Pharmacology for Allied Dental Professionals
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course introduces allied dental professionals to the fundamental principles of pharmacology with a specific focus on medications relevant to dental care. Students will explore drug classifications, mechanisms of action, indications, contraindications, and potential side effects of commonly prescribed and over-the-counter medications encountered in dental practice. Emphasis is placed on the relationship between pharmacologic agents and oral health, the prevention and management of medical emergencies in the dental setting, and the safe administration and documentation of dental-related drugs, including local anesthetics, antibiotics, analgesics, and sedatives. The course also highlights the importance of understanding drug interactions and their implications for the dental patient.
Recommended Textbook
Applied Pharmacology for the Dental Hygienist 8th Edition by Elena Bablenis Haveles
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Information Sources, Regulatory Agencies, Drug
Legislation, and Prescription Writing
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Q1) How many years must pass after a drug patent expires before other drug companies can market the same compound as a generic drug?
A)20 years
B)17 years
C)7 years
D)0 years
Answer: D
Q2) Two drug formulations that produce similar concentrations in the blood and tissues after drug administration are termed _____ equivalent.
A)chemically
B)biologically
C)therapeutically
Answer: B
Q3) Which type of drug name usually begins with a lowercase letter?
A)Brand name
B)Code name
C)Generic name
D)Trade name
Answer: C
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Drug Action and Handling
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Q1) Which term refers to the time required for a drug to begin to have its effect?
A)First pass
B)Duration
C)Onset
D)Efficacy
Answer: C
Q2) When the acidity of the tissue increases,as in instances of infection,the effect of a local anesthetic decreases;therefore,the local anesthetic is a weak acid.
A)Both parts of the statement are true.
B)Both parts of the statement are false.
C)The first part of the statement is true;the second part is false.
D)The first part of the statement is false;the second part is true.
Answer: C
Q3) If a drug displays zero-order elimination kinetics
A)elimination increases as the dose of the drug is increased.
B)a constant amount is eliminated per unit time.
C)the drug is not eliminated and is retained in the body.
D)the elimination of the drug cannot be predicted mathematically.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Adverse Reactions
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Q1) A genetically related abnormal drug response is called a(n)
A)toxic reaction.
B)idiosyncratic reaction.
C)side effect.
D)drug allergy.
Answer: B
Q2) Which is least likely to be a true allergic reaction?
A)Urticaria
B)Rash
C)Anaphylaxis
D)Dyspepsia
Answer: D
Q3) Immune-complex disease reactions are aggregations of antibodies and A)T lymphocyte cells.
B)B lymphocyte cells.
C)antigens.
D)plasma cells.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Autonomic Drugs
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Q1) Anticholinergic agents prevent the action of acetylcholine at the _____ endings.
A)preganglionic sympathetic
B)postganglionic parasympathetic
C)Preganglionic sympathetic
D)Postganglionic parasympathetic
Q2) In the autonomic nervous system (ANS),the target organ is innervated by the _____ neuron.
A)preganglionic afferent
B)preganglionic efferent
C)postganglionic afferent
D)postganglionic efferent
Q3) Salivation,lacrimation,urination,and defecation refer to toxic effects seen with adrenergic agents.
A)True
B)False
Q4) a-Adrenergic agonists cause
A)vasoconstriction.
B)vasodilation.
C)tachycardia.
D)miosis.
6
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Chapter 5: Nonopioid Non-Narcoticanalgesics
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Q1) An acute overdose with acetaminophen may damage the A)eyes.
B)liver.
C)spleen.
D)kidney.
Q2) Acetaminophen does not possess any of these clinically significant _____ effects: (1)antipyretic, (2)antiinflammatory, (3)analgesic.
A)1,2,3
B)1 and 2
C)1 and 3
D)1
E)2
Q3) Which of the following statements is true concerning the pharmacokinetics of aspirin?
A)Plain,unbuffered aspirin produces its peak effect on an empty stomach in 15 minutes.
B)Buffered aspirin has a slower peak of aspirin than plain aspirin.
C)The half-life of unhydrolyzed aspirin is approximately 90 minutes.
D)Aspirin exhibits zero-order kinetics.
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Chapter 6: Opioid Narcoticanalgesics and Antagonists
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Q1) Which opioid analgesic is a Schedule II controlled substance?
A)Pentazocine (in Talwin HX)
B)Hydrocodone (in Vicodin,Lortab,Lorcet)
C)Codeine (in Tylenol #3,Empirin #3)
D)Dihydrocodeine (in Synalgos-DC)
Q2) How does adding naloxone to pentazocine reduce the addiction potential of orally administered pentazocine?
