Pharmacology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Pharmacology is the scientific study of drugs and their effects on living organisms. This course explores the principles of drug action, absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Students will learn about the mechanisms by which drugs exert their therapeutic effects, as well as potential adverse reactions, drug interactions, and the factors influencing individual responses to medications. Emphasis is placed on the clinical application of pharmacological principles, safe medication practices, and the role of pharmacology in disease prevention and management. Through a combination of theoretical knowledge and case studies, students gain a comprehensive understanding of the critical role pharmacology plays in healthcare.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice 2nd Canadian Edition by Linda Lane Lilley
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59 Chapters
683 Verified Questions
683 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1825 Page 2
Chapter 1: Nursing Practice in Canada and Drug Therapy
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36263
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is to receive oral furosemide (Lasix)every day;however,because the patient is unable to swallow,he cannot take medication orally,as ordered.The nurse needs to contact the physician.What type of problem is this?
A)A "right time" problem
B)A "right dose" problem
C)A "right route" problem
D)A "right medication" problem
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse is writing nursing diagnoses for a plan of care.Which of the following statements reflects the correct format for a nursing diagnosis?
A)Anxiety
B)Anxiety related to new drug therapy
C)Anxiety related to anxious feelings about drug therapy, as evidenced by statements such as "I'm upset about having to give myself shots"
D)Anxiety related to new drug therapy,as evidenced by statements such as "I'm upset about having to give myself shots"
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Pharmacological Principles
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving medication via intravenous injection.Which of the following statements should the nurse provide for patient education?
A)The medication will cause fewer adverse effects when given intravenously.
B)The medication will be absorbed slowly into the tissues over time.
C)The medication's action will begin faster when given intravenously.
D)Most of the drug is inactivated by the liver before it reaches the target area.
Answer: C
Q2) The term "duration of action" refers to which of the following descriptions?
A)The time it takes for the drug to elicit a therapeutic response
B)The time it takes a drug to reach its maximum therapeutic response
C)The length of time it takes to remove a drug from circulation
D)The time during which drug concentration is sufficient to elicit a therapeutic response
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Considerations for Special Populations
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient will often experience a reduction in the stomach's ability to produce hydrochloric acid.This change will result in which of the following?
A)Delayed gastric emptying
B)Increased gastric acidity
C)Decreased intestinal absorption of medications
D)Altered absorption of weakly acidic drugs,such as aspirin
Answer: D
Q2) Which type of dosage calculation is used most commonly when calculating drug dosages for young patients?
A)Fried's rule
B)Clark's rule
C)Young's rule
D)The mg/kg formula
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Ethnocultural, legal, and Ethical Considerations
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which cultural group must the nurse respect the value placed on natural health products,use of heat,and a concern for the balance of opposing forces that lead to illness or health?
A)Hispanic Canadians
B)Asian Canadians
C)Aboriginal peoples
D)Blacks
Q2) Which of the following best describes drug polymorphism?
A)Cultural and genetic effects on drug metabolism and excretion
B)Gender and cultural effects on drug absorption and distribution
C)Age or body composition effects on drug absorption or metabolism
D)Multi-drug use resulting in impaired excretion
Q3) Which of the following factors contributes to drug polymorphism?
A)The number of drugs ordered by the physician
B)The patient's drug history
C)The patient's diet and nutritional status
D)Different dosage forms of the same drug
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Chapter 5: Medication Errors
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse is giving a scheduled morning medication,the patient states,"I haven't seen that pill before.Are you sure it's correct?" The nurse checks the medication administration record and sees that it is listed.Which of the following is the nurse's best response to the patient?
A)"It's listed here on the medication sheet,so you should take it."
B)"Go ahead and take it and then I'll check with your doctor about it."
C)"It wouldn't be listed here if it wasn't ordered for you!"
D)"I'll check on the order first,before you take it."
Q2) Which of the following situations is an example of a medication error?
A)A patient refuses her morning medications.
B)A patient receives a double dose of a medication because the nurse did not cut the pill in half.
C)A patient develops hives after starting an intravenous (IV) antibiotic 24 hours earlier.
D)A patient complains of severe pain still present 60 minutes after a pain medication was given.
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Chapter 6: Patient Education and Drug Therapy
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse is teaching a manual skill,such as self-injection of insulin,what is the best way to set up the teaching-learning session?
A)Providing written pamphlets for instruction
B)Showing a video and allow patients to practise as needed on their own
C)Verbally explaining the procedure and provide written handouts for reinforcement
D)After demonstrating the procedure,allowing the patient to do several return demonstrations
Q2) A patient and the dietitian have just reviewed the patient's new diet,which is low protein and low potassium.This activity reflects learning in which domain?
A)Physical
B)Affective
C)Cognitive
D)Psychomotor
Q3) Which of the following statements reflects a measurable goal?
A)The patient will know about insulin injections.
B)The patient will understand the principles of insulin preparation.
C)The patient will demonstrate the proper technique of mixing insulin.
D)The patient will comprehend the proper technique of preparing insulin.
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Chapter 7: Over-The-Counter Drugs and Natural Health Products
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse that she wants to begin taking St.John's wort for treatment of depression.The nurse should warn her about which of the following substances that may cause an interaction with St.John's wort?
A)digoxin (Lanoxin),diuretics,and steroids
B)All caffeine-containing products
C)Alcoholic beverages
D)Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
Q2) A 25-year-old woman is visiting the prenatal clinic and shares with the nurse her desire to go "natural" with her pregnancy.She shows the nurse a list of natural health products that she wishes to take so she can "avoid taking any drugs." Which statement represents the nurse's best response?
A)Most natural health products are nontoxic and safe for use during pregnancy.
B)Please read the labels carefully before use to check for cautionary warnings.
C)Products from different manufacturers are required to contain consistent amounts of herbal constituents.
