhibitors promote excretion of sodium and water from the kidneys.
C) ACE inhibitors decrease the inactivation of bradykinin.
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 23: Antiarrhythmic Drugs
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Q1) A potentially fatal problem that can occur with amiodarone is
A) Malignant hyperthermia
B) Circulatory collapse
C) Pulmonary fibrosis
D) Ventricular fibrillation
Q2) Class 3 antiarrhythmic drugs work by blocking the _____ of _____ ions during the repolarization phase.
A) Influx, sodium
B) Efflux, sodium
C) Influx, potassium
D) Efflux, potassium
Q3) Myocardial contraction plays an important role in phase _____,where an influx of _____ ions predominate.
A) 1, Na
B) 1, Ca
C) 2, Na
D) 2, Ca
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Chapter 24: Antianginal Drugs
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Q1) The type of angina that is characterized by vasospasm is classified as:
A) Stable angina
B) Prinzmetal angina
C) Ischemia
D) Exertional angina
Q2) Use critical thinking to determine the correct nitrate drug that is used prophylactically to prevent the occurrence of anginal attacks.
A) Isosorbide dinitrate
B) Nitroglycerin for IV infusion
C) Sublingual nitroglycerin
D) Nitroglycerin extended-release capsules
Q3) Distinguish between the adverse effects of the beta-adrenergic blockers and those of the calcium channel blockers,and select the statement that does not correspond with an adverse effect that would result from an overdosage of the calcium channel blocker verapamil.
A) Bradycardia
B) Decreased myocardial contraction
C) Increased myocardial contraction
D) AV block
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Chapter 25: Diuretics
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Q1) Metabolic acidosis can be a side effect from taking acetazolamide because:
A) Bicarbonate ions are wasted as sodium is being excreted into the tubule, thereby leaving behind acidic metabolic waste products needing to be neutralized.
B) Chloride ions are wasted as sodium is being excreted into the tubule, thereby leaving behind acidic metabolic waste products needing to be neutralized.
C) Bicarbonate ions are wasted as sodium is being reabsorbed back into the tubule, attracting hydrogen ions to follow.
D) Chloride ions are wasted as sodium is being reabsorbed back into the tubule, attracting hydrogen ions to follow.
Q2) Edema is a result of insufficient _____ clearance where fluid accumulates in the _____.
A) Sodium, extracellular space
B) Sodium, intracellular space
C) Chloride, extracellular space
D) Chloride, intracellular space
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Chapter 26: Antihypertensive Drugs
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Q1) Explain the role of the kidneys in the development of hypertension.
A) Activation of the RAA mechanism causes vasoconstriction, and sodium and water release, which leads to an increase in blood pressure.
B) Activation of the RAA mechanism causes vasoconstriction, and sodium and water retention, which leads to an increase in blood pressure.
C) Deactivation of the RAA mechanism causes vasoconstriction, and sodium and water retention, which leads to an increase in blood pressure.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Focus on the treatment options for malignant hypertension,and select the true statement related to sodium nitroprusside (Nipride).
A) Sodium nitroprusside is administered by slow intravenous infusion.
B) The duration of action of sodium nitroprusside is short, usually 1 to 5 minutes.
C) The normal dose of sodium nitroprusside is approximately 3 mcg per kg per minute.
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 27: Anticoagulants and Coagulants
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Q1) What are the two groups in which heparin can be classified?
A) Standard heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin
B) Standard heparin and high-molecular-weight heparin
C) Low-molecular-weight heparin and high-molecular-weight heparin
D) Low-molecular-weight heparin and fractionated heparin
Q2) Toxicity from oral anticoagulants and other medications can often occur because of:
A) Enhanced metabolism in the liver
B) Reduced clearance from the kidneys
C) Enhanced plasma protein binding by the oral anticoagulant
D) Plasma protein binding displacement
Q3) The mechanism of action for which medication works by converting plasminogen to plasmin?
A) Aspirin
B) Alteplase
C) Enoxaparin
D) Heparin
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Chapter 28: Nutrition and Therapy
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Q1) Describe the standard that the National Research Council-National Academy of Sciences,Food and Nutrition Board uses to determine the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for the daily intake of elements that are not produced by the body.
A) The recommendations are derived from healthy individuals consuming a 2000-calorie daily diet balanced from the five basic food groups.
B) The recommendations are derived from healthy individuals consuming a 1500-calorie daily diet balanced from the four basic food groups.
C) The recommendations are derived from healthy individuals consuming a 2000-calorie daily diet balanced from the 6 basic food groups.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Describe the type of patient who would benefit from the administration of a TPN.
