Pharmacology for Allied Health Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pharmacology for Allied Health provides a comprehensive overview of the principles of drug action and the safe administration of medications commonly encountered in clinical settings. The course emphasizes the mechanisms of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion, as well as the therapeutic uses and adverse effects of major drug classes. Students will learn to interpret drug orders, explore the roles of pharmacology within allied health professions, and develop critical thinking skills related to medication safety, patient education, and interprofessional collaboration. Through case studies and practical examples, this course prepares students to responsibly support medication management and promote optimal patient outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology An Introduction 6th Edition by Henry Hitner
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Chapter 1: Pharmacology: An Introduction
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Q1) The most current drug reference source would be:
A) Physicians' Desk Reference
B) Drug Facts and Comparisons
C) United States Pharmacopeia/National Formulary
D) Merck Index
Answer: B
Q2) The main source of new drugs derived today is:
A) Synthetic sources
B) Animal sources
C) Plant sources
D) Mineral sources
Answer: A
Q3) In toxicity testing,animals are injected with a particular dose of medication so that an LD50 value can be determined.The best curve to represent the findings would be a:
A) Time-response curve
B) Scatter plot
C) Graded dose-response curve
D) Quantal dose-response curve
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics and Factors of Individual
Variation
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Q1) Identify the dosage form that contains dried and finely ground drugs or drug extract.
A) Powders
B) Tablets
C) Troches
D) Capsules
Answer: A
Q2) Use a half-life of 8 hours to determine how much drug is left in the body at 4 p.m.after a 500-mg dose was taken at 8 am.
A) 250 mg
B) 125 mg
C) 375 mg
D) None of these are correct.
Answer: A
Q3) Identify the most common drug available as a transdermal patch system.
A) Nitroglycerin
B) Clonidine
C) Estrogen
D) All of these are correct.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Geriatric Pharmacology
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Q1) A chief complaint from elderly patients taking potassium bromide tablets would be:
A) Dosing frequency
B) Dietary restrictions
C) Difficulty swallowing
D) Small size
Answer: C
Q2) Pharmacologic compounds that are most affected by liver enzymes in elderly patients are:
A) Oxidizing
B) Reducing
C) Chelating
D) Alkylating
Answer: A
Q3) The term used to describe a patient who is on multiple prescriptions is:
A) Medication error
B) Polypharmacy
C) Therapeutic duplication
D) Subtherapeutic response
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Math Review and Dosage Calculations
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Q1) Select the volume that will have to be added to an IV bag in order to administer a recommended dose of 2 mg/kg of a drug that is supplied as 2 gram,which will be mixed in enough water to make 100 ml of final solution (W/V).The patient weighs 220 pounds.
A) 25 ml
B) 40 ml
C) 10 ml
D) 50 ml
Q2) Which unit of measure in the metric system is used to determine liquid volume?
A) Meter
B) Liter
C) Gram
D) Grain
Q3) Use Clark's rule to determine the necessary dose of a drug routinely ordered for adults as 300 mg.The child is 5 years old and weighs 40 pounds.
A) 50 mg
B) 60 mg
C) 70 mg
D) 80 mg
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6
Chapter 5: Introduction to the Autonomic Nervous System
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Q1) A patient with severe hypertension can be viewed as having an overstimulation of which receptor?
A) Beta-1
B) Beta-2
C) Alpha-1
D) Alpha-2
Q2) A patient with asthma can benefit from taking a medication that stimulates which receptor?
A) Alpha-1
B) Alpha-2
C) Beta-1
D) Beta-2
Q3) If the heart of a frog were placed in a petri dish filled with oxygenated Ringer's solution,what other chemical would be essential to make it contract?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Acetylcholine
C) Serotonin
D) None
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7
Chapter 6: Drugs Affecting the Sympathetic Nervous System
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Q1) Use the low-dose range of 0.5-2 mcg/kg/minute to determine the appropriate dose range of dopamine that would result in vasodilation and increased renal blood flow for a patient who weighs 220 pounds.
A) 3-12 mg/hr
B) 10-15 mg/hr
C) 20-25 mg/hr
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Analyze the drugs in each group below,and select the group of drugs that are administered by parenteral injection and used to elevate blood pressure.