D)Natural health products are actually drugs with unproven safety and should not be taken during pregnancy without medical supervision.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Vitamins and Minerals
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following symptoms may indicate toxicity during vitamin D therapy?
A)Urticaria
B)Anorexia
C)Diarrhea
D)Tinnitus
Q2) Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for the patient undergoing therapy with vitamin A?
A)Risk for impaired skin integrity related to vitamin deficiency
B)Disturbed sensory perception (visual)related to night blindness
C)Impaired physical mobility (muscle weakness) related to vitamin deficiency
D)Disturbed thought processes (confusion and psychosis)related to vitamin deficiency
Q3) A patient with a history of alcohol abuse has been admitted to hospital for severe weakness and malnutrition.Which preparation will he receive to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy?
A)Niacin (vitamin B )
B)Thiamine (vitamin B )
C)Riboflavin (vitamin B )
D)Pyridoxine (vitamin B )
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10
Chapter 9: Problematic Substance Use
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a substance abuse lecture for teenage girls,the nurse is asked about "roofies." This slang term refers to what substance?
A)Cocaine
B)flunitrazepam (Rohypnol)
C)hydromorphone
D)Methamphetamine
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding drugs used in cigarette smoking cessation programs?
A)Slow chewing of the nicotine gum releases an immediate dose of nicotine.
B)Acute relief from withdrawal symptoms is most easily achieved with the use of the transdermal patch.
C)Patient adherence is higher with the transdermal patch than with the nicotine gum.
D)The nicotine gum can be used only up to six times a day.
Q3) Which of the following is the main substance of misuse among older adults?
A)Cigarettes
B)Alcohol
C)Over-the-counter medications
D)Prescription medications
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Chapter 10: Photo Atlas of Drug Administration
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the proper technique for the nurse to perform when administering ear drops to a 2-year-old child?
A)Administer the drops without altering the ear canal direction.
B)Straighten the ear canal by pulling the lobe upward and back.
C)Straighten the ear canal by pulling the auricle down and back.
D)Straighten the ear canal by pulling the auricle upward and outward.
Q2) A patient with asthma is to begin medication therapy with a metered-dose inhaler.What important reminder should the nurse include during teaching sessions with the patient?
A)Repeat subsequent puffs,if ordered,after 5 minutes.
B)Inhale slowly while pressing down to release the medication.
C)Inhale quickly while pressing down to release the medication.
D)Administer the inhaler while holding it 7.5 to 10 cm away from the mouth.
Q3) Which of the following is the proper method of mixing intravenous (IV)solutions and medications?
A)Shaking the bag or bottle vigorously
B)Holding the bag or bottle and gently turning it end-to-end
C)Inverting the bag or bottle just once after injecting the medication
D)Allowing the IV solution to stand for 10 minutes to enhance even distribution of medication
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Chapter 11: Analgesic Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is to receive acetylcysteine as part of treatment for an acetaminophen (Tylenol)overdose.Which action by the nurse is appropriate when giving this medication?
A)Giving the medication undiluted for full effect
B)Avoiding use of a straw when giving this medication
C)Disguising the flavour with a soft drink or flavoured water
D)Preparing to give this medication via a nebulizer
Q2) A 57-year-old patient has been on a transdermal narcotic analgesic as part of the management of pain for end-stage breast cancer.Lately,she has experienced "breakthrough" pain.How should this pain be addressed?
A)She should be given nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
B)Her current therapy should not be changed.
C)The baseline dose of the narcotic may need to be increased in increments.
D)The narcotic route should be changed to the rectal route to increase absorption.
Q3) For which of the following is the herb feverfew commonly used?
A)Muscle aches
B)Headaches
C)Leg cramps
D)Incisional pain after surgery
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Page 13
Chapter 12: General and Local Anaesthetics
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is to receive local anaesthesia for removal of a lymph node from his groin.Why does the physician add epinephrine to the local anaesthetic during the preparation?
A)Epinephrine prevents an anaphylactic reaction from occurring.
B)The anaesthetic enhances the effect of the epinephrine.
C)Epinephrine contributes to a balanced anaesthetic state.
D)Vasoconstrictive effects keep the anaesthetic at its local site of action.
Q2) A patient has been given succinylcholine (Quelicin)after a severe injury that necessitated controlled ventilation.The physician now wants to reverse the paralysis.The nurse would expect to use which drug to reverse the succinylcholine?
A)diazepam (Valium)
B)Caffeine
C)Neostigmine
D)vecuronium (Norcuron)
Q3) Occurs second
A)Cessation of respirations due to paralysis of diaphragm and intercostal muscles
B)Total flaccid paralysis
C)Weakness
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Chapter 13: Central Nervous System Depressants and Muscle Relaxants
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking temazepam (Restoril)for intermittent insomnia.She tells the nurse that when she takes it,she sleeps well,but the next day she feels "so tired." What is the nurse's best explanation to the patient?
A)Long-term use results in a sedative effect.
B)She should take the drug every night to reduce this hangover effect.
C)Benzodiazepines affect the sleep cycle, thus causing a hangover effect.
D)Benzodiazepines increase central nervous system (CNS)activity,thus causing tiredness the next day.
Q2) A patient is taking flurazepam (Apo-Flurazepam)3 to 4 nights a week for sleeplessness.She is concerned that she cannot get to sleep without taking the medication.What measures are appropriate for this patient?
A)Trying to establish set sleep patterns
B)Exercising before bedtime to become tired
C)Consuming heavy meals in the evening to promote sleepiness
D)Drinking warm beverages,such as tea or coffee,just before bedtime
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Antiepileptic Drugs
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36276
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following teaching tips is appropriate for the nurse to tell a patient taking topiramate (Topamax)?
A)Do not chew,crush,or break the tablet.
B)Take the medication on an empty stomach.
C)Crush the medication if needed to facilitate swallowing.
D)If adverse effects are too severe,a dose may be skipped.