A)Naloxone is an opioid agonist that is effective orally but not parenterally.
B)Naloxone is an opioid agonist that is effective parenterally but not orally.
C)Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is effective orally but not parenterally.
D)Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is effective parenterally but not orally.
E)Naloxone is a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory.
Q3) Morphine is stronger than oxycodone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Codeine activates the chemoreceptor trigger zone.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Antiinfective Agents
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Q1) _____ can cause black pigmentation of mandibular and maxillary alveolar bone and the hard palate.
A)Penicillin V
B)Erythromycin
C)Minocycline
D)Clindamycin
Q2) Administration of metronidazole for dental infections during pregnancy is A)contraindicated.
B)permitted only during the second trimester.
C)permitted during the last half of pregnancy.
D)permitted without restriction.
Q3) _____ are the first orally active agents against certain Pseudomonas species.
A)Aminoglycosides
B)Sulfonamides
C)Quinolones
D)Tetracyclines
Q4) Antiinfectives are not needed in oral cavity infections if drainage of the infected area can be established.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Antifungal and Antiviral Agents
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Q1) A person with hepatitis _____ is most likely to develop chronic hepatitis.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q2) The most frequent adverse reaction(s)associated with ketoconazole is (are)
A)diarrhea.
B)nausea and vomiting.
C)xerostomia.
D)premature ventricular contractions.
Q3) Each of the following is a consequence of the interaction of interferon with cells except one.Which is the exception?
A)Alteration of the state of cellular differentiation
B)Stimulation of oncogene expression
C)Induction of gene transcription
D)Inhibition of cellular growth
Q4) No acyclovir products are approved for the treatment of recurrent herpes labialis in the immunocompetent patient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Local Anesthetics
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Q1) Addition of vasoconstrictor to local anesthetic (1)reduces blood supply to the area, (2)increases blood supply to the area, (3)limits systemic absorption, (4)increases systemic absorption, (5)reduces systemic toxicity,and (6)increases systemic toxicity.Which of these are correct?
A)1,3,5
B)1,4,5
C)2,3,5
D)2,3,6
E)2,4,6
Q2) A cardiac patient can be given _____ cartridges of a dental anesthetic with epinephrine 1:100,000 without exceeding the cardiac dose for the vasoconstrictor.
A)0.5
B)2
C)4
D)6
Q3) The recommended concentration of epinephrine to combine with a local anesthetic is 1:200,000 for most procedures.
A)True
B)False
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Page 11
Chapter 10: General Anesthetics
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Q1) Recovery from a single intravenous dose of methohexital (Brevital)is accelerated as a result of _______ to lean tissues.
A)drug excretion
B)drug redistribution
C)drug metabolism
D)enzyme induction
Q2) Nitrous oxide has amnestic qualities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The best indicator of the degree of sedation under nitrous oxide is
A)response to a painful stimulus.
B)percent nitrous oxide being delivered.
C)response to questions.
D)muscle tone.
E)eye movements.
Q4) To prevent diffusion hypoxia,patients should be given 100% oxygen for 5 minutes after treatment with nitrous oxide.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Antianxiety Agents
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Q1) Barbiturates act on nerves by enhancing the binding of which neurotransmitter to its receptor?
A)Glutamate
B)Serotonin
C)GABA
D)Chloride
Q2) Which of the following muscle relaxants has peripheral rather than central action?
A)Carisoprodol
B)Cyclobenzaprine
C)Tizanidine
D)Baclofen
E)Dantrolene
Q3) A sedative-hypnotic agent can produce varying degrees of central nervous system (CNS)depression.The same drug may be either a sedative or a hypnotic.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)The first statement is true,the second is false.
D)The first statement is false,the second is true.
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Chapter 12: Drugs for the Treatment of Cardiovascular Disease
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Q1) PCSK9 inhibitors are
A)3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A reductase inhibitors.
B)antibodies.
C)niacin.
D)inhibitors of intestinal absorption of cholesterol.
E)fibric acid derivatives.
Q2) Which diuretic acts at the ascending loop of Henle of the kidney nephron to cause rapid diuresis?
A)Hydrochlorothiazide
B)Triamterine
C)Furosemide
D)Spironolactone
Q3) When a physician finds out that his female patient wishes to start a family,he decides to change her cholesterol-lowering medication.He changes her medication from
A)niacin to simvastatin.
B)simvastatin to atorvastatin.
C)simvastatin to niacin.
D)gemfibrozil to losartan.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Drugs for the Treatment of Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following is the main problem causing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
A)Excess stomach acid
B)A diet that is too high in saturated fat
C)Lack of adequate function of the cardiac sphincter
D)Being overweight
Q2) Which of the following is a serious possible consequence of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
A)Crohn disease
B)Barrett esophagus
C)Ulcerative colitis
D)Gastrointestinal stasis
Q3) Sucralfate can be thought of as a "bandage" for ulcers because it inhibits the action of pepsin and absorbs the bile salts.
