Pharmacology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Pharmacology is the study of drugs and their effects on living organisms. This course explores the fundamental principles of drug action, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Students will examine the mechanisms by which drugs produce their therapeutic and adverse effects, with a focus on major classes of pharmacological agents commonly used in clinical practice. Emphasis is placed on understanding drug-receptor interactions, dose-response relationships, and the factors influencing variability in drug responses among individuals. By integrating basic scientific concepts with clinical applications, the course prepares students to make informed decisions about pharmacotherapy in various healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Immunology for Pharmacy 1st Edition by Dennis Flaherty PhD
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26 Chapters
300 Verified Questions
300 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1356 Page 2
Chapter 1: Cells and Organs of the Immune System
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In positive selection, thymocytes undergo apoptosis when:
I-They do not interact with MHC molecules
II-They bind to MHC molecules with high affinity
III-They bind to MHC molecules with low affinity
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Answer: C
Q2) Aged red blood cells are destroyed by macrophages in the:
A) Tonsils
B) Lymph nodes
C) Peyer's patches
D) Splenic red pulp
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are antimicrobial cryptocidins produced?
A) Skin
B) Liver
C) GI tract
D) Neutrophils
Answer: C
Q2) Cathelicidins perform which of the following functions?
I. Chemotaxis
II. Neutralization of endotoxins
III. Broad spectrum antimicrobial activity
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Immunogenicity and Antigenicity
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Sample Questions
Q1) How would you treat a mother with type A Rh-negative blood who is pregnant with a type O Rh-positive baby?
A) A dose of RhoGAM at 28 weeks and following delivery
B) A high dose of RhoGAM and then a low dose of RhoGAM
C) A dose of RhoGAM only if there is a trauma or premature termination of pregnancy
D) RhoGAM is not necessary in this situation because there is no compatibility issue
Answer: A
Q2) RhoGAM administered to an Rh-negative mother would help the patient by:
I- Preventing production of anti-Rh antibodies
II- Preventing fetal hemolysis in future pregnancies
III- Preventing transfusion reactions due to ABO mismatch
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Antigen Presenting Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) HLA class II molecule consists of:
A) Three glycosylated a-chains
B) Heavily glycosylated a- and b-chain
C) Two glycosylated a-chains and three b-chains
D) A single glycosylated a-chain bound to b2-microglobulin
Q2) Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) class I molecules bind antigens:
A) At the ends and the antigens are larger than HLA class II antigens
B) At the ends and the antigens are smaller than HLA class II antigens
C) In the middle and the antigens are larger than HLA class II antigens
D) In the middle and the antigens are smaller than HLA class II antigens
Q3) HLA class III genes produce:
A) Stress molecules
B) Complement components
C) Antigen presenting molecules
D) Receptors that activate natural killer (NK) cells
Q4) Why are HLA heterozygotes more resistant to disease than homozygotes?
A) They have more single nucleotide polymorphisms.
B) They have a more diverse range of minor HLA loci.
C) They have more diversity in the antibodies they produce.
D) They have a more varied repertoire of antigen-presenting HLA molecules.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Antigen Presenting Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primed dendritic cells are a potential treatment for:
I- HIV
II- Psoriasis
III- Cancer
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Q2) Kupffer cells are a type of macrophage located in the:
A) Liver
B) Bone
C) Brain
D) Connective tissue
Q3) Dendritic cells are important parts of the immune response because they are:
A) Able to produce antibody
B) Circulating in the blood waiting for antigen
C) Able to kill tumor cells and virally-infected cells
D) Located in areas that are likely sites of pathogen entry
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Surface Interactions Between T Cells and Antigen-Presenting
Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) CD4 molecules on T cells bind to:
A) CD40
B) B7 molecules
C) MHC class I molecules
D) MHC class II molecules
Q2) How are superantigens able to uniquely activate large amounts of T cells?
A) Superantigens secrete many toxins that are able to activate many different T cells.
B) Superantigens are able to travel to the lymph node to interact directly with more T cells.
C) Superantigens bind to the TCR and MHC class II molecule outside the binding groove.
D) Superantigens bind to the TCR in the binding groove like other antigens but they have more epitopes than other antigens.
