Pharmacology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Pharmacology is the scientific study of drugs, including their origins, composition, pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, therapeutic uses, and adverse effects. This course provides an in-depth understanding of how drugs interact with biological systems to affect function, focusing on mechanisms of drug action at the molecular and cellular levels. Students will explore the principles of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination, as well as examine the clinical applications of pharmacologic agents in treating diseases. Emphasis is placed on the safe and effective use of medications, drug interactions, and the rationale behind drug therapy choices in various medical conditions.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology 4th Edition by George M. Brenner
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
45 Chapters
150 Verified Questions
150 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/937 Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pharmacology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
2 Verified Questions
2 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18450
Sample Questions
Q1) Which endeavor is most important for determining the dose-response relationship of a drug?
A) isolation of a pure drug compound
B) measurement of the plasma concentration of a drug over time
C) clinical trials to determine drug efficacy
D) study of the structure-activity relationship of a drug
E) development of a sustained-release formulation of a drug
Answer: A
Q2) A patient is administered a drug in the form of a tablet formulated with an osmotic substance that slowly attracts water. Which characteristic is associated with this preparation?
A) used to treat constipation
B) enables almost 100% bioavailability
C) poses more risks than intramuscular administration
D) causes a localized effect on the colon
E) provides sustained drug absorption over many hours
Answer: E
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18451
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with renal disease exhibits zero-order elimination of a drug she is taking. Which description of the drug's elimination half-life is correct?
A) directly proportional to the drug's clearance
B) inversely proportional to the drug's volume of distribution
C) directly proportional to the plasma drug concentration
D) inversely proportional to the dose administered
E) varies with the route of drug administration
Answer: C
Q2) Which description best characterizes drug metabolism involving conjugation of a drug with glucuronate?
A) reduces the rate of biliary drug excretion
B) increases the rate of renal drug excretion
C) typically increases the pharmacologic activity of the drug
D) primarily occurs in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E) often induced or inhibited by other drugs
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
4
Chapter 3: Pharmacodynamics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
2 Verified Questions
2 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18452
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient exhibits a rapid loss of responsiveness to a drug during the first several hours of drug administration. Which event is most likely responsible for this effect?
A) up-regulation of drug metabolizing enzymes
B) down-regulation of drug metabolizing enzymes
C) internalization of cell membrane receptors
D) formation of receptor antibodies
E) phosphorylation of G protein-coupled receptors
Answer: E
Q2) In what way is the log-concentration effect (dose response) curve of an agonist drug modified in the presence of a competitive receptor antagonist?
A) shifted to the right without a change in slope or maximum effect
B) shifted to the left without a change in slope or maximum effect
C) shifted to the right with a decreased slope and maximum effect
D) shifted to the left with a decreased slope and maximum effect
E) not shifted right or left but shows a decreased maximum effect
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 4: Drug Development and Safety
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18453
Sample Questions
Q1) If a generic version of a drug is approved for marketing on the basis of a study comparing the oral bioavailability of the generic and brand name product, which term is associated with the review of this product by the Food and Drug Administration?
A) Harris-Kefauver amendment
B) accelerated drug approval
C) orphan drug amendment
D) abbreviated new drug application
E) investigational new drug
Q2) The Food and Drug Administration removed a drug product from the market because it contained a toxic contaminant. Which term is used to describe this type of product in the Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act?
A) misbranded
B) mislabeled
C) adulterated
D) off-label
E) teratogenic
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: Introduction to Autonomic and Neuromuscular Pharmacology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
2 Verified Questions
2 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18454
Sample Questions
Q1) A child experiences abdominal spasms after a black widow spider bite. Which activity is affected by the toxin contained in its venom?
A) choline reuptake
B) choline acetylation
C) exocytosis
D) cholinesterase
E) receptor activation
Q2) Which neurotransmitter causes vasodilation when released by the enteric nervous system?
A) norepinephrine
B) nitric oxide
C) endothelin
D) neuropeptide Y
E) substance P
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 6: Acetylcholine Receptor Agonists
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18455
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with open-angle glaucoma receives a drug that activates muscarinic receptors in the eye. Which action is responsible for the therapeutic effect of this drug?