A)Both parts of the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B)Both parts of the statement and the reason are correct,but not related.
C)Both parts of the statement are correct,but the reason is not.
D)Both parts of the statement are not correct,but the reason is correct.
E)Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Drugs for the Treatment of Seizure Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following drugs is often used first for treating patients with generalized tonic-clonic seizures even though it is not Food and Drug Administration (FDA)approved for this use?
A)Lamotrigine
B)Valproate
C)Levetiracetam
D)Oxcarbazepine
Q2) The drug of choice for treatment of absence seizures is A)brivaracetam.
B)eslicarbazepine.
C)vigabatrin.
D)ethosuximide.
Q3) Which of the following seizures are categorized as generalized seizures?
A)Absence seizures
B)Simple (Jacksonian)seizures
C)Tonic-clonic seizures
D)Both A and C
E)Both B and C
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Chapter 15: Drugs for the Treatment of Central Nervous
System Disorders
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Q1) The chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)is a site of action for prochlorperazine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following agents is classified as an antipsychotic?
A)Celexa
B)Cephalexin
C)Vraylar
D)Lexapro
E)Bextra
Q3) Patients taking first-generation antipsychotics can experience severe intermittent temporomandibular joint (TMJ)pain.This pain is a consequence of
A)hyperalgesia produced by a-adrenergic blockade.
B)anticholinergic side effects.
C)dislocation of the mandible.
D)extrapyramidal side effects.
Q4) First-generation antipsychotics are primarily _____ antagonists.
A)acetylcholine
B)norepinephrine
C)dopamine
D)serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine)
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Chapter 16: Adrenocorticosteroids
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Q1) Each of the following will be reduced by glucocorticoid excess except one.Which is the exception?
A)Secretion of growth hormone
B)Bone formation
C)Linear growth
D)Insulin resistance
E)Visceral obesity
Q2) The adverse effects of glucocorticoids are primarily an extension of their therapeutic actions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following conditions may be exacerbated by corticosteroid use? (Select all that apply. )
A)Hypertension
B)Hypotension
C)Congestive heart failure
D)Glaucoma
E)Osteoporosis
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Chapter 17: Drugs for the Treatment of Respiratory
Disorders and Allergic Rhinitis
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Q1) Which of the following symptoms is the most common side effect associated with the older antihistamines? (Please note: all are associated,but one is most common)
A)Nausea
B)Xerostomia
C)Sedation
D)Constipation
Q2) Which of the following drugs is the most effective long-term treatment for control of symptoms in all patients with mild,moderate,or severe persistent asthma?
A)LT modifiers
B)Cromolyn
C)Long-acting -agonists
D)Theophylline
E)Corticosteroids
Q3) Orally inhaled corticosteroids produce an immediate benefit in an acute asthma attack.
A)True
B)False
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Drugs for the Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus
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Q1) Which of the following oral antidiabetic agents is a bile-acid sequestrant used to lower low-density lipoprotein (LDL)cholesterol?
A)Pramlintide
B)Colesevelam
C)DPP-4s
D)Glucagon
Q2) Patients with uncontrolled or undiagnosed diabetes are more prone to periodontal disease.Patients with well-controlled diabetes are no more prone to periodontal disease than the general public.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)The first statement is true,the second is false.
D)The first statement is false,the second is true.
Q3) Insulin is a pancreatic hormone that promotes insulin storage.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Diabetes is the major cause of blindness in adults.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Drugs for the Treatment of Other Endocrine Disorders
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Q1) Cretins exhibit all of the following dental abnormalities except which one?
A)Malocclusion
B)Large teeth
C)Delayed tooth eruption
D)Increased tendency to develop periodontal disease
Q2) Leuprolide is used to treat A)hyperthyroidism.
B)diabetes.
C)fertility problems.
D)hypothyroidism.
Q3) Synthetic analogs of vasopressin are used to: (1)treat pituitary diabetes insipidus, (2)treat hemophilia A and von Willebrand disease, (3)induce labor and postpartum lactation, (4)control postpartum hemorrhage.
A)1,2,3,4
B)1,2,3
C)2,3,4
D)1,2
E)3,4
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Chapter 20: Antineoplastic Drugs
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Q1) Which antineoplastic drug is a potent cardiotoxin?
A)Methotrexate
B)Vincristine
C)Tamoxifen
D)Mechlorethamine
E)Doxorubicin
Q2) Which of the following is a treatment option to alleviate symptoms of mucositis?