Q3) T cells with the g/d TCR are primarily located in the:
A) Bone marrow
B) Lymph nodes
C) Mucosal tissue
D) Peripheral blood
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Intracellular Signaling and T Cell Activation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major defect in X-linked severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is:
A) Inability to produce IL-2
B) Lack of ZAP-70 protein kinase
C) Inability to produce B or T cells
D) Lack of g-chain in interleukin receptors
Q2) The downstream signaling target of CD28/B7 activation is:
A) NF-kB
B) PIP2/IP3
C) Rac/JNK
D) PLCg1/DAG/PKC
Q3) The activation of the TCR through interaction with either MHC class I or class II molecules leads to signaling pathways that activate protein synthesis of:
A) IL-1
B) IL-2
C) TNF
D) ZAP-70
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Chapter 8: B Cell Activation and Signaling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are components of the BCR co-receptor complex?
I. CR2
II. CD19
III. CD22
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Q2) Belimumab is a monoclonal antibody directed against:
A) BLyS
B) CD22
C) Bruton's kinase
D) BLyS and APRIL
Q3) Most long-lived plasma cells reside in the:
A) Spleen
B) Thymus
C) Lymph node
D) Bone marrow
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fab fragments can be used clinically to treat:
A) Job syndrome
B) Digoxin overdose
C) Multiple myeloma
D) Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Q2) A patient has bone pain, high calcium levels, high immunoglobulin levels, and Bence Jones proteins in their urine. The most likely diagnosis for this patient is:
A) Job syndrome
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia
D) Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Q3) The monomeric form of this antibody inserted into the B cell membrane serves as the B cell receptor (BCR):
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) IgM
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11
Chapter 10: Antibody Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of the recognition signal sequences (RSSs) in rearrangement of genes?
A) The RSSs are the coding regions of the DNA.
B) The RSSs are the enzymes that facilitate recombination.
C) The RSSs are spacers that align genes on the same side of DNA.
D) The RSSs are the areas that determine the antigen-binding pocket.
Q2) Somatic mutation theory of antibody diversity states that:
A) A limited number of genes undergo mutations
B) Separate genes exist for each antibody molecule
C) A limited number of genes undergo genetic rearrangements
D) The many genes inherited from both parents undergo a few mutations
Q3) The addition of N-nucleotides has which effect on antibody structure?
A) Determines if the light chain is a l-chain or k-chain
B) Allows for removal of amino acids in the open hairpins
C) Adds the C4 region to the heavy chain of some antibodies
D) Changes the amino acid sequence in the hypervariable CDR3
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Chapter 11: Complement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria lack which complement regulatory components on the host cell surfaces?
A) Factor H and Factor I
B) Decay accelerating factor (DAF) and CD59
C) Membrane cofactor protein (MCP) and C1INH
D) Homologous restriction factor (HRF) and properdin
Q2) The role that C3bBb3b plays in the complement pathway is to:
A) Cleave C2 to C2a and C2b
B) Cleave C3 to C3a and C3b
C) Cleave C4 to C4a and C4b
D) Cleave C5 to C5a and C5b
Q3) Which of the complement pathways requires antibodies for activation?
I. Lectin pathway
II. Alternative pathway
III. Classical pathway
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
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Chapter 12: Phagocytosis and Intracellular Killing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of complement receptor binding to complement fragments during phagocytosis?
A) Reduces production of ATP
B) Causes production of catalase
C) Triggers production of superoxide
D) Facilitates internalization of pathogen
Q2) Patients with this disease are at greater risk for fungal infections than patients with other phagocytosis-related deficiencies:
A) Gaucher's disease
B) Myeloperoxidase deficiency
C) Chronic granulomatous disease
D) Complement receptor deficiency
Q3) Which is a key component in oxygen-independent phagocytic killing?
A) Lysozyme
B) Myeloperoxidase
C) Hypochlorous acid
D) Superoxide dismutase
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14
Chapter 13: Antibodies and in Vivo Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anti-Rh antibodies are used to treat:
A) Serum sickness
B) Kawasaki disease
C) Erythroblastosis fetalis
D) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Q2) Radiolabeled antibodies to CD20, including tositumomab labeled with iodine-131, are frequently used to treat which disorder?
A) Multiple myeloma
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
D) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Q3) Bispecific antibodies can react with:
A) Two different antigens
B) Two of the same antigen
C) Antigen and T cell or NK cell
D) Four different antigens on the same cell
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15
Chapter 14: Antibodies and in Vitro Research and Diagnostic Assays
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a direct immunochromatographic assay, in order for the test to be positive, a color change reaction must be evident at:
I- Test zone
II- Control zone
III- Reaction zone
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Q2) In flow cytometry, side scatter is a measure of:
A) Cell size
B) Protein content
C) Granularity of a cell
D) Expression of CD markers
Q3) Which test is used to confirm a diagnosis of HIV-positive after initial testing?