A) contraction of ciliary muscle
B) relaxation of ciliary muscle
C) contraction of iris sphincter muscle
D) relaxation of iris sphincter muscle
E) stimulation of lacrimal gland secretion
Q2) Which adverse effect may result from administration of bethanechol?
A) dry mouth
B) urinary retention
C) pupil dilation
D) tachycardia
E) diarrhea
Q3) Which mechanism is responsible for the therapeutic effect of sildenafil?
A) inhibition of acetylcholine degradation
B) activation of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
C) inhibition of cyclic GMP degradation
D) stimulation of nitric oxide synthesis
E) stimulation of potassium efflux
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Acetylcholine Receptor Antagonists
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18456
Sample Questions
Q1) Succinylcholine is avoided in persons with skeletal muscle injuries because of the drug's tendency to cause which effect?
A) hyperkalemia
B) hypocalcemia
C) hypernatremia
D) metabolic acidosis
E) prolonged apnea
Q2) Cisatracurium is preferred in patients with renal or hepatic impairment because of which property?
A) a short duration of action
B) undergoes spontaneous chemical degradation
C) metabolized by plasma cholinesterase
D) rapidly inactivated by sugammadex
E) effects easily reversed by edrophonium
Q3) For which purpose is glycopyrrolate administered during surgery?
A) reversing the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents
B) increasing blood pressure
C) decreasing respiratory secretions
D) causing bronchodilation
E) potentiating general anesthetics
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Adrenoceptor Agonists
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18457
Sample Questions
Q1) Phenylephrine is contained in many nasal decongestant products. Which action contributes to its therapeutic effect?
A) activation of adenylyl cyclase
B) inhibition of phosphodiesterase
C) activation of phospholipase C
D) activation of nitric oxide synthase
E) inhibition of adenosine deaminase
Q2) A patient in the intensive care unit is given dexmedetomidine. Which therapeutic outcome may result from this medication?
A) vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure
B) analgesia and sedation
C) increased cardiac output
D) muscle relaxation
E) bronchodilation
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Adrenoceptor Antagonists
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
2 Verified Questions
2 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18458
Sample Questions
Q1) Which pharmacologic effect is produced by topical ocular administration of timolol?
A) miosis
B) mydriasis
C) contraction of the ciliary muscles
D) decreased aqueous humor secretion
E) conjunctival vasoconstriction
Q2) A man is placed on doxazosin for hypertension. Which adverse effect is most likely to result from taking this drug?
A) postural hypotension
B) rebound hypertension
C) hypokalemia
D) urinary retention
E) bradycardia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
11
Chapter 10: Antihypertensive Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18459
Sample Questions
Q1) Which antihypertensive drug is most likely to reduce vascular injury by inhibiting activation of growth factors that cause smooth muscle proliferation and hypertrophy?
A) clonidine
B) terazosin
C) atenolol
D) candesartan
E) nifedipine
Q2) After several months of antihypertensive drug therapy, a patient develops a lupus erythematosus-like syndrome.
Which agent is most likely responsible for this adverse effect?
A) minoxidil
B) hydrochlorothiazide
C) captopril
D) verapamil
E) hydralazine
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12
Chapter 11: Antianginal Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18460
Sample Questions
Q1) Which signaling mechanism participates in the vasodilative effect of nitroglycerin?
A) activation of nitric oxide synthase
B) inhibition of phosphodiesterase
C) inhibition of intracellular calcium release
D) activation of guanylate cyclase
E) activation of adenylate cyclase
Q2) A patient is given a drug that decreases anginal episodes without reducing heart rate or blood pressure. Which mechanism is responsible for the beneficial effects of this drug?
A) increased utilization of glucose by the heart
B) improved cardiac diastolic function
C) inhibition of fatty acid oxidation in the heart
D) increased sodium influx into myocytes
E) increased calcium influx into myocytes
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
13
Chapter 12: Drugs for Heart Failure
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18461
Sample Questions
Q1) The beneficial effects of carvedilol in persons with heart failure are obtained with the use of which drug administration regimen?
A) intravenous infusion for 3 to 7 days
B) low doses that are gradually increased over time
C) loading doses followed by maintenance doses
D) high doses that are gradually tapered over time
E) titration to obtain the desired increase in cardiac output
Q2) A patient with decompensated heart failure is given an intravenous infusion of a peptide drug. Which effect is produced by this treatment?