Q2) A patient has been taking carbamazepine (Tegretol)for several months and is worried because the physician has increased her dose twice since beginning therapy.Which of the following is the nurse's best explanation to the patient?
A)The initial dose was not sufficient to prevent seizures.
B)Autoinduction results in lower-than-expected drug concentrations.
C)Because her seizures are difficult to manage, increased doses are needed to control them.
D)Forgetting to take the medication as prescribed led to a need for increased dosage.
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Chapter 15: Antiparkinsonian Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36277
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been treated with antiparkinsonian medications for 3 months.What therapeutic responses should the nurse look for when assessing this patient?
A)Decreased appetite
B)Gradual development of cogwheel rigidity
C)Occurrence of adverse effects such as confusion, anxiety, irritability, and headache
D)Improved mental status and an improved ability to think clearly and to perform activities of daily living
Q2) A patient taking a levodopa preparation for the first time calls the clinic to report a dark discoloration of his urine.Which of the following statements is true in this situation?
A)The discoloration of urine is a harmless effect of the drug.
B)The patient has taken this drug with red wine or cheese.
C)The patient is having an allergic reaction to the drug.
D)The patient has most likely taken extra drug doses.
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Chapter 16: Psychotherapeutic Drugs
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 22-year-old female has been taking lithium (Carbolith)for 6 months.She has blood work every month,and the nurse assesses her for signs of toxicity.What are indications of toxicity?
A)Serum lithium level 0.8 mEq/L and excitability
B)Serum lithium level 1.0 mEq/L and palpitations
C)Serum lithium level 1.5 mEq/L and hypertension
D)Serum lithium level 2.5 mEq/L and cardiac dysrhythmias
Q2) A patient has been taking the monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)phenelzine (Nardil)for 6 months.His physician has discontinued the medication,and the patient says he's going out to the local bar to celebrate.What important information should the nurse tell this patient?
A)Drinking beer is permitted as long as he has a designated driver.
B)He has no further dietary restrictions because he has taken the last dosage.
C)If he begins to experience a throbbing headache, rapid pulse, or nausea, he should stop drinking.
D)Because the drug remains in the body for up to 2 weeks after it has been discontinued,he needs to avoid foods high in tyramine for 2 weeks.
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18
Chapter 17: Central Nervous System Stimulant Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following central nervous system (CNS)stimulant drugs is used to treat acute migraines?
A)zolmitriptan (Zomig)
B)Amphetamines
C)modafinil (Alertec)
D)methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin)
Q2) Caffeine should be used with caution in which of the following patients?
A)A male with a history of peptic ulcers
B)A female with a history of migraine headaches
C)A teenager with a history of asthma
D)A male with a history of kidney stones
Q3) The nurse is evaluating a patient who is taking sibutramine (Meridia).Which of the following is an intended therapeutic effect?
A)Increased wakefulness
B)Increased appetite
C)Suppressed appetite
D)Decreased hyperactivity
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19
Chapter 18: Adrenergic Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36280
Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient is taking an adrenergic drug,the nurse expects to see which of the following effects?
A)Increased heart rate
B)Bronchial constriction
C)Peripheral vasodilation
D)Increased intestinal peristalsis
Q2) When an adrenergic drug stimulates -adrenergic receptors,the result is an increased force of contraction,which is known as what type of positive effect?
A)Inotropic
B)Adrenergic
C)Dromotropic
D)Chronotropic
Q3) Adrenergic drugs that cause relaxation of the bronchi (bronchodilation)stimulate which type of receptors?
A)Dopaminergic receptors
B) -adrenergic receptors
C) -adrenergic receptors
D) 1-adrenergic receptors
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Chapter 19: Adrenergic-Blocking Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has received a prescription for prazosin (Minipress)to reduce urinary obstruction due to benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).What important information should the nurse tell this patient about the medication?
A)Fluids should be restricted while on this medication.
B)Take the medication with breakfast to promote maximum effects of the drug.
C)Until a tolerance is built up, lightheadedness may occur when standing up after sitting or lying down.
D)Blood pressure should be monitored because the medication may cause hypertension due to vasoconstriction.
Q2) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
A)An -blocker drug
B)A -blocker drug
C)Both an -blocker drug and a -blocker drug
Q3) Which -blocker is indicated for the treatment of heart failure?
A)atenolol (Tenormin)
B)carvedilol
C)acebutolol (Rhotral)
D)esmolol (Brevibloc)
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Chapter 20: Cholinergic Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an overdose of an intravenous cholinergic drug occurs,which of the following drugs can reverse a cholinergic crisis if administered promptly?
A)atenolol (Tenormin)
B)bethanechol (Duvoid)
C)dobutamine
D)atropine sulfate
Q2) Decreased blood pressure
A)Muscarinic stimulation
B)Nicotinic stimulation
C)Both muscarinic stimulation and nicotinic stimulation
Q3) A patient has been newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis.What important information should the nurse teach this patient regarding the administration of cholinergic drugs?
A)The medication should be taken with meals to avoid gastrointestinal distress.
B)Daytime dosages should be given close together for maximal therapeutic effect.
C)The medication should be taken 30 minutes before eating to improve swallowing and chewing.
D)Expected adverse effects are increased muscle weakness,abdominal cramping,and diarrhea,which should subside in a few days.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Cholinergic-Blocking Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Indications for the use of oxybutynin (Ditropan)include which of the following?
A)Irritable bowel disease
B)Induction of mydriasis
C)Antispasmodic for neurogenic bladder
D)Reduction of secretions preoperatively
Q2) What is the advantage of using tolterodine (Detrol)for urinary incontinence compared with other drugs?
A)Drowsiness is not usually a problem.
B)It may also be used for urinary retention.
C)It can be used in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma.
D)The incidence of dry mouth is much lower with tolterodine.
Q3) The nurse is about to administer a STAT dose of atropine sulfate to a patient who is experiencing a symptomatic cardiac dysrhythmia.During administration of this drug,the nurse monitors the patient closely for which adverse effect?