A) Midodrine, norepinephrine, and phenylephrine
B) Xylometazoline, midodrine, and phenylephrine
C) Metaraminol, norepinephrine, and phenylephrine
D) Pseudoephedrine, midodrine, and phenylephrine
Q3) The alpha and beta agonists are also known as sympathomimetics.You can conclude that these agonists:
A) Produce effects similar to the sympathetic nervous system
B) Produce effects similar to the parasympathetic nervous system
C) Produce effects similar to the cardiovascular system
D) None of these are correct.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Drugs Affecting the Parasympathetic Nervous System
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Q1) Intravenous injection of acetylcholine will not be successful in suppressing cholinergic activity due to the presence of:
A) Phosphodiesterase
B) Pseudoacetylcholinesterase
C) Serum albumin
D) Hemoglobin
Q2) What triggers the release of acetylcholine from a neuron?
A) Hormonal control
B) Enzyme activity
C) Nerve stimulation
D) Regulator proteins
Q3) Indirect-acting anticholinesterase drugs are effective at treating glaucoma because they produce:
A) Mydriasis
B) Miosis
C) Cycloplegia
D) Diplopia
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Drugs Affecting the Autonomic Ganglia
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Q1) Integrating a nicotine replacement product while the patient continues to indulge in smoking cigarettes could lead to:
A) Toxic doses of nicotine in the body
B) Ganglionic blockade
C) Decreased respiratory function
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Implementing a treatment plan that includes ganglionic blocking drugs and vasodilators could lead to a drug interaction that could result in:
A) Additive anticholinergic effects
B) Additive vasodilating effects
C) Antagonism of anticholinergic effects
D) Additive antiadrenergic effects
Q3) Match the drug preparation verenicline with the correct trade name:
A) Zyban
B) Commit
C) Chantix
D) Wellbutrin SR
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Chapter 9: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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Q1) The antidote given for depolarizing muscle blocker toxicity is:
A) Pancuronium
B) Succinylcholine
C) Anticholinesterase drug
D) None available
Q2) A patient with a spinal cord injury would be treated best with which muscle relaxant?
A) Succinylcholine
B) Dantrolene
C) Baclofen
D) Mevacurium
Q3) One way to overcome the effects of a rapidly metabolized skeletal muscle relaxant is to administer the medication by:
A) IV injection
B) IV infusion
C) IM injection
D) Subcutaneous injection
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Chapter 10: Local Anesthetics
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Q1) When differentiating between local and general anesthetics,general anesthetics:
A) Cause total loss of consciousness
B) Stimulate the activity of the CNS
C) Can limit the response to one area of the body
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Using duration of action as a guide,select the group which has the local anesthetics listed in order of increasing duration of action.
A) Novocain, Lidoderm, GumEase
B) Lidoderm, GumEase, Novocain
C) GumEase, Novocain, Lidoderm
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) Identify the most common clinical use of local anesthetics.
A) Abolish painful stimulation prior to surgical procedures.
B) Abolish painful stimulation prior to tooth extractions.
C) Abolish painful stimulation prior to childbirth.
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 11: Introduction to the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following is the only brain structure that is under conscious control?
A) Thalamus
B) Pons
C) Medulla oblongata
D) Cerebral cortex
Q2) A loud noise would stimulate _____ fibers in the _____.
A) Excitatory, reticular formation
B) Excitatory, limbic system
C) Sympathetic, medulla oblongata
D) Sympathetic, thalamus
Q3) Inhibitory fibers of the _____ become more active during periods of _____.
A) Limbic system, sleep
B) Reticular formation, sleep
C) Limbic system, darkness
D) Reticular formation, darkness
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13
Chapter 12: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs and Alcohol
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Q1) Use critical thinking to determine the major difference between flurazepam and temazepam.
A) Flurazepam is a long-acting hypnotic that forms several active metabolites, and temazepam is an intermediate-acting hypnotic that does not form active metabolites.
B) Flurazepam is a short-acting hypnotic that forms several active metabolites, and temazepam is a long-acting hypnotic that does not form active metabolites.
C) Flurazepam is an intermediate-acting hypnotic that forms several active metabolites, and temazepam is a short-acting hypnotic that does not form active metabolites.
D) Both flurazepam and temazepam are intermediate-acting hypnotics that form active metabolites.
Q2) Using the Physicians' Desk Reference,you determine that a common adverse effect that an elderly patient may experience while taking zolpidem (Ambien) is:
A) Confusion and memory disturbances
B) Convulsions
C) Slurred speech
D) None of these are correct.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Antipsychotic and Antianxiety Drugs
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Q1) A beneficial side effect of phenothiazine antipsychotics would be for the treatment of what condition?