A) Cancer patient having difficulty with excessive weight loss
B) Diabetic patient having difficulty keeping his or her blood sugar level down
C) Pregnant patient who has been vomiting excessively and is dehydrated
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 29: Hypolipidemic Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following activities would not result in an elevation of HDL levels?
A) Vigorous exercise
B) Starvation
C) Consuming a diet high in fish
D) Moderate alcohol consumption
Q2) All of the following HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors have shown an enhanced reduction in LDL levels (up to 45%) except
A) Simvastatin
B) Atorvastatin
C) Lovastatin
D) Rosuvastatin
Q3) Cholesterol can best be tested by what type of sample?
A) Whole blood sample
B) Plasma sample
C) Serum sample
D) Urine sample
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Chapter 30: Antianemics
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Q1) Use your knowledge of the precautions and contraindications in the treatment of deficiency anemias to select the antidote for acute iron toxicity.
A) Gastric lavage with 5 to 10 grams of deferoxamine mesylate
B) Taking 200 mg of vitamin C orally within 10 minutes of the toxic dose
C) Eating a meal to help bind the iron, preventing it from being absorbed into the bloodstream
D) None of these are correct
Q2) Describe a physiological situation that can lead to the development of anemia.
A) Anemia may be caused by deficiency in the amount of hemoglobin, occurring when the number of circulating red blood cells is decreased.
B) Anemia may be caused by an excessive loss of blood or an increased destruction of RBCs.
C) Anemia may be caused by a decreased production of RBCs, which reduces the amount of circulating hemoglobin.
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 31: Antihistaminic Drugs and Mast Cell Release
Inhibitors
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Q1) What role do H<sub>1</sub>-receptors play in the bronchioles for patients with asthma?
A) Contraction of bronchiolar smooth muscle and making breathing difficult
B) Dilation of bronchiolar smooth muscle and making breathing difficult
C) Contraction of bronchiolar smooth muscle and alleviating breathing problems
D) Dilation of bronchiolar smooth muscle and alleviating breathing problems
Q2) What type of antibody is produced the first time a person is sensitized by tree pollen?
A) IgA
B) IgB
C) IgE
D) IgF
Q3) Eczematoid dermatitis can occur with antihistamines as a result of:
A) A severe allergic reaction
B) Overstimulation of mast cell degranulation
C) A hypersensitivity reaction from overuse
D) None of these result in dermatitis.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Respiratory Pharmacology, treatment of
Asthma, and Copd
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Q1) Explain the mechanism of action of the anticholinergic drug agents used to treat asthma.
A) By blocking the actions of acetylcholine, anticholinergic drugs produce B) bronchodilation and also reduce the volume of respiratory secretions.
C) By blocking the actions of acetylcholine, anticholinergic drugs produce bronchoconstriction and also increase the volume of respiratory secretions.
D) By blocking the actions of acetylcholine, anticholinergic drugs produce bronchodilation and also increase the volume of respiratory secretions.
E) None of these are correct.
Q2) Use the clinical manifestations of asthma and COPD to determine the significant therapeutic aim in treating COPD.
A) Inhibit the production of mucus.
B) Maximize the exchange of the respiratory gases.
C) Liquefy mucus to help eliminate the mucus from the lungs.
D) All of these are correct.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Therapy of Gastrointestinal Disorders: Peptic Ulcers, gerd,
and Vom
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Q1) One common problem with long term use of antacids would be
A) Metabolic alkalosis
B) High magnesium content
C) High aluminum content
D) High sodium content
Q2) One way to directly block the secretion of acid and pepsin in the stomach would be to
A) Administer an H1 blocker
B) Administer a proton pump inhibitor
C) Administer an H2 blocker
D) Administer an anticholinergic
Q3) In treating an H.pylori peptic ulcer,triple therapy refers to using
A) Two antibiotics and a bismuth compound
B) Two antibiotics and a proton pump inhibitor
C) An antibiotic, a bismuth compound, and a proton pump inhibitor
D) An antibiotic, an antifungal, and a bismuth compound
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Chapter 34: Agents That Affect Intestinal Motility
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Q1) Summarize the residual physical effects associated with diarrhea that continues over a long time.
A) As diarrhea continues, the rectum loses its ability to control the contractions of the rectum, necessary in normal defecation.
B) As diarrhea continues over a long time, large quantities of water, sodium, potassium, and chloride are lost or excreted in the fluid stool. This loss results in dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.
C) As diarrhea continues, the impulses from the brain that prevent untimely defecation weaken and the external anal sphincter relaxes.
D) All of these are true.
Q2) Identify the definition of peristalsis.
A) Peristalsis is the process of discharging the contents of the intestines.