A)Tachycardia
B)Bradycardia
C)Ectopic beats
D)Cardiac standstill
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23
Chapter 22: Positive Inotropic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following assessments is the most important indicator of an exacerbation of heart failure in a patient?
A)Increased weight
B)Hypokalemia
C)Increased pulse
D)Increased oxygen saturation
Q2) Which of the following medications results in a drug interaction if given to a patient taking digitalis?
A)acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)
B)acetaminophen (Tylenol)
C)Steroids
D)Vitamin K
Q3) A patient has been placed on a milrinone infusion as part of the therapy for end-stage heart failure.Which of the following risks should the nurse keep in mind while assessing this patient during the infusion?
A)Hypotension
B)Hyperkalemia
C)Hypertension
D)Decreased urine output
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should be monitored closely in a patient who is taking class IV antidysrhythmics?
A)Urine output and specific gravity
B)Temperature and skin turgor
C)Heart rhythm and blood pressure
D)Level of consciousness
Q2) A patient has been started on lidocaine (Xylocaine).The nurse will monitor the patient for which of the following adverse effects of this drug?
A)Drowsiness
B)Nystagmus
C)Dry mouth
D)Convulsions
Q3) Amiodarone is categorized on the Vaughan Williams classification as a Class III drug.Which of the following best describes how this drug works?
A)By blocking slow calcium channels
B)By prolonging action potential duration
C)By blocking sodium channels and affecting phase 0
D)By decreasing spontaneous depolarization and affecting phase 4
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25
Chapter 24: Antianginal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amlodipine (Norvasc)can be used to treat both angina and hypertension.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A patient has developed tolerance to transdermal nitroglycerin therapy.What is the nurse's best response to the patient?
A)Omit one dose once a week.
B)Leave the patch on for 2 days at a time.
C)Cut the patch in half for 1 week until the tolerance subsides.
D)Remove the patch at bedtime,and then apply a new one in the morning.
Q3) Women should maintain a sodium intake of less than 3 grams per day.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most available -blockers demonstrate antianginal efficacy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Twenty-five percent of women die within 5 years of onset of heart failure because of coronary artery disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Antihypertensive Drugs
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antihypertensive drug therapy has been prescribed for a Black male patient newly diagnosed with stage 1 hypertension.Which of the following is most likely included in his medication therapy?
A)Vasodilators alone
B)Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)inhibitors alone
C)Calcium channel blockers with thiazide diuretic
D) -blockers with thiazide diuretic
Q2) Which of the following adverse effects commonly occurs in male patients who are taking antihypertensive medications?
A)Impotence
B)Bradycardia
C)Increased libido
D)Increased weight
Q3) Which angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)inhibitor is best for a patient who has liver dysfunction in addition to an acute myocardial infarction (MI)?
A)quinapril (Accupril)because it is a prodrug
B)captopril (Capoten)because it is not a prodrug
C)lisinopril (Prinivil) because it can be dosed only once a day
D)enalapril (Vasotec)because it is also available in a parenteral form
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Diuretic Drugs
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physician has ordered mannitol (Osmitrol)for a patient.How should this drug be administered?
A)Intravenously,through a filter
B)By rapid intravenous (IV)bolus
C)20 to 80 mg orally (PO) daily, in a single morning dose
D)By oral or IV route,depending on the severity of the patient's condition
Q2) When assessing a patient who is receiving a loop diuretic,the nurse looks for the manifestations of potassium deficiency.Which of the following are symptoms of potassium deficienty? Select all that apply.
A)Dyspnea
B)Constipation
C)Anorexia
D)Tinnitus
E)Muscle weakness
F)Palpitations
G)Mental confusion
H)Lethargy
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Chapter 27: Fluids and Electrolytes
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36289
Sample Questions
Q1) During the infusion of albumin,the nurse should monitor the patient for the development of which of the following?
A)Hypernatremia
B)Fluid volume deficit
C)Fluid volume excess
D)Transfusion reaction
Q2) Red,flushed skin
A)HYPO
B)HYPER
Q3) Increased temperature
A)HYPO
B)HYPER
Q4) Diarrhea
A)HYPO
B)HYPER
Q5) Hypotension
A)HYPO
B)HYPER
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Chapter 28: Coagulation Modifier Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most frequent undesirable adverse effect of thrombolytic therapy?
A)Dysrhythmias
B)Nausea and vomiting
C)Anaphylactic reactions
D)Internal and superficial bleeding
Q2) A female patient has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin)in addition to a heparin infusion.What is the reason for her receiving two anticoagulants?
A)The oral and injection forms work synergistically.
B)The combination of heparin and an oral anticoagulant results in fewer adverse effects than heparin used alone.
C)Oral anticoagulants are used to reach an adequate level of anticoagulation when heparin alone is unable to do so.
D)When oral anticoagulants are prescribed,heparin is often used to initiate therapy until laboratory tests indicate an adequate therapeutic response.
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Chapter 29: Antilipemic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving an antilipemic drug.What important information should the nurse tell the patient about this medication?
A)Begin a vigorous aerobic exercise program.
B)Eat extra servings of raw vegetables and fruit.
C)If a once-a-day dosage regimen is used, take the medication in the morning.
D)To maximize drug absorption,take the medication 1 hour before meals or 2 hours after meals.
Q2) A patient complains that the cholestyramine (Novo-Cholamine)powder he started yesterday clumps and sticks to the glass when he tries to mix it.What is the nurse's best suggestion for mixing this medication for administration?
A)Use a carbonated soft drink to dissolve the powder faster.
B)Add the powder to any liquid and stir vigorously to dissolve quickly.
C)Mix the powder with food or fruit, such as crushed pineapple, or at least 120 mL of fluid.
D)Sprinkle the powder into a spoon and take it dry,followed by a glass of water.