A) decreased synthesis of angiotensin II
B) blockade of angiotensin II receptors
C) increased levels of cyclic AMP
D) increased levels of cyclic GMP
E) increased influx of calcium
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 13: Diuretics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18462
Sample Questions
Q1) A man with renal stones is found to have hypercalciuria. The drug most likely used to treat this condition blocks which step in nephron function?
A) conversion of bicarbonate to carbon dioxide
B) sodium chloride reabsorption from the distal tubule
C) expression of sodium channel protein in the collecting duct
D) sodium chloride reabsorption from the loop of Henle
E) sodium-potassium exchange in the collecting duct
Q2) Which diuretic acts to increase the renal excretion of weakly acidic drugs?
A) spironolactone
B) amiloride
C) acetazolamide
D) furosemide
E) mannitol
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Antiarrhythmic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18463
Sample Questions
Q1) Esmolol can be rapidly titrated to obtain the desired effect in persons with atrial tachycardia because of which drug property?
A) spontaneous decomposition
B) eliminated by the lungs
C) rapid renal excretion
D) inactivated by plasma esterase
E) sequestered by reticuloendothelial cells
Q2) Which drug slows atrioventricular conduction and increases atrioventricular refractory period and is used to control ventricular rate in persons with atrial fibrillation?
A) sotalol
B) ibutilide
C) diltiazem
D) disopyramide
E) adenosine
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
16
Chapter 15: Drugs for Hyperlipidemia
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18464
Sample Questions
Q1) At what level of serum LDL-cholesterol do persons with symptomatic coronary artery disease benefit from drug therapy to lower these levels?
A) >175 mg/dL
B) >150 mg/dL
C) >100 mg/dL
D) >70 mg/dL
E) They benefit regardless of level.
Q2) Dietary modifications that lower the ratio of LDL-cholesterol to HDL-cholesterol include an increased intake of which nutrient?
A) trans isomers of fatty acids
B) saturated fat
C) polyunsaturated fat
D) omega-3 (n-3) fatty acids
E) partially hydrogenated plant oils
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18465
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient receives a cyclic peptide derived from rattlesnake venom. Which step leading to platelet aggregation is inhibited by this agent?
A) glycoprotein IIb/IIIa expression
B) ADP binding
C) fibrinogen binding
D) cyclic AMP formation
E) 5-hydroxytryptamine synthesis
Q2) Which coagulation factor is inactivated following administration of lepirudin?
A) tissue thromboplastin
B) fibrinogen
C) prothrombin
D) active factor X
E) thrombin
Q3) Which anticoagulant consists of a synthetic antithrombin III-binding pentasaccharide?
A) fondaparinux
B) bivalirudin
C) warfarin
D) heparin
E) enoxaparin
18
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 17: Hematopoietic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
1 Verified Questions
1 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18466
Sample Questions
Q1) Using larger doses of recombinant erythropoietin (e.g., epoetin)
To achieve hemoglobin levels >12 g/dL is associated with an increased risk of which type of disease?
A) cardiovascular disease
B) renal disease
C) hepatic disease
D) hematologic disease
E) pulmonary disease
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 18: Introduction to Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18467
Sample Questions
Q1) Which term is used to describe the effect of a drug that reduces the activity of an inhibitory neuronal system?
A) co-antagonist
B) disinhibition
C) up-regulation
D) delirium
E) metabotropic
Q2) Which attribute is most correctly associated with substances known as neuromodulators?
A) produced in the brain but exert effects on other organs
B) affect the activity of only one or a few neurons
C) inhibit the synthesis or degradation of neurotransmitters
D) influence the activity of a large number of neurons
E) modulate the activity of non-neuronal cells in the central nervous system
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 19: Sedative-Hypnotic and Anxiolytic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18468
Sample Questions
Q1) Which attribute is correctly associated with ramelteon?
A) produces considerable daytime sedation
B) may cause rebound insomnia when discontinued
C) has a high abuse potential
D) binds melatonin receptors
E) is a Schedule IV controlled substance
Q2) Which property is related to the ability of zolpidem to selectively bind GABAA receptors that are composed of -subunits?