B) Peristalsis is the process in which water moves across membranes following the movement of sodium ions.
C) Peristalsis is a movement characterized by circular contraction and relaxation that propels or moves contents of the GI tract.
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 35: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Q1) The portal system allows for communication between
A) The hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland
B) The hypothalamus and the posterior pituitary gland
C) The hypothalamus and both lobes of the pituitary gland
D) The hypothalamus and the target organ
Q2) Somatostatin is
A) A releasing hormone that promotes the release of growth hormone
B) An inhibitory hormone released from the target organ
C) An inhibitory hormone released from the pituitary gland
D) An inhibitory hormone released from the hypothalamus
Q3) A lack of thyroid production in infancy results in
A) Dwarfism
B) Cretinism
C) Acromegaly
D) Carcinoid tumors
Q4) Which hormone is acutely regulated through a positive feedback loop?
A) Antidiuretic hormone
B) Oxytocin
C) Thyroid stimulating hormone
D) Prolactin
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Chapter 36: Adrenal Steroids
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Q1) Select the most appropriate reason why a patient on warfarin therapy should not use the glucocorticoids.
A) Treatment with glucocorticoids while on warfarin therapy can lead to an inhibition of the action of the anticoagulant.
B) Treatment with glucocorticoids while on warfarin therapy can lead to an inhibition of the action of the glucocorticoid.
C) Treatment with glucocorticoids while on warfarin therapy can lead to potentiation of the action of the anticoagulant.
D) Treatment with glucocorticoids while on warfarin therapy can lead to potentiation of the action of the glucocorticoid.
Q2) Identify the hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary in response to the hypothalamus secreting corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH).
A) Aldosterone
B) Adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH)
C) Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
D) Cortisol
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Chapter 37: Gonadal Hormones, oral Contraceptives, and
Erectile Dysfunction Dru
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Q1) During oogenesis,the cells that are arrested in prophase of the first meiotic division are:
A) Primary oocytes
B) Secondary oocytes
C) Tertiary oocytes
D) Oogonia
Q2) The risk of older women having offspring with Down syndrome is due to chromosomal changes occurring in the ova:
A) Arrested in prophase of the second meiotic division
B) Arrested in metaphase of the second meiotic division
C) Arrested in prophase of the first meiotic division
D) Arrested in metaphase of the first meiotic division
Q3) Sperm production is enhanced through the synergistic interaction between which two hormones?
A) GnRH and DHEA
B) GnRH and testosterone
C) Testosterone and FSH
D) Testosterone and LH
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Chapter 38: Drugs Affecting the Thyroid and Parathyroid Glands
and Bone Degener
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Q1) Select the statement that best explains the results of excessive use of calcium and vitamin D in the treatment of hypocalcemia.
A) Excessive use of calcium and vitamin D may lead to convulsions and parasthesia.
B) Excessive use of calcium and vitamin D may lead to hypercalcemia and kidney stone formation.
C) All of these are correct.
D) Excessive use of calcium and vitamin D may lead to carpopedal spasms.
Q2) Differentiate between osteoclasts and osteoblasts,and select the true statement related to the calcium balance mechanism.
A) The osteoclasts secrete enzymes that break down bone and release calcium ions.
B) The osteoblasts secrete a protein matrix to facilitate calcium ion deposition.
C) A crystalline calcium phosphate salt known as hydroxyapatite is needed for the calcium to be laid into bone.
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 39: Pancreatic Hormones and Antidiabetic Drugs
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Q1) Which glucose receptor also functions as a carrier channel in cells?
A) GLUT1
B) GLUT2
C) GLUT3
D) GLUT4
Q2) What ion channel is essential for the release of insulin and amylin into the blood?
A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Potassium
D) Chloride
Q3) Which antidiabetic agents are considered hypoglycemics?
A) Insulins and alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
B) Biguanides and secretagogues
C) Insulin sensitizers and peptidase inhibitors
D) Insulins and secretagogues
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Chapter 40: Posterior Pituitary Hormones: Antidiuretic Hormone
and Oxytocin
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Q1) Differentiate between ergonovine (Ergotrate) and methylergonovine (Methergine),and select the statement that includes the correct adverse effects.
A) The common adverse effect of ergonovine (Ergotrate) or methylergonovine (Methergine) is vasodilation, which can produce varying degrees of hypotension.
B) The common adverse effects of ergonovine (Ergotrate) or methylergonovine (Methergine) include nausea, vomiting, and constriction of blood vessels, which can produce varying degrees of hypertension.
C) The common adverse effects of ergonovine (Ergotrate) or methylergonovine (Methergine) include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Summarize the uses of desmopressin or DDAVP.