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Chapter 30: Pituitary Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is taking a medical history to determine whether a 22-year-old female patient should be given cosyntropin (Cortrosyn).Her blood pressure is 124/78 mmHG.She eats a diet high in red meat and carbohydrates and is approximately 9 kg (20 lb)overweight but has started an exercise regimen.She had her appendix removed last month.After reviewing the assessment,the physician decides not to give her the medication.What assessment finding influenced the physician's decision?
A)Diet
B)Weight
C)Activity level
D)Recent surgery
Q2) An 8-year-old girl has been diagnosed with true pituitary dwarfism.She is being treated with somatropin (Humatrope).Which of the following is an expected outcome of using somatropin?
A)An increase in growth
B)Decreased urinary output
C)Increased muscle strength
D)An increase in height when she reaches puberty
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Chapter 31: Thyroid and Antithyroid Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking levothyroxine (Synthroid)for more than a decade for primary hypothyroidism.She tells the nurse that her cousin can get her the same medication in a generic form from a pharmaceutical supply company.What is the nurse's best response to the patient?
A)"That would be a great way to save money."
B)"There's no difference in brands of this medication."
C)"Switching the form of medication should never be done; once you start with a certain brand, you must stay with it."
D)"It's better not to switch brands until we check with your doctor."
Q2) Which of the following drugs should be avoided while taking thyroid replacement preparations?
A)Vitamin supplements
B)Antibiotics
C)Anticoagulants
D) -blockers
Q3) The nurse is giving morning medications.The medication administration record has an order for "levothyroxine,75 mcg." The drug dispensing cabinet contains levothyroxine tablets in milligram strengths,not in micrograms.Calculate the mg equivalent dose of 75 mcg.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Antidiabetic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What early signs of hypoglycemia should the nurse should tell the patient about?
A)Urticaria and rash
B)Nausea and diarrhea
C)Irritability and confusion
D)Fruity,acetone odour to the breath
Q2) Which of the following types of insulin can be administered intravenously?
A)Regular insulin
B)Neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH)insulin
C)insulin glargine (Lantus)
D)insulin detemir (Levemir)
Q3) A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus gives herself insulin injections as part of the therapy.What should the nurse teach this patient to do if she has hypoglycemia?
A)Call her physician.
B)Administer regular insulin.
C)Take an oral form of glucose.
D)Rest until the symptoms pass.
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Chapter 33: Adrenal Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following are contraindications to the administration of glucocorticoid drugs?
A)Glaucoma and mental health illnesses
B)Peptic ulcer disease and dizziness
C)Varicella infection and headaches
D)Cataracts and nausea
Q2) Which of the following types of drugs can have an adverse interaction with corticosteroids?
A)Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
B)Antibiotics
C)Narcotic analgesics
D)Oral anticoagulants
Q3) A patient is concerned about the body changes that have resulted from long-term prednisone (Winpred)therapy for the treatment of lupus erythematosus.Which of the following effects of this drug therapy supports the nursing diagnosis of disturbed body image?
A)Weight loss
B)Weight gain
C)Pale skin colour
D)Loss of hair
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Chapter 34: Womens Health Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is to receive estrogen replacement therapy.What important information should the nurse tell the patient about this medication?
A)Double up on the medication if a dose is missed.
B)Do not be concerned about breast lumps or bumps that occur.
C)Report any weight gain of more than 2 kg per week.
D)Take the medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer the contraceptive form of medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera).What route should be planned?
A)Oral
B)Intramuscular
C)Vaginal
D)Transdermal
Q3) The patient who is on estrogen therapy should be counselled that smoking may cause which of the following?
A)An increased incidence of nausea
B)An increased tendency to bleed during menstruation
C)Increased levels of triglycerides
D)An increased risk for thrombosis
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36
Chapter 35: Mens Health Drugs
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Q1) A patient is to receive testosterone cypionate (Depo-Testosterone),75 mg by intramuscular (IM)injection,every 2 weeks for treatment of male hypogonadism.Which of the following interventions is appropriate?
A)The medication will be stopped immediately once the goal of therapy has been reached.
B)Therapeutic effects will be evident after just a few days of therapy.
C)The IM injection will need to be given deep in the muscle.
D)The patient can be switched to an oral form for better absorption once the goal of therapy has been reached.
Q2) Uses for the synthetic androgen danazol (Cyclomen)include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A)Porphyria
B)Endometriosis
C)Decreased sexual libido
D)Postpartum breast engorgement
E)Fibrocystic breast disease
F)Hereditary angioedema
G)Metastatic breast cancer
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Expectorants
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Q1) How does the antitussive dextromethorphan (Benylin DM-E)work to suppress the cough reflex?
A)By causing central nervous system (CNS)depression
B)By anaesthetizing the stretch receptors
C)Through a direct action on the cough centre
D)By decreasing the viscosity of the bronchial secretions
Q2) Because of many reported adverse events,which of the following children should not be given cough and cold medication?
A)Children younger than 2 years old
B)Children younger than 4 years old
C)Children younger than 6 years old
D)Children younger than 8 years old
Q3) Which antihistamine is commonly used in the treatment of motion sickness?
A)azatadine
B)diphenhydramine (Allerdryl)
C)hydroxyzine
D)promethazine
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Bronchodilators and Other Respiratory Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) After receiving a nebulizer treatment with a -agonist,the patient complains of feeling slightly nervous and wonders whether her asthma is getting worse.What is the nurse's best response to the patient?
A)"Feeling a little nervous is an expected adverse effect.Let me take your pulse to check it."
B)"The next scheduled nebulizer treatment should be skipped."
C)"I will notify the physician about this adverse effect."
D)"We will hold the treatment for 24 hours."
Q2) A patient is taking aminophylline (Phyllocontin)intravenously for a severe exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).Which of the following assessments does the nurse expect when evaluating for a therapeutic response to the medication?