A) lack of active metabolites
B) low degree of daytime sedation
C) low potential for drug dependence
D) greater effect on REM sleep
E) greater effect on slow wave sleep
Q3) For which reason is lorazepam is one of the safer benzodiazepines for elderly patients?
A) It is excreted unchanged in the urine.
B) It does not cause anterograde amnesia.
C) It is not associated with drug dependence.
D) It is metabolized by glucuronide formation.
E) It has special utility in treating panic disorder.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: Antiepileptic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18469
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman with epilepsy is instructed to take larger doses of vitamin D than are usually recommended. Which drug is most likely being taken by this patient?
A) valproate
B) phenytoin
C) phenobarbital
D) gabapentin
E) topiramate
Q2) After sustaining head trauma, a woman experiences recurrent tonic-clonic seizures without regaining consciousness.
Which pair of drugs is most often used to control this type of seizure?
A) valproate and carbamazepine
B) zonisamide and gabapentin
C) topiramate and vigabatrin
D) diazepam and phenytoin
E) pregabalin and tiagabine
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
22
Chapter 21: Local and General Anesthetics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18470
Sample Questions
Q1) Which attribute best describes sevoflurane?
A) causes little cardiovascular and respiratory depression
B) more irritating to the respiratory tract than other drugs
C) slower rate of induction than other inhalational agents
D) more potent than other halogenated inhalational anesthetics
E) increases systemic vascular resistance more than other drugs
Q2) Which advantage is associated with etomidate compared to other parenteral anesthetics?
A) produces muscle relaxation
B) causes a high degree of analgesia
C) less likely to cause hypotension
D) has a longer duration of action
E) causes dissociative anesthesia
Q3) The use of prilocaine is limited to topical and infiltration anesthesia because the drug's metabolite may cause which adverse effect?
A) cardiac arrhythmias
B) hepatitis
C) renal impairment
D) myopathy
E) methemoglobinemia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: Psychotherapeutic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18471
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman is evaluated to determine the cause of infertility and is found to have elevated serum prolactin levels. Which drug is most likely responsible for this adverse effect?
A) fluoxetine
B) lithium
C) haloperidol
D) aripiprazole
E) bupropion
Q2) Which adverse effect is most often associated with lithium carbonate therapy?
A) tachycardia
B) hyperventilation
C) sexual dysfunction
D) increased urinary output
E) hypervolemic hyponatremia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 24
Chapter 23: Opioid Analgesics and Antagonists
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18472
Sample Questions
Q1) The analgesic effect of tramadol is partly attributed to which action?
A) inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
B) activation of descending inhibitory pathways
C) activation of 2-adrenoceptors in the spinal cord
D) depletion of substance P from afferent neurons
E) partial agonist activity at kappa opioid receptors
Q2) Chronic administration of meperidine should be avoided for which reason?
A) greater risk of drug dependence than with other opioids
B) auto-induction of drug metabolism enzymes
C) development of pharmacodynamic drug tolerance
D) increased suicidal ideations
E) accumulation of a toxic metabolite
Q3) Which adverse effect may result from administration of buprenorphine to a man who is illicitly taking oxycodone?
A) hypertensive crisis
B) cardiac arrest
C) opioid withdrawal reaction
D) malignant hyperthermia
E) apnea due to depression of respiratory centers
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 25
Chapter 24: Drugs for Neurodegenerative Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18473
Sample Questions
Q1) Which agent is useful in persons with multiple sclerosis because it serves as a decoy for myelin-damaging T cells?
A) mitoxantrone
B) natalizumab
C) interferon beta-1b
D) glatiramer
E) prednisone
Q2) Memantine is believed to benefit persons with Alzheimer's disease because of its ability to exert which action?
A) inhibit neurotransmitter degradation
B) increase neurotransmitter degradation
C) block neurotransmitter receptors
D) activate neurotransmitter receptors
E) block neurotransmitter reuptake
Q3) Which action is responsible for the therapeutic effects of entacapone?
A) inhibition of monoamine oxidase-type B
B) stimulation of levodopa decarboxylation
C) decreased formation of 3-O-methyldopa
D) increased uptake of dopamine into the brain
E) increased release of dopamine from neurons
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 26
Chapter 25: Drugs of Abuse
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18474
Sample Questions
Q1) Which mechanism is responsible for the efficacy of fomepizole in treating ethylene glycol poisoning?