A) Flow cytometry
B) Western blotting
C) Immunochromatographic assay
D) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
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Chapter 15: Immediate Allergic Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between anaphylactic and anaphylactoid reactions?
A) Anaphylaxis causes more serious symptoms.
B) Anaphylactoid reactions do not involve mast cells or basophils.
C) Anaphylactoid reactions cannot be prevented and anaphylactic reactions are preventable.
D) Anaphylaxis is caused by IgE and anaphylactoid reactions are caused by complement.
Q2) What role does histamine play in allergic reactions?
A) Increases vascular permeability
B) Stimulates eosinophil production
C) Stimulates granule release from mast cells
D) Prevents activation of the coagulation cascade
Q3) Hyposensitization therapy results in the production of:
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) IgM
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Chapter 16: Autoimmunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a symptom of Graves' disease?
A) Bulging eyes
B) Double vision
C) Blurred vision
D) Drooping eyelids
Q2) In Goodpasture syndrome, antigens that are normally sequestered are exposed, and antibodies are produced that react with those antigens. What is a potential factor that could lead to exposure of these normally hidden self-antigens?
I. Toxins
II. Infection
III. Smoking
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
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Chapter 17: Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) RD was involved in a car accident and had burns on his right forearm. Doctors removed skin from his leg and grafted it onto his arm. What type of transplant is this?
A) Isograft
B) Allograft
C) Autograft
D) Xenograft
Q2) Without genetic modification, what is the main cause of rejection in xenotransplants?
A) Transfer of infection
B) Organs are the wrong size
C) The minor HLA antigens do not match
D) Pre-existing antibodies to alpha-galactosyl
Q3) The main immune response in a case of acute rejection of a transplanted organ is:
A) B cell activation
B) Both B and T cell activation
C) Allospecific T cell activation
D) Attack of organ by pre-existing antibodies
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Chapter 18: Antigen Presentation for Cell-Mediated Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) MHC class I molecules present antigen to:
A) NK cells
B) CD8 T cells
C) CD4 Th1 cells
D) CD4 Th2 cells
Q2) Which of the following is an example of an immune response following cross-priming?
I. An NK cell killing a tumor cell.
II. A CD8 cell killing a tumor cell.
III. A macrophage ingesting a tumor cell.
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Q3) Which of the following is most likely to generate a CD8 T cell response?
A) Tapeworm infection
B) Influenza virus infection
C) Fungal infection causing athlete's foot
D) Group A Streptococcus infection (Strep throat)
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Chapter 19: Delayed Type Hypersensitivity Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What role does lipoarabinomannan play in the immune response triggered by tuberculosis (TB) infection?
A) Stimulates production of IL-10
B) Stimulates production of TNF-a
C) Stimulates production of interferon-g
D) Stimulates production of reactive oxygen species (ROS)
Q2) Why is a positive PPD skin test not sufficient to determine if a patient has active TB?
A) The skin test does not test for all strains.
B) There are many false positive test results.
C) Only the latent form gives a positive skin test.
D) The positive skin test only indicates previous exposure.
Q3) Patients with celiac sprue need to avoid what agent?
A) Latex
B) Nickel
C) Gluten
D) Sumac
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21
Chapter 20: Cytotoxic T Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients have a high risk of losing all of their teeth due which disease?
A) Melanoma
B) Papillion-Lefèvre syndrome
C) Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome type 2
D) Familial erythrophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis type 2
Q2) Cytotoxic (CD8+) T cells (CTLs) are activated by:
A) Antigen presented on MHC class I molecules
B) Antigen presented on MHC class II molecules
C) Antigen presented on MHC class I or II molecules
D) CTLs do not require activation to kill
Q3) Which of the following is a method that tumors use to evade the immune response?
A) Producing IL-2 analogs
B) Reducing TAP function
C) Upregulating MHC class I molecules
D) Engaging Fas receptors on T cells to cause T cell death
Q4) Which of the following is a method that viruses use to evade the immune system?