A) Hyperthermia
B) Constipation
C) Diarrhea
D) Nausea and vomiting
Q2) A person taking an atypical antipsychotic medication could be expected to develop all of the following metabolic disorders except:
A) Weight gain
B) Anemia
C) Hyperlipidemia
D) Diabetes mellitus
Q3) Long term use of phenothiazine antipsychotics can result in this serious condition.
A) Parkinsonism
B) Akathesia
C) On-off phenomenon
D) Tardive dyskinesia
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Chapter 14: Antidepressants, psychomotor Stimulants, and Lithium
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Q1) Using the Drug Facts and Comparisons reference manual,you learn that the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have low,high,or sedating effects on the CNS.Select the drugs that fall into this category.
A) Citalopram, lithium, and amitriptyline
B) Citalopram, fluoxetine, and sertraline
C) Paroxetine, lithium, and fluoxetine
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Differentiate between the common dosage ranges of the atypical SSRIs,and select the correct daily dosage range of duloxetine (Cymbalta).
A) 40-60 mg by mouth
B) 300-600 mg by mouth
C) 50-200 mg by mouth
D) 225-375 mg by mouth
Q3) Identify the type of depression in which there is a period of shock followed by a period of readjustment and resolve that life must go on.
A) Exogenous
B) Mania
C) Major depressive disorder
D) None of these are correct.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Psychotomimetic Drugs of Abuse
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Q1) Marijuana resin is extracted from the plant:
A) Cannabinoid
B) Hashish
C) Tetrahydrocannabinol
D) Hemp
Q2) Which hallucinogen is one of the least potent?
A) Mescaline
B) Psilocibin
C) LSD
D) DOM
Q3) Tricyclic antidepressant drugs have been used in treating cocaine dependency because they:
A) Lessen euphoric effect and minimize tolerance
B) Lessen euphoric effect and reduce cravings
C) Minimize tolerance and reduce cravings
D) Establish a cross tolerance and reduce cravings
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Chapter 16: Antiepileptic Drugs
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Q1) Tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures are the most dramatic seizures in appearance.Describe the signs to look for in order to determine that a person has experienced a grand mal seizure.
A) Confusion, fatigue, and muscle pain and soreness usually follow a grand mal seizure.
B) Increase in blood pressure, heart rate, urination, and defecation is common.
C) Periods of alternating muscle contractions and relaxation, resembling a jerking motion, are present.
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Using adverse effects,determine the information you will need to educate a patient who takes carbamazepine (Tegretol).
A) Bone marrow depression that can lead to aplastic anemia
B) Impaired liver function that can lead to jaundice
C) Convulsions and difficulty breathing
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 17: Antiparkinson Drugs
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Q1) Antipsychotic medications may _____ the effectiveness of levodopa because they _____ dopamine receptors.
A) Increase, block
B) Increase, activate
C) Decrease, block
D) Decrease, activate
Q2) _____ is an excitatory neurotransmitter released from the _____ area of the basal ganglia
A) Dopamine, corpus striatum
B) Acetylcholine, corpus striatum
C) Dopamine, substantia nigra
D) Acetylcholine, substantia nigra
Q3) Levodopa crosses the blood brain barrier through _____ which is normally specific for _____
A) Transporters, amino acids
B) Transporters, glucose
C) Ligand-gated ion channels, sodium
D) Ligand-gated ion channels, calcium
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19
Chapter 18: General Anesthetics
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Q1) Select the true statement based on the solubility characteristic also known as the blood:gas partition coefficient.
A) The higher the blood:gas partition coefficient, the more soluble the drug is in the blood.
B) The more soluble anesthetics have a longer onset of action because they require more anesthetic to dissolve in the blood before enough drug molecules are available to C) cross into the brain, where they can modulate neuronal membranes to produce a state of anesthesia.
D) Nitrous oxide, desflurane, and sevoflurane have blood:gas partition coefficients that are less than the blood:gas partition coefficients of halothane and enflurane.
E) All of these are correct.
Q2) Using the side-effect profile of the general anesthetics,select the anesthetic agent that would have an antiemetic effect on the patient.
A) Propofol
B) Thiopental
C) Ketamine
D) Nitrous oxide
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Opioid Analgesics
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Q1) Mu receptors have _____ ion channels which will be _____,thereby decreasing the release of neurotransmitters associated with pain.
A) K, stimulated
B) K, blocked
C) Ca, stimulated
D) Ca, blocked
Q2) The specific class of opioid receptor in the CNS responsible for respiratory depression is:
A) Kappa
B) Mu<sub>1</sub>
C) Mu<sub>2</sub>
D) Delta
Q3) Which of these groups of medications can play an adjunct role in pain management?