A) inactivation
B) inhibition of toxic metabolite formation
C) enhanced excretion
D) accelerated degradation to inactive compounds
E) competitive antagonism of ethylene glycol
Q2) The reinforcement of drug use is partly determined by the peak rate of release of which neurotransmitter in the nucleus accumbens?
A) serotonin
B) norepinephrine
C) dopamine
D) glutamate
E) acetylcholine
Q3) Which statement most accurately describes prescription drug abuse?
A) a growing problem associated with significant morbidity and mortality
B) incidence has decreased over the past two decades
C) rarely leads to emergency department visits or accidental overdose
D) the leading cause of accidental death in the United States
E) primarily due to overprescribing by physicians and nurse practitioners
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 27
Chapter 26: Autacoid Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18475
Sample Questions
Q1) Azelastine relieves nasal itching and discharge in persons with allergic rhinitis by antagonism of which receptors?
A) histamine H1
B) histamine H2
C) serotonin 5-HT1
D) serotonin 5-HT2
E) serotonin 5-HT3
Q2) A woman complains of sedation after taking a second-generation antihistamine in the morning. Which drug is most likely responsible for this side effect?
A) fexofenadine
B) desloratadine
C) loratadine
D) cetirizine
E) astemizole
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 27: Drugs for Respiratory Tract Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18476
Sample Questions
Q1) By which mechanism does tiotropium improve respiratory function in patients with emphysema?
A) increasing levels of cyclic AMP in smooth muscle
B) inhibiting vagally mediated bronchoconstriction
C) improving diaphragmatic function and ventilation
D) stimulation of brainstem respiratory centers
E) improving mucociliary clearance
Q2) Dextromethorphan is the most widely used antitussive drug because of which attribute?
A) does not bind to opioid receptors
B) full agonist at opioid receptors
C) partial agonist at opioid receptors
D) antagonist at opioid receptors
E) little effect on the central nervous system
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 28: Drugs for Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18477
Sample Questions
Q1) By which mechanism does lubiprostone relieve some cases of severe idiopathic constipation?
A) blockade of serotonin 5-HT3 receptors
B) activation of serotonin 5-HT4 receptors
C) inhibition of fluid reabsorption in the colon
D) stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system
E) activation of chloride channels
Q2) Blockade of which receptors is responsible for the antiemetic effect of aprepitant?
A) histamine H1
B) serotonin 5-HT<sub>3</sub>
C) muscarinic acetylcholine M1
D) dopamine D2
E) neurokinin NK1
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 29: Drugs for Headache Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18478
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with frequent migraine headaches desires a drug treatment that has a rapid onset of action but does not require parenteral administration. Which drug best meets these criteria?
A) naratriptan
B) ergotamine
C) dihydroergotamine
D) rizatriptan
E) zolmitriptan
Q2) Which agent might be used for termination of migraine headache in a woman with coronary artery disease?
A) sumatriptan
B) tramadol
C) valproate
D) dihydroergotamine
E) propranolol
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
31
Chapter 30: Drugs for Pain, Inflammation, and Arthritic Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18479
Sample Questions
Q1) Administration of allopurinol produces which effect on serum and urinary levels of uric acid in a patient with gout?
A) increased serum and urinary levels
B) increased serum and decreased urinary levels
C) decreased serum levels and no change in urinary levels
D) decreased serum and urinary levels
E) decreased serum and increased urinary levels
Q2) Leflunomide prevents leukocyte proliferation by inhibiting which step in this process?
A) formation of active folate
B) pyrimidine biosynthesis
C) purine biosynthesis
D) ribonucleotide reductase
E) DNA polymerase
Q3) Abatacept exerts its antirheumatic effects by binding to which molecular target?
A) interleukin-1 type I receptor
B) tumor necrosis factor-
C) cell surface proteins of T lymphocytes
D) immunoglobulin G rheumatoid factor
E) interleukin-2 transcription factors
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 32
Chapter 31: Hypothalamic and Pituitary Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
2 Verified Questions
2 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18480
Sample Questions
Q1) Desmopressin is often preferred for treating diabetes insipidus for which reason?