A)Injection of corticosteroids
B)Oral rinse of 2% viscous lidocaine
C)A 1-week course of oral antibiotics
D)Use of a chlorhexidine rinse
Q3) Dental procedures should be performed for a patient taking bisphosphonates
A)during bisphosphonate-free holidays.
B)before starting bisphosphonate therapy or within 3 months of beginning therapy.
C)only when the course bisphosphonate therapy has been completed.
D)at any time deemed necessary.
Q4) Antineoplastic agents stimulate the immune system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Emergency Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following is considered to be a Level 1: Critical Drug rather than a Level 2: Secondary Drug?
A)Atropine
B)Glucagon
C)Epinephrine
D)Diazepam
Q2) Most dental offices are well equipped to treat cardiac arrhythmias.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For an asthma attack that is unresponsive to topical -agonist administration,what treatment recourse does the dental office have available?
A)Parenteral or oral aminophylline
B)Parenteral corticosteroids
C)Parenteral epinephrine
D)Inhaled oxygen
Q4) The drug of choice for anaphylactic shock is sublingual or intramuscular injection of epinephrine.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Pregnancy and Breast Feeding
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of the use of nystatin in either a pregnant woman or a nursing infant?
A)Nystatin may be used by either a pregnant woman or a nursing infant.
B)Nystatin may be used by a pregnant woman,but not by a nursing infant.
C)Nystatin may be used by a nursing infant,but not by a pregnant woman.
D)Nystatin is not to be used by either a pregnant woman or a nursing infant.
Q2) Which is the best choice of analgesic for a pregnant patient?
A)Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin,ASA)
B)Ibuprofen (Motrin)
C)Naproxen (Naprosyn)
D)Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
Q3) All of the following measures should be taken when prescribing drugs to a pregnant woman EXCEPT one.Which is the EXCEPTION?
A)No unnecessary drugs should be administered.
B)An adequate health history should be taken at each appointment.
C)Schedule morning appointments during the first trimester.
D)Closely coordinate with the patient's obstetrician.
Q4) All NSAIDs carry a warning to avoid use during pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Substance Use Disorders
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Q1) Nitrous oxide abuse
A)can lead to physical dependence.
B)is primarily seen in food service employees.
C)can cause infertility.
D)can cause myelocytosis.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of alcohol use disorder?
A)A genetic link for alcohol use disorder exists.
B)Inpatient detoxification is required for most alcoholics.
C)Penicillin is known to produce a disulfiram-like reaction.
D)A patient will vomit if he or she takes naltrexone while consuming alcohol.
Q3) Tolerance is characterized by the need to _____ the dose continually to achieve a desired effect or providing the same dose that produces a(n)_____ effect.
A)increase;increasing B)increase;diminishing
C)decrease;increasing D)decrease;diminishing
Q4) Abuse is the use of a drug for a disease state in a way considered inappropriate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Naturalherbal Products and Dietary Supplements
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Q1) Herbal products in the United States are regulated by which governmental agency?
A)Federal Trade Commission
B)Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
C)Environmental Protection Agency
D)Dietary Supplement and Education Act (DSHEA)
E)US Pharmacopeia
Q2) An increased risk of bleeding can occur when __________ is taken in conjunction with antiplatelet drugs or anticoagulants.
A)Ma huang
B)Garlic
C)Ginkgo biloba
D)Feverfew
E)St.John's wart
F)All of the above
G)B,C,and D
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Chapter 25: Oral Conditions and Their Treatment
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Q1) Long-term exposure of the lip to _____ can cause irreversible tissue changes known as actinic cheilitis.
A)lipstick or lip gloss
B)the sun
C)alcohol
D)cold wind
Q2) Approximately _____% of the adult population has been exposed to herpes simplex virus (HSV).
A)10
B)20 to 30
C)50 to 60
D)80 to 90
Q3) Pilocarpine is a(n)_____ agent that produces an increase in saliva.
A)adrenergic
B)antiadrenergic
C)cholinergic
D)anticholinergic
Q4) The ulcerated area of ANUG begins at the marginal gingiva.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Hygiene-Related Oral Disorders
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Q1) Professionally applied fluoride topical agents last for approximately
A)5 to 8 weeks.
B)12 weeks or 3 months.
C)26 weeks or 6 months.
D)52 weeks or 1 year.
Q2) Patients considered as having a low risk for caries benefit from professionally applied fluoride products.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following choices is the most common cause of intrinsic acid production?
A)Medication
B)Gastric reflux
C)Wine
D)Ciders
Q4) Dental disorders result in 7 million days of lost work each year.
A)True
B)False
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