A) Mutation of hemagglutinin
B) Upregulation of TAP molecules
C) Prevention of MHC class II expression
D) Increased production of transforming growth factor-b (TGF-b)
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Natural Killer Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the main surface molecule on NK cells that is involved in antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)?
A) CD3
B) CD16
C) CD56
D) CD94
Q2) Which of the following cell types may play a role in allergic reactions, particularly in relation to asthma?
A) NK CD56dim cells
B) NK CD56bright cells
C) NKT type I cells
D) NKT type II cells
Q3) NK cells have cell surface receptors that contain immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motifs (ITIMs), which bind ligand and recruit which type of molecule to transmit the inhibitory signal?
A) cAMP
B) Kinase
C) ATPase
D) Phosphatase
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Factors That Influence the Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does the "hole in the T cell repertoire" model explain why some individuals may fail to respond to an antigen?
A) MHC class II molecules differ in their ability to bind and process antigen.
B) The TCR is lacking appropriate accessory molecules to fully transduce signals.
C) Some individuals lack a lymphocyte with a TCR that recognizes a specific antigen.
D) Antigen is inappropriately presented on MHC class I molecules rather than class II molecules.
Q2) Which of the following is the outcome of T cell interaction with immature dendritic cells that do not express costimulatory molecules?
A) Anergic T cell response
B) Only CD8 T cells respond
C) Only CD4 T cells respond
D) Uncontrolled T cell response
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Chapter 23: Cytokines and Biological Modifiers
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Q1) What is the mechanism of action of the sipuleucel-T prostate cancer vaccine?
A) Dendritic cells are incubated with a fusion protein containing prostate specific antigen (PSA) and GM-CSF.
B) A plasmid that codes for an antibody that expresses prostate specific antigen (PSA), and dendritic cells present PSA to T cells.
C) A single B cell clone that is tumor specific is grown in the lab and infused into the patient to produce large amounts of tumor specific antibody.
D) Patient tumor cells are exposed to a viral vector containing a gene for prostate specific antigen (PSA), and then the tumor cells are infused into the patient to stimulate an immune response.
Q2) Oprelvekin increases levels of:
A) Platelets
B) Neutrophils
C) Macrophages
D) Red blood cells
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Chapter 24: Vaccines in Theory and Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do adenovirus vaccine vectors have limited utility?
A) Adenoviruses are small and cannot incorporate large numbers of genes from other viruses.
B) Most humans have preexisting antibodies that neutralize the vector before it can reach target tissue.
C) The immune response is weaker because the vector displays antigens from both the adenovirus and the pathogenic virus, diluting the immune response.
D) If the adenovirus incorporates large numbers of genes from pathogenic viruses, it may lose the ability to infect host tissue and elicit an immune response.
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of live, attenuated vaccination over other types of vaccination?
A) Inexpensive to make
B) One dose produces immunity
C) Always stimulate mucosal and systemic immunity
D) Pose no health risks to immunosuppressed individuals
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Chapter 25: Vaccine-Preventable Diseases
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Q1) What role does hemagglutinin have in the influenza viral lifecycle?
A) Virulence factor that facilitates viral assembly in the host cell
B) Virulence factor responsible for viral binding to mammalian cells
C) Virulence factor that facilitates release of viral progeny from host cells
D) Virulence factor responsible for increasing replication of viral nucleic acids
Q2) Why is the oral polio vaccine no longer used in the United States?
A) A more effective form was developed.
B) The oral form did not stimulate mucosal immunity.
C) Contaminated vaccines were removed from the market.
D) Risk of transmission of or infection with reverted virulent polio virus.
Q3) Corynebacterium diphtheriae colonizes:
A) Heart and liver
B) Muscle and liver
C) Tonsils and pharynx
D) Kidneys and adrenal glands
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Chapter 26: Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
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Q1) During the initial infection with HIV, the virus is concentrated in the:
A) Thymus
B) Bone marrow
C) Lymph nodes
D) Site of exposure
Q2) While the exact mechanism of CD4 T cell destruction in HIV infection is not completely known, what is the cause of the ultimate depletion of CD4 T cells?
A) Stem cell depletion
B) Virus damaged cells are phagocytosed
C) Drugs used to treat HIV deplete CD4 T cells
D) CD8 T cells and NK cells kill all infected cells
Q3) After the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) binds to CD4 on a T cell, what other molecule does it need to bind for entry into the host cell?
A) H-1
B) H-2
C) CCR5
D) CXCR4
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