A) convenient once daily oral administration
B) relieves nocturnal enuresis in most patients
C) causes more vasoconstriction than vasopressin
D) It is a potent inhibitor of adenylyl cyclase.
E) selectively activates vasopressin V1 receptors
Q2) Which agent is most likely to cause an up-regulation of gonadotropin-releasing hormone receptors during long-term administration of the drug?
A) abarelix
B) gonadorelin
C) leuprolide
D) chorionic gonadotropin
E) nafarelin
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
33
Chapter 32: Thyroid Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
2 Verified Questions
2 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18481
Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug causes the most rapid decline in circulating thyroid hormones in persons with thyrotoxicosis?
A) methimazole
B) propylthiouracil
C) propranolol
D) potassium iodide
E) radioactive iodine (131I)
Q2) Which agent is preferred for controlling symptoms of hyperthyroidism prior to administration of radioactive iodine (¹³¹I)?
A) methimazole
B) propylthiouracil
C) propranolol
D) potassium iodide
E) lithium carbonate
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
34
Chapter 33: Adrenal Steroids and Related Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18482
Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug action prevents precocious sexual development in boys being treated for congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
A) suppression of corticotropin secretion
B) activation of adrenal steroid receptors
C) stimulation of adrenal 11- -hydroxylase
D) stimulation of adrenal 21-hydroxylase
E) inhibition androgen pathway enzymes
Q2) A patient is treated with a drug that increases expression of genes encoding sodium channels and the sodium-potassium ATPase. Which effect will result from this action?
A) increased free water clearance
B) increased sodium excretion
C) increased potassium excretion
D) increased calcium excretion
E) increased aldosterone secretion
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
35
Chapter 34: Drugs Affecting Fertility and Reproduction
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18483
Sample Questions
Q1) An increased incidence of which adverse effect is associated with transdermal administration of ethinyl estradiol and norelgestromin?
A) venous thromboembolism
B) ectopic pregnancy
C) hypoglycemia
D) irregular menses
E) hirsutism
Q2) The use of low-dose estrogen and progestin oral contraceptives has been associated with a reduced incidence of which cancers?
A) ovarian and breast
B) breast and uterine
C) ovarian and uterine
D) breast, ovarian, and uterine
E) cervical and breast
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 35: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18484
Sample Questions
Q1) After skipping a meal, a diabetic woman experiences a hypoglycemic reaction. Which drug is most likely responsible for this effect?
A) metformin
B) sitagliptin
C) pioglitazone
D) acarbose
E) glipizide
Q2) In patients with diabetic ketoacidosis, insulin administration will correct which imbalances?
A) hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia
B) hyperglycemia and hypokalemia
C) hyperglycemia and acidosis
D) acidosis and hyperkalemia
E) hypokalemia and alkalosis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 36: Drugs Affecting Calcium and Bone
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18485
Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who are taking both calcium and alendronate to prevent osteoporosis should be advised to take these drugs in which way?
A) separately on alternate days
B) separately at least 2 hours apart
C) separately with different meals
D) together at the same time each day
E) together at bedtime
Q2) Strontium may have role in preventing osteoporosis because of its ability to produce which effect?
A) increased calcium absorption
B) decreased calcium excretion
C) increased formation of osteoblasts
D) increased parathyroid hormone secretion
E) decreased parathyroid hormone secretion
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 37: Principles of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
2 Verified Questions
2 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18486
Sample Questions
Q1) Which class of antibiotics is most often used for prophylaxis of surgical infections?
A) penicillins
B) aminoglycosides
C) tetracyclines
D) cephalosporins
E) fluoroquinolones
Q2) Oseltamivir is used for prophylaxis of which infection during an outbreak of the disease?
A) influenza
B) tuberculosis
C) malaria
D) meningococcal meningitis
E) whooping cough
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 39
Chapter 38: Inhibitors of Bacterial Cell Wall Synthesis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18487
Sample Questions
Q1) For which reason is clavulanate included in some formulations of -lactam drugs?
A) blocks formation of cell wall precursors
B) prevents cross-linking of cell wall peptides
C) inhibits renal tubular secretion of -lactam drugs
D) inhibits bacterial degradation of -lactam drugs
E) inhibits renal degradation of -lactam drugs
Q2) A woman is dispensed a single dose of a drug for a urinary tract infection. Which step in bacterial cell wall synthesis is inhibited by this drug?