A) Antiepileptic drugs and SSRI antidepressants
B) Antiepileptic drugs and tricyclic antidepressants
C) Antidiabetic drugs and SSRI antidepressants
D) Antidiabetic drugs and tricyclic antidepressants
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21
Chapter 20: Nonopioid Analgesic, nonsteroidal
Antiinflammatory, and Antigout DR
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Q1) Use the adverse-effects profile of acetaminophen to determine the recommended treatment options for acetaminophen poisoning.
A) The treatment for acetaminophen poisoning includes gastric aspiration and lavage.
B) Maintenance of fluid balance by conventional means is necessary in the treatment of acetaminophen poisoning.
C) Use of activated charcoal will absorb the acetaminophen if administered within hours of the overdose.
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Select the statement that best describes the mechanism of action of colchicine.
A) Colchicine specifically alters the ability of the phagocytes to attack uric acid crystals. As a result, the pH of the joint fluid does not fall.
B) Colchicine is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase, so uric acid formation is blocked.
C) Colchicine is a noncompetitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase, so uric acid formation is blocked.
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 21: Review of Cardiac Physiology and Pathology
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Q1) Blood exits the heart from the _____,which then passes through the _____ before circulating throughout the body.
A) Left atrium, lungs
B) Left ventricle, lungs
C) Left ventricle, aorta
D) Right ventricle, aorta
Q2) Insufficient blood flow in coronary arteries to the heart is common in all of these conditions except:
A) Arteriosclerosis
B) Atherosclerosis
C) Angina pectoris
D) Arrhythmias
Q3) What part of the autonomic nervous system is active during eating,digestion,and sleep?
A) Central nervous system
B) Peripheral nervous system
C) Sympathetic nervous system
D) Parasympathetic nervous system
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Chapter 22: Treatment of Heart Failure
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Q1) Differentiate between the loop diuretics,bumetanide (Bumex),torsemide (Demadex),and furosemide (Lasix),and select the agent that has the shortest duration of action.
A) Torsemide (Demadex)
B) Furosemide (Lasix)
C) Bumetanide (Bumex)
D) None of these are correct
Q2) Using your knowledge of the mechanism of action of digoxin,determine what facts should be given to a patient who is being started on digoxin for the first time.
A) Maintain adequate potassium intake.
B) Avoid taking antacids and laxatives when taking digoxin.
C) Pulse rate should be between 60 and 100 beats per minute.
D) All of these are correct.
Q3) Differentiate between the thiazides,loop diuretics,and aldosterone antagonists,and select the diuretic agent that has the longest duration of action.
A) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
B) Furosemide (Lasix)
C) Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril)
D) Amiloride (Midamor)
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Antiarrhythmic Drugs
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Q1) A potentially fatal problem that can occur with amiodarone is
A) Malignant hyperthermia
B) Circulatory collapse
C) Pulmonary fibrosis
D) Ventricular fibrillation
Q2) In atrial flutter,one would expect the ECG to have P waves in what type of pattern?
A) Sawtooth
B) Bag of worms
C) In triplets
D) Inverted
Q3) A type of arrhythmia that originates in the SA node and causes a sustained heart rate over 100 beats per minute.
A) Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
B) Ventricular tachycardia
C) Supraventricular tachycardia
D) Sinus tachycardia
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Chapter 24: Antianginal Drugs
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Q1) Samuel has been prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin for angina pain.You use the Physicians' Desk Reference and determine that the correct length of time that Samuel can expect to wait for the nitroglycerin's actions to take effect will be:
A) 1 to 3 minutes
B) 3 to 5 minutes
C) 5 to 7 minutes
D) 2 to 4 minutes
Q2) Alice is experiencing periods of angina,and she places a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet under her tongue as directed by her physician.After 5 minutes have passed,she is not feeling any relief.What step should be implemented next?
A) Seek medical assistance immediately.
B) Place another sublingual nitroglycerin tablet under her tongue.
C) Swallow the nitroglycerin tablet in order to get better absorption.
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) The type of angina that is characterized by vasospasm is classified as:
A) Stable angina
B) Prinzmetal angina
C) Ischemia
D) Exertional angina
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Diuretics
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Q1) Edema is a result of insufficient _____ clearance where fluid accumulates in the
A) Sodium, extracellular space
B) Sodium, intracellular space
C) Chloride, extracellular space
D) Chloride, intracellular space
Q2) Due to the potency of sodium and water removal by thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics,patients taking these diuretics may experience
A) Orthostatic hypertension
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Respiratory depression
D) Hypoglycemia
Q3) The process of filtration in a nephron occurs in the:
A) Glomerulus
B) Proximal convoluted tubule
C) Nephron loop
D) Collecting duct
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Chapter 26: Antihypertensive Drugs
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Q1) Differentiate between the angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs) and the angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs),and select the drug agent of choice in the treatment of hypertension because it possesses the shortest plasma half-life within this group.