A)Drowsiness
B)Increased heart rate
C)Increased respiratory rate
D)Increased ease of breathing
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Chapter 38: Antibiotics, part 1: Sulfonamides, Penicillins,
Cephalosporins, Macrolides, and Tetracyclines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who are allergic to penicillin may also be hypersensitive to which of the following drugs?
A)Tetracyclines
B)Sulfonamides
C)Cephalosporins
D)Imipenem-cilastatin
Q2) During antibiotic therapy,the nurse should monitor the patient closely for signs and symptoms of a hypersensitivity reaction.Which of the following may be an indication of a hypersensitivity reaction? Select all that apply.
A)Wheezing
B)Diarrhea
C)Shortness of breath
D)Swelling of the feet
E)Swelling of the tongue
F)Itching
G)Black,hairy tongue
H)Rash
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Fluoroquinolones, and Other Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following nursing diagnoses is appropriate for the patient who has started aminoglycoside therapy?
A)Constipation
B)Risk for injury (hearing loss)
C)Disturbed body image related to gynecomastia
D)Imbalanced nutrition,less than body requirements,related to nausea
Q2) What is the main advantage of levofloxacin (Levaquin)over other quinolones?
A)Once-daily dosing
B)Twice-daily dosing
C)A more potent anti-infective effect
D)Fewer adverse effects
Q3) A patient who has been hospitalized for 2 weeks has developed a pressure ulcer that contains methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).Which of the following antibiotics does the nurse expect will be chosen for his therapy?
A)penicillin
B)doxycycline (Apo-Doxy)
C)vancomycin (Vancocin)
D)erythromycin (Pediazole)
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Chapter 40: Antiviral Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient diagnosed with genital herpes is taking topical acyclovir (Zovirax).What important information should the nurse tell the patient about this drug? Select all that apply.
A)"Be sure to wash your hands thoroughly before and after applying this medicine."
B)"Apply this ointment until the lesion stops hurting."
C)"Sterile gloves are required when applying this ointment."
D)"Use a clean glove when applying this ointment."
E)"If your partner develops these lesions,then he can also use the medication."
F)"You need to avoid touching around your eyes."
G)"You will need to practise abstinence when these lesions are active."
H)"Ask your health care provider about getting a Pap smear every 6 months due to an increased risk for cervical cancer."
Q2) The nurse is administering acyclovir (Zovirax).Which of the following directions is appropriate?
A)Intravenous (IV)infusions should be administered slowly,over at least 1 hour.
B)IV infusions should be administered by rapid IV bolus.
C)IV acyclovir is compatible with many other IV solutions.
D)Oral fluids should be restricted while the client is taking IV acyclovir.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Antituberculosis Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the reason for using multidrug therapy in the treatment of tuberculosis (TB)?
A)Multiple drugs are required to eradicate the TB.
B)The use of multiple medications reduces the chance of the TB becoming drug resistant.
C)Multidrug therapy will have a faster effect than single-drug therapy.
D)Using multidrug therapy enhances the effect of each drug.
Q2) Family members exposed to a patient with active tuberculosis (TB)may require prophylactic drug therapy.How long do they need to take this therapy?
A)6 months
B)12 months
C)18 months
D)24 months
Q3) Patients taking isoniazid (Isotamine)should watch for and report which of the following potential adverse effects?
A)Rash
B)Headache and nervousness
C)Insomnia
D)Numbness and tingling of extremities
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Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the history of a patient who will be taking an antifungal drug.Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for this treatment therapy?
A)Diabetes mellitus
B)Renal failure
C)Hyperthyroidism
D)Meningitis
Q2) A patient is receiving therapy with amphotericin B (Fungizone).The nurse will monitor for known adverse effects that are reflected by which laboratory result?
A)Serum potassium level of 2.9 mmol/L
B)Serum potassium level of 5.6 mmol/L
C)White blood cell (WBC) count of 6500 mm3
D)Platelet count of 300,000 per microlitre
Q3) The nurse is administering an antifungal medication.What assessment finding may indicate medication-induced renal damage?
A)Rash and chills
B)Increased urinary output
C)Decreased levels of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine
D)Weight gain of more than 1 kg in 1 week
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is being treated for malaria has started therapy with quinine and tetracycline.He asks the nurse why he is on an antibiotic when malaria is caused by a parasite.What is the nurse's best explanation to the patient?
A)The tetracycline prevents reinfection with the malaria parasite.
B)The antibiotic is combined with quinine to reduce the adverse effects of the quinine.
C)An antibacterial drug prevents the occurrence of superinfection during antimalarial therapy.
D)The combination of both drugs takes advantage of their synergistic protozoacidal effects.
Q2) Certain antimalarial drugs work only during specific phases of the parasite's life cycle.Drugs that work in the "tissue" phase are known as ____________ ____________ drugs.
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement about anthelmintic therapy?
A)Anthelmintics may cause severe drowsiness.
B)Anthelmintics are very specific in their actions.
C)Anthelmintics are effective against broad classes of infestations.
D)Anthelmintics are used to treat protozoal infections,such as intestinal amoebiasis.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Antiseptic and Disinfectant Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using antiseptics,a patient's therapeutic response may be manifested by which of the following?
A)Increased symptoms of inflammation
B)Improved healing of the affected area
C)Total elimination of all bacteria from the area
D)No adverse reactions reported
Q2) Sodium hypochlorite 5% solution
A)Antiseptics
B)Disinfectants
C)Both antiseptics and disinfectants
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement regarding the application of topical agents?
A)Sterile gloves must be worn when applying topical agents.
B)Creams and ointments should be applied with the fingers.
C)Always use an occlusive dressing after applying a topical agent.
D)Hands should be washed thoroughly before and after applying any topical medication.
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Chapter 45: Anti-Inflammatory, Anti-arthritic, and Related Drugs
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Q1) A patient who has a history of coronary artery disease has been instructed to take one 81 mg tablet of acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)each day.What is the purpose of this dose of acetylsalicylic acid?