A) transpeptidase
B) addition of phosphoenolpyruvate
C) formation of N-acetylglucosamine
D) incorporation of D-alanine residues
E) formation of pentaglycine bridge
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 39: Inhibitors of Bacterial Protein Synthesis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18488
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman develops an allergic reaction after being treated for a superficial ocular infection. Which agent is most likely responsible for this adverse effect?
A) polymyxin
B) azithromycin
C) neomycin
D) bacitracin
E) chloramphenicol
Q2) Persons receiving intravenous clindamycin should be monitored for the occurrence of which adverse effect?
A) torsades de pointes
B) hearing impairment
C) liver toxicity
D) thrombocytopenia
E) pseudomembranous colitis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 40: Quinolones, Antifolate Drugs, and Other
Antimicrobial Agents
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
2 Verified Questions
2 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18489
Sample Questions
Q1) Ciprofloxacin should be taken 2 hours before or after taking nutritional supplements containing which ingredient?
A) folic acid
B) vitamin C
C) potassium
D) iron
E) vitamin D
Q2) Which antimicrobial agent prevents the formation of supercoils in circular bacterial DNA?
A) daptomycin
B) nitrofurantoin
C) polymyxin
D) trimethoprim
E) moxifloxacin
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 42
Chapter 41: Antimycobacterial Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
2 Verified Questions
2 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18490
Sample Questions
Q1) The efficacy of clofazimine is partly due to its ability to alter the activity of which type of cells?
A) erythrocytes
B) platelets
C) leukocytes
D) epithelial cells
E) fibroblasts
Q2) Rifabutin is usually combined with which other drugs in the treatment of Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare infections?
A) isoniazid and ethambutol
B) ethambutol and clarithromycin
C) clarithromycin and dapsone
D) clofazimine and pyrazinamide
E) thalidomide and clofazimine
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
43
Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18491
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is placed on a drug that inhibits synthesis of -(1,3)-D-glucan. Which infection is most likely being treated?
A) cryptococcal meningitis
B) tinea capitis
C) sporotrichosis
D) Candida krusei infection
E) Histoplasma capsulatum infection
Q2) A patient receiving drug therapy for invasive candidiasis experiences abnormally colored vision and photophobia. Which other adverse reaction is associated with this drug?
A) hepatitis
B) electrolyte abnormalities
C) peripheral neuropathy
D) renal toxicity
E) QT prolongation
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 43: Antiviral Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18492
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman is placed on a drug that binds HIV reverse transcriptase and is being monitored for drug-induced neuropsychiatric reactions. This drug should not be taken by persons with which condition?
A) cardiac arrhythmia
B) hypercholesterolemia
C) pancreatitis
D) pregnancy
E) diabetic neuropathy
Q2) A man receives a drug that binds cations essential for the catalytic activity of an enzyme required for HIV replication. Which step is blocked by this drug?
A) viral maturation and release
B) interaction of the viral enzyme and host cell DNA
C) insertion of glycoprotein 41 into host cell membranes
D) formation of a DNA copy of viral RNA
E) binding of glycoprotein 120 to CD4 antigen
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 44: Antiparasitic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18493
Sample Questions
Q1) Which antiprotozoal agent inhibits enzymes involved in glycolipid metabolism in sensitive organisms?
A) nitazoxanide
B) paromomycin
C) miltefosine
D) tinidazole
E) mefloquine
Q2) Which drug may cause an acute disulfiram-like reaction if taken concurrently with alcohol?
A) metronidazole
B) primaquine
C) ivermectin
D) albendazole
E) pentamidine
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 45: Antineoplastic and Immunomodulating Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18494
Sample Questions
Q1) Increased expression of the P-glycoprotein is most likely to cause cancer cell resistance to which drug?
A) cisplatin
B) cyclophosphamide
C) cytarabine
D) vincristine
E) methotrexate
Q2) Which drug increases expression of pro-apoptosis factors and reduces expression of cyclins in chronic myeloid leukemia cells?
A) gemtuzumab ozogamicin
B) imatinib
C) prednisone
D) alemtuzumab
E) fludarabine
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.