A) Quinapril (Accupril)
B) Captopril (Capoten)
C) Losarten (Cozaar)
D) Valsarten (Diovan)
Q2) Select the statement that is not consistent with the pharmacologic effect or adverse-effects profile of the vasodilator hydralazine (Apresoline).
A) Long-term use may produce rheumatoid arthritis or a systemic lupus erythematosus-like syndrome.
B) Hydralazine is an arteriolar dilator used in moderate to severe hypertension in combination with both diuretics and beta-blockers (triple therapy).
C) The main adverse effects are nausea, headache, hypertension, and reflex bradycardia.
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 27: Anticoagulants and Coagulants
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Q1) The preferred anticoagulant during pregnancy is:
A) Heparin
B) Warfarin
C) Streptokinase
D) Enoxaparin
Q2) Toxicity from oral anticoagulants and other medications can often occur because of:
A) Enhanced metabolism in the liver
B) Reduced clearance from the kidneys
C) Enhanced plasma protein binding by the oral anticoagulant
D) Plasma protein binding displacement
Q3) A hospital patient with a tendency to form blood clots is in the recovery room after having hip replacement surgery.Which anticoagulant would best serve the patient's needs?
A) Warfarin
B) Aspirin
C) Heparin
D) Streptokinase
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29
Chapter 28: Nutrition and Therapy
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Q1) Use your knowledge of vitamins and nutritional therapy to determine the instructions that you must give a patient regarding therapy with nutritional supplements.
A) Nutritional supplements should be taken with meals to avoid GI distress.
B) Extended-release formulations of vitamins should not be chewed or crushed.
C) If pregnancy is suspected, the supplements should not exceed the recommended maximum daily amounts.
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Describe the type of patient who would benefit from the administration of a TPN.
A) Cancer patient having difficulty with excessive weight loss
B) Diabetic patient having difficulty keeping his or her blood sugar level down
C) Pregnant patient who has been vomiting excessively and is dehydrated
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) Identify the group consisting of the fat-soluble vitamins.
A) Vitamins A, D, E, and K
B) Vitamins A, B, D, and E
C) Vitamins A, B, C, and D
D) Vitamins A, B, D, and K
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Chapter 29: Hypolipidemic Drugs
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Q1) Why should statin medications be taken during the evening?
A) Statin medications cause drowsiness
B) Cholesterol is absorbed at night
C) Statin medications are absorbed very slowly
D) Cholesterol is endogenously produced at night
Q2) Why is an unstable plaque more dangerous?
A) Increased likelihood for hemorrhage that can lead to shock
B) Increased likelihood for hemorrhage that can lead to arrhythmias
C) Thrombus formation that can cause hypertension
D) Thrombus formation that can block blood flow
Q3) Rhabdomyolysis is a serious side effect that may be experienced by patients on statin medications because
A) Immunoglobulin molecules can disrupt blood flow and cause renal failure
B) Myoglobin molecules can disrupt blood flow to kidneys and cause renal failure
C) Immunoglobulin molecules can disrupt blood flow and cause an aneurism
D) Myoglobin molecules can disrupt blood flow and cause myocardial infarction
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Chapter 30: Antianemics
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Q1) Differentiate between the RBC characteristics associated with the various types of anemias,and identify the type of red blood cell associated with anemia due to increased red blood cell destruction.
A) In anemia due to increased red blood cell destruction, the RBCs are classified as microcytic hypochromic.
B) In anemia due to increased red blood cell destruction, the RBCs are classified as normocytic normochromic.
C) In anemia due to increased red blood cell destruction, the RBCs are classified as hypochromic.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Identify the main function of hemoglobin in the prevention of anemia.
A) The main function of hemoglobin is to stimulate the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow.
B) The main function of hemoglobin is to stimulate the intestinal absorption of cyanocobalamin.
C) The main function of hemoglobin is to transport oxygen to all of the tissues of the body.