A)To prevent fever
B)To reduce inflammation
C)To relieve pain
D)To prevent thrombus formation
Q2) A patient is being treated with allopurinol (Alloprin)for gout.Which of the following therapeutic results should the nurse monitor for?
A)Decreased uric acid levels
B)Adequate prothrombin time
C)Increased white blood cell count
D)Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
Q3) Which of the following are possible therapeutic effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?
A)Anxiolytic effects
B)Diuretic effects
C)Antipyretic effects
D)Antimicrobial effects
Page 47
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Chapter 46: Immunosuppressant Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is cyclosporine (Neoral)usually given intravenously?
A)In a single intravenous (IV)injectable form to minimize adverse effects
B)Initiated by an oral test dose;then,after 2 hours,an IV infusion is begun
C)Diluted with normal saline or 5% dextrose in water and infused over 2 to 6 hours
D)Given as an IV bolus for the first dose,then with an infusion pump for following doses
Q2) Which of the following drugs may increase the action of azathioprine (Imuran)?
A)nafcillin (Nafcil)
B)rifampin (Rifadin)
C)allopurinol (Alloprim)
D)phenobarbital (Luminal)
Q3) A patient on immunosuppressant therapy is having monthly laboratory studies.The drug should be discontinued if the patient's leukocyte count drops below which of the following?
A)3.0×10 /L
B)5.0×10 /L
C)10.0×10 /L
D)15.0×10 /L
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Chapter 47: Immunizing Drugs and Pandemic
Preparedness
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Q1) The human papilloma virus (HPV)vaccine should be given to which age group of females?
A)2 to 4 years
B)6 to 8 years
C)9 to 13 years
D)14 to 18 years
Q2) Two patients arrive at the clinic: a young boy with sickle-cell anemia and a 57-year-old woman with early-stage Hodgkin's disease.Both patients require the same vaccine.What vaccine do they require?
A)The Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG)vaccine
B)Tetanus,diphtheria,and pertussis
C)Hepatitis B virus vaccine, inactivated
D)Haemophilus influenzae type b conjugate vaccine
Q3) At what age is the first dose of diphtheria,tetanus,and acellular pertussis,and inactivated polio vaccine (DTaP-IPV)given?
A)Age 1 month
B)Age 2 months
C)Age 4 months
D)Age 6 months
Page 49
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Sample Questions
Q1) One patient has cancer of the bone;a second patient has cancer in the connective tissues of his leg muscles;a third patient has cancer in her vascular tissues.Which of the following types of tumours is common to these patients?
A)Sarcoma
B)Leukemia
C)Carcinoma
D)Lymphoma
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement regarding nadir?
A)It is a therapeutic effect of radiation.
B)It is the lowest level reached by bone marrow cells following chemotherapy.
C)It occurs 30 days after chemotherapy treatment.
D)Antiemetics will prevent it.
Q3) Leucovorin rescue,during which leucovorin enters and "rescues" normal cells from the toxic effects of antineoplastic agents,is useful during therapy with which of the following drugs?
A)cisplatin
B)methotrexate (Apo-Methotrexate)
C)mercaptopurine (Purinethol)
D)cyclophosphamide (Procytox)
Page 50
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Estrogen antagonists can cause hypercalcemia.Which of the following are symptoms of hypercalcemia?
A)Constipation and urinary changes
B)Confusion and tachycardia
C)Lethargy and diarrhea
D)Weakness and hypoventilation
Q2) A patient is receiving alkylating drugs.The nurse knows that which of the following signs may indicate an oncological emergency?
A)Cracked lips
B)Temperature of 37.8°C
C)Diarrhea
D)Dry cough
Q3) Imatinib (Gleevec)is indicated as treatment for which of the following types of cancer?
A)Chronic myeloid leukemia
B)Acute lymphocytic leukemia
C)Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D)Acute myeloid leukemia
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Chapter 50: Biological Responsemodifying Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following medications is indicated in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
A)thalidomide (Thalomid)
B)tretinoin (Vesanoid)
C)Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine (Immuncyst)
D)etanercept (Enbrel)
Q2) Which intervention is appropriate during therapy with interferon drugs?
A)Dosages given at bedtime minimize central nervous system (CNS)adverse effects.
B)Fluids should be limited while patients are taking these medications.
C)Oral dosing is preferred to minimize allergic reactions.
D)Shake the drug vial well before drawing up a dose.
Q3) A female patient is being treated with biological response-modifying drugs.After completion of her treatment,she should be cautioned to avoid pregnancy for what time period?
A)6 months
B)12 months
C)18 months
D)24 months
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52
Chapter 51: Gene Therapy and Pharmacogenomics
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Q1) Which of the following is the main purpose of the Human Genome Project?
A)To study genetic diseases
B)To study genetic traits in humans
C)To discover new genetic diseases
D)To describe the entire genome of a human being
Q2) Genotyping for presence of cytochrome P-450 2D6 (CYP2D6)enzymes and alleles will be helpful in which area of medicine?
A)Cardiology
B)Psychiatry
C)Respirology
D)Oncology
Q3) Which of the following is manufactured as a result of indirect gene therapy?
A)Vitamin K
B)epoetin (Eprex)
C)Human insulin
D)Heparin
Q4) Name one clinical application of pharmacogenomics.
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Chapter 52: Acid-Controlling Drugs
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Q1) A patient is taking omeprazole (Losec)for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).What important information should the nurse tell the patient about this medication?
A)The medication is taken once a day after meals.
B)The patient will be taking this medication for long-term therapy.
C)The medication may be dissolved in a liquid for better absorption.
D)The entire capsule should be taken whole and not crushed,chewed,or opened.
Q2) Which of the following are true statements about antacids? Select all that apply.
A)Antacids prevent the overproduction of acid in the stomach.
B)Antacids neutralize acid in the stomach.
C)Antacids form a mucus barrier in the stomach.