A) Desmopressin is used to prevent or relieve abdominal distention associated with surgical procedures.
B) Desmopressin is used for the treatment of diabetes insipidus.
C) Desmopressin is proven effective in the treatment of nocturnal enuresis when administered prior to bedtime
D) All of these are correct.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Antibacterial Agents
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Q1) Which group of penicillins has shown beta-lactamase resistance?
A) First-generation penicillins
B) Second-generation penicillins
C) Third-generation penicillins
D) Fourth-generation penicillins
Q2) A substance that is ingested and increases acetylation activity of the liver would have what type of effect on isoniazid activity?
A) Antagonism
B) No activity
C) Enhanced activity
D) Decreased activity
Q3) Aminoglycosides can produce a synergistic bactericidal action when combined with:
A) Cephalosporins
B) Tetracyclines
C) Sulfonamides
D) Macrolides
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43
Chapter 42: Antifungal and Antiviral Drugs
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Q1) Select the statement that best explains the reason why it has not been possible to develop a vaccine for HIV.
A) In many cases, as with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), it has not been possible to develop a vaccine. HIV rapidly replicates and undergoes mutations so frequently that even small changes in its proteins make the virus unrecognizable to host immune cells.
B) The identification of the metabolic process and subtypes of the human immunodeficiency virus are not yet fully understood, so there has not been enough time to create a vaccine that would protect against all of the subtypes of HIV.
C) The macrophages, dendritic cells, and T and B cells interact with the protein components of HIV, and therefore no vaccine can be developed until a solution to the interaction between the cells of the body and the protein components is found.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Describe flucytosine's (Ancobon's) site of action within the cell.
A) Cell wall and nucleus
B) Nucleus and cell body
C) Cell body and cell wall
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 43: Parasitic Infections: Antiprotozoal and Anthelmintic Drugs
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Q1) Ms.Smith has a family history of anemia.After returning from a vacation in the tropics,she develops malaria.Which medication should not be given?
A) Primaquine
B) Mefloquine
C) Chloroquine
D) Hydroxychloroquine
Q2) A patient with a tapeworm infestation has been admitted to the hospital.The patient also has a low blood count.What should be suspected by the health care professional?
A) There is also a serious infection in addition to the tapeworm infestation.
B) The tapeworm is producing a toxin that is destroying red blood cells.
C) The tapeworm is robbing the body of cofactors needed to produce red blood cells.
D) The tapeworm may have perforated the intestines, causing hemorrhaging.
Q3) What antimalarial agent can be used to produce a radical cure?
A) Primaquine
B) Chloroquine
C) Mefloquine
D) Quinine
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Q1) Using the mechanism of action of the aldehyde disinfectants,determine the statement that is not true about their use as effective antiseptics.
A) The aldehyde group is used to inactivate viruses and toxins (and any other organism) because these chemicals are incorporated into the bacterial cell wall, which disrupts the membrane and reduces the membrane's permeability.
B) Glutaraldehyde is used for cold sterilization of equipment, medical devices, and surgical instruments.
C) The aldehyde group is never used as an antiseptic because of the potential damage to human tissue at any concentration.
D) The aldehyde group includes formaldehyde, glutaraldehyde, and ethylene oxide.
Q2) Match the definition "a thick crust or scab that develops at the site of a skin burn or contact with corrosive chemicals" with the correct term.
A) Eschar
B) Lyse
C) Argyria
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Agents
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Q1) Which of the following would best represent the best drug product of current research on developing a new chemotherapeutic medication?
A) Antimetabolite
B) Alkylating drug
C) Polyclonal antibody
D) Monoclonal antibody
Q2) Which two systems can cancer use to metastasize?
A) Digestive system and lymphatic system
B) Respiratory system and lymphatic system
C) Circulatory system and lymphatic system
D) Circulatory system and nervous system
Q3) What type of alkylating drugs would be good for treating brain tumors?
A) Nitrosoureas
B) Nitrogen mustard
C) Platinum derivatives
D) Antimetabolites
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Chapter 46: Immunopharmacology
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Q1) Describe the common adverse effects of the use of the interferons.
A) Common adverse effects of the use of the interferons are nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and muscle aches and pains.
B) Common adverse effects of the use of the interferons are flu-like symptoms: chills, fever, and muscle aches and pains.
C) Common adverse effects of the use of the interferons are nausea, vomiting, hair loss, and bone marrow depression.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Identify the main function of the macrophages.
A) Macrophages regulate the activity of the immune system.
B) Macrophages are cells that release chemicals that help us fight infection from infectious organisms and foreign substances.
C) Macrophages are scavenger cells that engulf and digest infectious organisms and foreign substances.
D) All of these are correct.
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