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 31: Antihistaminic Drugs and Mast Cell Release
Inhibitors
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Q1) The best time to administer cromolyn sodium is:
A) Before an allergic attack
B) Immediately after an allergic attack has occurred
C) About 1 hour after an allergic attack has occurred
D) Anytime after an allergic attack has occurred
Q2) Advantages of newer-generation antihistaminics over first-generation antihistaminics are:
A) Increased selectivity for central H<sub>1</sub>-receptors and less sedation
B) Decreased selectivity for peripheral H<sub>1</sub>-receptors and less sedation
C) Decreased selectivity for peripheral H<sub>1</sub>-receptors and more sedation
D) Increased selectivity for peripheral H<sub>1</sub>-receptors and less sedation
Q3) What type of antibody is produced the first time a person is sensitized by tree pollen?
A) IgA
B) IgB
C) IgE
D) IgF
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Respiratory Pharmacology, treatment of
Asthma, and Copd
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Q1) A patient complains of hoarseness and changes in his voice.Using your knowledge of steroids and leukotriene inhibitors,you advise the patient that the best way to avoid these adverse effects is to:
A) Switch to an intravenously administered steroid or leukotriene inhibitor.
B) Rinse his mouth with water after inhaling the medication to reduce the amount of steroid that remains in his mouth and throat.
C) Suck on a throat lozenge immediately after inhaling the medication.
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Compare the expectorant and the mucolytic agent,and select the product that is available over the counter without a prescription for the relief of an unproductive cough.
A) Mucinex
B) Mucosil
C) Potassium citrate
D) Ammonium chloride
Q3) Identify the factors that can trigger an asthmatic attack.
A) Allergens, air pollutants, humidity, infections, and exercise
B) Air pollutants, hot air, certain drugs, infections, and exercise
C) Allergens, air pollutants, cold air, infections, and exercise
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Chapter 33: Therapy of Gastrointestinal Disorders: Peptic Ulcers,
gerd, and Vom
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Q1) A patient with liver problems should avoid which H2 receptor antagonist medications?
A) Ranitidine and famotidine
B) Ranitidine and cimetidine
C) Nizatidine and cimetidine
D) Nizatidine and ranitidine
Q2) Receptors found on parietal cells that increase secretion of HCl when activated
A) Cholinergic
B) Prostaglandin
C) Histamine
D) Adrenergic
Q3) What are two types of receptor antagonists that are used as antiemetics?
A) Serotonin 5-HT3 and NK-1
B) Serotonin 5-HT2 and NK-1
C) Serotonin 5-HT3 and NK-2
D) Serotonin 5-HT2 and NK-2
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Chapter 34: Agents That Affect Intestinal Motility
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Q1) Outline the steps in the formation of feces.
A) Contractions of the small intestine move digested food and chyme toward the colon. The large intestine removes water and minerals from the residual waste product and compresses the waste into feces for excretion through the rectum.
B) Contractions of the large intestine move digested food and chyme toward the rectum. The rectum removes water and minerals from the residual waste product and compresses the waste into feces for excretion through the anus.
C) Contractions of the stomach move digested food and chyme toward the small intestine. The small intestine removes water and minerals from the residual waste product and compresses the waste into feces for excretion through the rectum.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Using onset of action as the basis,select the group of laxatives listed in the order of increasing onset-of-action times.
A) Bowel evacuants, emollients, stool softeners
B) Emollients, bowel evacuants, swelling agents
C) Osmotic laxatives, emollients, bowel evacuants
D) Stimulants, stool softeners, emollients
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Chapter 35: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Q1) Bone growth during childhood can be stimulated through the direct actions of
A) Oxytocin
B) Somatostatin
C) Insulin-like growth factor 1
D) Insulin-like growth factor 2
Q2) Pituitary secretion is decreased by _____ produced by the _____.
A) Inhibiting hormones; hypothalamus
B) Inhibiting hormones; posterior pituitary
C) Stimulating hormones; posterior pituitary
D) Secondary messengers; anterior pituitary
Q3) The release of _____ is stimulated by the action of thyrotropic releasing hormone from the ______.
A) Adrenocorticotropic hormone; pineal gland
B) Growth hormone; posterior pituitary
C) Insulin-like growth factor; anterior pituitary
D) Thyroid stimulating hormone; hypothalamus
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Chapter 36: Adrenal Steroids
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Q1) Compare the mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids,and select the true statement about these hormones.
A) The glucocorticoids are hormones secreted by the inner layer of the adrenal gland.
B) Deficiency of mineralocorticoids leads to Cushing's disease.
C) The main effect of the mineralocorticoid hormones is to regulate the metabolism of carbohydrates and proteins.
D) The main effect of the mineralocorticoid hormones is to regulate the fluid balance of the body.