D)Rebound hyperacidity may occur with calcium-based antacids.
E)Aluminum-based antacids cause diarrhea.
F)Magnesium-based antacids cause diarrhea.
G)Stomach acidity is reduced by 90% if the pH is raised an entire point.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Antidiarrheal Drugs and Laxatives
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Q1) A patient is on laxative therapy.What important information should the nurse tell the patient about this therapy?
A)Crush all laxative tablets for improved action.
B)Bisacodyl and cascara sagrada should be given with water only.
C)A normal bowel pattern is when a bowel movement occurs daily.
D)Psyllium (Metamucil Preparations)can be mixed in food,such as applesauce,or stirred into fruit juice.
Q2) The nurse advises a patient to try bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)to control his diarrhea.Which of the following medications will interact significantly with the Pepto-Bismol?
A)digoxin (Lanoxin)
B)Antacids
C)acetaminophen (Tylenol)
D)tricyclic antidepressants
Q3) Which class of laxatives is most likely to cause dependence if overused?
A)Emollient laxatives
B)Bulk-forming laxatives
C)Hyperosmotic laxatives
D)Stimulant laxatives
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Antiemetic and Antinausea Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following interventions is correct regarding the management of nausea and vomiting?
A)Give antiemetics immediately after chemotherapy is administered.
B)Antiemetics are often administered 30 minutes to 3 hours before a chemotherapy drug is given.
C)Taking antiemetics at night may cause restlessness and interfere with sleep.
D)Antiemetics may be taken with a glass of wine to help settle the stomach.
Q2) Which antiemetic drug works by blocking dopamine in the chemoreceptor trigger zone,causing the zone to be desensitized to impulses received from the gastrointestinal tract?
A)ondansetron (Zofran)
B)metoclopramide (Apo-Metoclop)
C)meclizine (Bonamine)
D)prochlorperazine (Nu-Prochlor)
Q3) Which drug is administered via a transdermal patch to prevent motion sickness?
A)meclizine (Bonamine)
B)prochlorperazine (Stemetil)
C)scopolamine (Transderm-V)
D)metoclopramide (Apo-Metoclop)
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Pharmaconutrition
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36317
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common adverse effect from nutritional supplements?
A)Diarrhea
B)Constipation
C)Fluid overload
D)Peptic ulcer disease
Q2) A patient has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN).Upon assessment,the nurse notes that his blood pressure is elevated,his pulse is weak and elevated,he seems confused,and he has new pitting edema around his ankles.Which of the following does the nurse suspect?
A)Hyperglycemia
B)Hypoglycemia
C)Infection
D)Fluid overload
Q3) Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?
A)Anorexia
B)Headache
C)Fluid overload
D)Diarrhea
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Chapter 56: Blood-Forming Drugs
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36318
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed oral iron supplementation.What important information should the nurse tell the patient about this treatment?
A)Take the iron tablets with milk or antacids.
B)Crush the pills as needed to help swallowing.
C)Avoid reclining positions for 15 to 30 minutes after taking the drug.
D)While on iron supplement,it is not necessary to eat foods high in iron such as meat;dark green,leafy vegetables;and dried beans.
Q2) A woman is planning to become pregnant in the next year.To reduce the risk for fetal neural tube defects,she should ensure that she receives adequate levels of which of the following?
A)Vitamin B
B)Vitamin C
C)Iron
D)Folic acid
Q3) Which of the following may occur as a result of therapy with iron preparations?
A)Palpitations
B)Dizziness and syncope
C)Black and red tarry stools
D)Yellow discoloration of the urine
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Page 58
Chapter 57: Dermatological Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36319
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a true statement regarding the dermis layer of the skin?
A)None of its layers has a direct blood supply.
B)It forms the protective layer for the entire body.
C)Outer dead cells contain a water-repellent protein known as keratin.
D)It provides extra support with blood vessels,nerves,elastic tissue,and connective tissue.
Q2) Which of the nursing implications are correct regarding topical dermatological drugs for acne? Select all that apply.
A)Apply lotion liberally to affected sites.
B)Apply sparingly to affected areas.
C)Cover affected areas with occlusive dressings.
D)Avoid weather extremes and ultraviolet (UV)radiation.
E)Exposure to sunlight helps the skin by drying the affected areas.
F)Avoid abrasive cleansers.
G)Discontinue treatment when skin condition improves.
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Chapter 58: Ophthalmic Drugs
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9 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs is used to reduce intraocular pressure?
A)cromolyn (Opticrom)
B)Polypeptides
C)Osmotic diuretics
D)Hyperosmolar sodium chloride
Q2) In preparation for ocular surgery,which drug is used for local anaesthesia?
A)Glycerin
B)tetracaine (Minims)
C)Acetazolamide
D)apraclonidine 1% (Iopidine)
Q3) Although dipivefrin (Propine)has localized effects in the eye,it mimics the effects of the sympathetic nervous system neurotransmitters and can cause systemic effects.Which of the following systemic effects can occur?
A)Dizziness and syncope
B)Bradycardia or heart block
C)Dry mouth and constipation
D)Increased heart rate or blood pressure
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Chapter 59: Otic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 12-month-old infant is prescribed an ear drop.What important information should the nurse teach the parents about ear drop administration?
A)Pull the pinna down and back.
B)Pull the pinna up and back.
C)Pull the pinna down and forward.
D)Pull the pinna up and forward.
Q2) A patient is prescribed ear drops.What important information should the nurse teach the patient about the proper use of ear drops?
A)Remove cerumen with a cotton-tipped swab before instilling drops.
B)The drops should be instilled while still cool from refrigeration.
C)Warm the eardrops to room temperature before instillation.
D)Massage the ear lobe after instillation.
Q3) Contraindications to the use of chloramphenicol otic preparations include which of the following?
A)Escherichia coli infection
B)Perforated eardrum
C)Haemophilus influenzae infection
D)Drug hypersensitivity to pramoxine
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