Q2) Select the reason why alternate-day therapy is used in cases where prolonged use of steroids is necessary.
A) Alternate-day therapy is intended to reduce or eliminate the adverse effects of prolonged steroid treatment.
B) Alternate-day therapy is intended to facilitate treatment for patients with hectic or busy lifestyles.
C) Alternate-day therapy is intended to reduce or eliminate the stress on the liver that must metabolize the glucocorticoids.
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 37: Gonadal Hormones, oral Contraceptives, and Erectile Dysfunction Dru
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Q1) The potential for adverse events from HRT depends on which two factors?
A) Dose and increased prothrombin levels
B) Increased prothrombin levels and length of treatment
C) Dose and length of treatment
D) Hypertension and hypercholesterolemia
Q2) Which of the following would not be a risk associated with taking HRT?
A) Heart attack
B) Osteoporosis
C) Stroke
D) Breast cancer
Q3) A triphasic oral contraceptive contains:
A) Two different-strength estrogen pills and a progestin pill
B) Three different strengths (dose ratio) of estrogen to progestin in a pill
C) Two different strengths (dose ratio) of estrogen to progestin in a pill
D) Three different strengths (dose ratio) of progestin to estrogen in a pill
Q4) Which cycle consists of a follicular,ovulation,and luteal phase?
A) Menstrual cycle
B) Endometrial cycle
C) Ovarian cycle
D) Reproductive cycle
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Chapter 38: Drugs Affecting the Thyroid and Parathyroid
Glands and Bone Degener
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Q1) Select the statement that best explains the mechanism of action of alendronate (Fosamax),pamidronate (Aredia),risedronate (Actonel),and zoledronate (Reclast).
A) The nonnitrogen bisphosphonates are attracted to bone calcium and have greater resorption inhibition potency. These drugs [alendronate (Fosamax), pamidronate (Aredia), risedronate (Actonel), and zoledronate (Reclast)] compete with osteoclast ATP, causing the cells to die; thus, bone resorption decreases.
B) The nonnitrogen bisphosphonates [alendronate (Fosamax), pamidronate (Aredia), risedronate (Actonel), and zoledronate (Reclast)] compete with osteoclast ATP, causing the cells to die; thus, bone resorption decreases.
C) The nitrogen bisphosphonates are more readily attracted to bone calcium and have greater resorption inhibition potency. These drugs [alendronate (Fosamax), pamidronate (Aredia), risedronate (Actonel), and zoledronate (Reclast)] prevent protein synthesis in the osteoclast cell membrane by interrupting the HMG-CoA reductase pathway.
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 39: Pancreatic Hormones and Antidiabetic Drugs
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Q1) Which antidiabetic agents are considered hypoglycemics?
A) Insulins and alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
B) Biguanides and secretagogues
C) Insulin sensitizers and peptidase inhibitors
D) Insulins and secretagogues
Q2) What will be the effect on urine output for patients with diabetes mellitus?
A) Urine output will increase due to a lack of antidiuretic hormone being produced.
B) Urine output will decrease due to osmotic pressure of excess glucose in blood.
C) Urine output will increase due to excess glucose being filtered into the renal tubule.
D) Urine output will decrease due to increased production of antidiuretic hormone.
Q3) Insulin will cause a majority of the blood glucose to be taken up in:
A) The liver
B) Smooth muscle
C) Skeletal muscle
D) Cardiac muscle
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Chapter 40: Posterior Pituitary Hormones: Antidiuretic Hormone
and Oxytocin
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Q1) Select the statement that best describes the effects associated with excessive oxytocin administration.
A) Increased incidence of nausea, vomiting, and constriction of blood vessels, which can produce varying degrees of hypertension.
B) The pressor effect may be intense and may restrict blood flow to the fingers and toes, which can result in tissue anoxia and the development of gangrene.
C) Prevention of postpartum hemorrhage and prevention of muscle atony.
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Use the pharmacological action of the oxytocics and tocolytics to select the drug of choice for the treatment of postpartum bleeding.
A) Dinoprost
B) Methylergonovine
C) Carboprost
D) Protaglandins
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Chapter 41: Antibacterial Agents
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Q1) An antibiotic will have no effect on an infection if:
A) The antibiotic is broad-spectrum.
B) The bacteria is not resistant to the antibiotic.
C) The bacteria does not lie within the drug's antibacterial spectrum.
D) Beta-lactamase activity is not present.
Q2) Which antibiotics can be used for bowel sterilization prior to surgery?
A) Penicillins and macrolides
B) Aminoglycosides and sulfonamides
C) Cephalosporins and fluoroquinolones
D) Tetracyclines and aztreonam
Q3) What are the two dyes used in gram staining?
A) Crystal violet and safranin
B) Crystal violet and methylene blue
C) Methylene blue and safranin
D) Iodine & methylene blue
Q4) Which one of the following reactions requires emergency medical attention?
A) Disulfiram reaction
B) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
C) Fanconi syndrome
D) Pruritis and photosensitivity
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Antifungal and Antiviral Drugs
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Q1) Differentiate between primary and secondary microorganism resistance,and select the true statement related to this issue of resistance.
A) Primary resistance occurs when the organism does not respond to the drug because it doesn't recognize the drug or it has a protective mechanism to destroy the drug on contact. Secondary resistance occurs when the organism initially responds to the drug but then stops responding or requires greater doses to kill the organism.
B) Primary resistance occurs when the organism initially responds to the drug but then stops responding or requires greater doses to kill the organism. Secondary resistance occurs when the organism does not respond to the drug because it doesn't recognize the drug or it has a protective mechanism to destroy the drug on contact.
C) Using multiple drugs in combination at the same time speeds the development of resistance to a single drug primarily because of their antagonistic effect on each other.
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 43: Parasitic Infections: Antiprotozoal and Anthelmintic Drugs
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Q1) Since many parasitic worms are ingested and remain in the intestines,many anthelmintic drugs can successfully exert their effect because many are poorly absorbed.Piperazine will induce its action by:
A) Initiating a depolarizing neuromuscular blockade in the worm
B) Irreversibly inhibiting acetylcholinesterases in the worm
C) Causing rigid paralysis in the worm
D) Causing flaccid paralysis in the worm
Q2) An example of a sexually transmitted protozoan would be:
A) Malaria
B) Trichomoniasis
C) Dysentery
D) Toxoplasmosis
Q3) After returning from a trip to the tropics,Mr.Smith begins to experience flu-like symptoms.The chills and high fever he is experiencing are probably due to:
A) Bacteria colonizing the large intestines
B) Protozoa rapidly multiplying and causing red blood cells to rupture
C) A virus spreading in the central nervous system
D) A ringworm infection
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Chapter 44: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Q1) Use the mechanism of action of chlorhexidine to select the true statement.
A) Chlorhexidine is bactericidal in low concentrations (0.5 percent) and bacteriostatic at higher concentrations (2 to 4 percent).
B) Chlorhexadine is incorporated into the bacterial cell wall, which disrupts the membrane and reduces its permeability.
C) Chlorhexadine binds to the bacterial RNA, alters its transcription, and causes lethal RNA damage to the bacterial cell.
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Differentiate between the bactericidal and bacteriostatic properties of the antiseptics,and select the true statement.
A) Bacteriostatic antiseptics can eradicate bacteria only at high concentrations.
B) Bacteriostatic antiseptics inhibit the growth and reproduction process of the bacteria but do not kill the bacteria.
C) All bactericidal antiseptics have broad-spectrum activity.
D) All bacteriostatic antiseptics have narrow-spectrum activity.
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Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Agents
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Q1) What common approach is used to treat cancer?
A) Surgery
B) Radiation
C) Chemotherapy
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Mrs.Smith's treatment for cancer is showing promise.The results of her first treatment showed a 50% reduction of tumor cells.Why would only one more treatment not be enough to eradicate the cancer from her body?
A) The treatment eradicates cancer cells by percentage, not number.
B) The treatment eradicates cancer cells by number, not percentage.
C) Additional treatments will serve as a precautionary measure.
D) The treatment is complete, and additional treatment will not be necessary.
Q3) Tumor growth inhibition by the vinca alkaloids occurs by:
A) Inhibition of transcription
B) Inhibition of protein translation
C) Metaphase arrest
D) Anaphase arrest
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Chapter 46: Immunopharmacology
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Q1) Describe the common adverse effects of the use of the interferons.
A) Common adverse effects of the use of the interferons are nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and muscle aches and pains.
B) Common adverse effects of the use of the interferons are flu-like symptoms: chills, fever, and muscle aches and pains.
C) Common adverse effects of the use of the interferons are nausea, vomiting, hair loss, and bone marrow depression.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Identify the main function of the macrophages.
A) Macrophages regulate the activity of the immune system.
B) Macrophages are cells that release chemicals that help us fight infection from infectious organisms and foreign substances.
C) Macrophages are scavenger cells that engulf and digest infectious organisms and foreign substances.
D) All of these are correct.
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