Pharmacology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pharmacology is the scientific study of drugs, their sources, chemical properties, biological effects, mechanisms of action, and therapeutic uses. This course explores the interactions between chemical substances and living organisms, emphasizing how drugs modify physiological functions to prevent, diagnose, or treat diseases. Students will learn about drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion (ADME), as well as the principles of drug action at cellular and molecular levels. Additionally, the course covers the classification of drugs, side effects, drug interactions, and the development of new pharmaceuticals, providing a comprehensive understanding of the role of pharmacology in healthcare and medicine.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Medical Biochemistry 3rd Edition by Gerhard Meisenberg
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Biomolecules
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Q1) What is the major difference between glycogen and amylose?
A)Glycogen contains only glucose, and amylose contains some fructose in addition to glucose.
B)Glycogen is a storage polysaccharide, and amylose is a structural polysaccharide of the extracellular matrix.
C)Glycogen is branched, and amylose is not.
D)Glycogen contains some linkages, but amylose contains only linkages.
E)Glycogen is stored in the liver, and amylose is stored in skeletal muscle.
Answer: C
Q2) What is the difference between -D-glucose and -D-galactose?
A)They are mirror images of each other.
B)They differ in the configuration of substituents at C-4.
C)One is an aldose and the other is a ketose.
D)They are anomers.
E)One forms only O-glycosidic bonds, and the other forms only N-glycosidic bonds.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Introduction to Protein Structure
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Q1) Amino acids at the isoelectric point in the titration curve have a net charge of:
A)1.
B)+1.
C)+2.
D)0.
E)-2.
Answer: D
Q2) Noncovalent bonds essential for the formation of the helix and b-pleated sheet are:
A)Disulfide bonds.
B)Van der Waals interactions.
C)Salt bridges.
D)Hydrogen bonds.
E)Hydrophobic forces.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Oxygen Transporters: Hemoglobin and Myoglobin
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Q1) The oxygen dissociation curve of hemoglobin is sigmoidal, and this raises the efficiency of oxygen delivery considerably.The reason for hemoglobin's sigmoidal oxygen dissociation curve is:
A)The steric control of oxygen access to the heme iron by the distal histidine.
B)The difference in oxygen affinity between the heme groups of the chains and those of the chains.
C)A conformational change in the protein that raises the oxygen-binding affinities of the other heme groups when one of them becomes oxygenated.
D)The effect of 2,3-BG, which binds only to oxygenated but not deoxygenated hemoglobin.
E)The hydrophobicity of the heme-binding pocket, which forces oxygen to diffuse through a hydrophobic medium in order to reach the heme iron. Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Enzymatic Reactions
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Q1) Aldehyde groups are present in some metabolites.These aldehyde groups are most likely to be metabolized with the help of which type of enzyme?
A)Monooxygenase.
B)Dehydrogenase.
C)Kinase.
D)Synthetase.
E)Hydrolase.
Q2) The rate of a typical enzyme-catalyzed reaction:
A)Is independent of pH over a broad range of pH values.
B)Is approximately proportional to the substrate concentration as long as the substrate concentration is much lower than the Michaelis constant (Km).
C)Rises by a factor of about 4 when the temperature is raised by 10° C.
D)Is no longer affected by the enzyme concentration at saturating substrate concentrations.
E)Is virtually independent of the temperature, as long as heat denaturation is avoided.
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Chapter 5: Coenzymes
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Q1) The cleavage of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to adenosine monophosphate (AMP) + pyrophosphate is said to supply more energy than the cleavage of ATP to ADP + phosphate.Why?
A)ATP ADP + phosphate cleaves a phosphoanhydride bond, and ATP AMP + pyrophosphate cleaves a phosphodiester bond.
B)The cleavage to AMP and pyrophosphate is followed by the degradation of AMP by adenosine deaminase.
C)The cleavage to AMP and pyrophosphate is followed by the degradation of pyrophosphate.
D)ATP ADP + phosphate cleaves a phosphoanhydride bond, and ATP AMP + pyrophosphate cleaves a phosphate ester bond.
E)ATP ADP + phosphate cleaves a phosphate ester bond, and ATP AMP + pyrophosphate cleaves a phosphoanhydride bond.
Q2) Coenzyme A has a very specific function in metabolic pathways.Its task is:
A)Transfer of hydrogen.
B)Transfer of electrons.
C)Attachment of carboxyl groups.
D)Activation of monosaccharides for the synthesis of complex carbohydrates.
E)Activation of organic acids.
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Chapter 6: DNA, RNA, and Protein Synthesis
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Q1) Translation is terminated by a release factor (RF) and: A)Rho.
B)A stem-loop structure.
C)UGA, UAG, or UAA codons.
D)AUG codons.
E)Consecutive trp codons.
Q2) Unlike DNA polymerases, RNA polymerases:
A)Can elongate a primer oligonucleotide.
B)Can initiate synthesis of their polynucleotide product.
C)Generate inorganic pyrophosphate.
D)Have 3'-exonuclease activity.
E)Require a separate helicase enzyme for strand separation before they can start synthesizing their product.
Q3) The lac operon is induced by the presence of lactose, but it is transcribed at a high rate only when:
A)The cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) level in the cell is high.
B)A ribosome binds to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence.
C)A ribosome binds to the 5' cap of the mRNA.
D)Tryptophan is present in high concentration.
E)Glucose is present
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Chapter 7: The Human Genome
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Q1) There are more than 25,000 copies of DNA sequences homologous to zinc finger protein genes in the human genome.Many of these are contained within actively transcribed genes.These transcribed zinc finger protein DNA sequences are included in which category of human genomic DNA?
A)Interspersed elements: 45% of the entire genome.
B)Constitutive heterochromatin: 6% of the entire genome.
C)Centromeric DNA: 1% of the entire genome.
D)Non-conserved DNA: 44% of the entire genome.
E)Highly conserved DNA: 5% of the entire genome.
Q2) There are about 28,000 copies of zinc finger domains in the human genome, most of them as constituents of transcribed genes.This is a result of what process?
A)Evolutionary conservation, exon duplication, and exon shuffling.
B)Evolutionary conversion of leucine zipper, helix-turn-helix, and helix-loop-helix domains into zinc finger domains.
C)Retrotransposition of mobile sequences.
D)Evolutionary selection for proteins that interfere with nucleosome packing.
E)Genes that "jump" with the help of a transposase.
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Chapter 8: Protein Targeting
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Q1) In glycoproteins, the terminal position in the oligosaccharide is most commonly occupied by:
A)N-acetylglucosamine.
B)Glucose.
C)Mannose.
D)Iduronic acid.
E)N-acetylneuraminic acid.
Q2) The first step in the post-translational processing of secreted proteins in eukaryotes is:
A)Proteolytic removal of the first two or three amino acid residues from the amino terminus by the signal recognition particle.
B)Attachment of a mannose-rich oligopeptide to asparagine side chains.
C)Attachment of mannose-6-phosphate to the protein.
D)Proteolytic cleavage by signal peptidase.
E)Formation of disulfide bonds.
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Chapter 9: Introduction to Genetic Diseases
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Q1) The loss of genes from the short arm of chromosome 5 is known to lead to the severe mental retardation of cri-du-chat syndrome.A chromosome painting probe reveals that you are missing most of the short arm of one copy of your chromosome 5, but this chromosome 5 material is found to be attached to the long arm of chromosome 10.What does this mean?
A)You have cri-du-chat syndrome.
B)This is a benign condition, both for you and your future children.
C)You are probably phenotypically normal, but you can produce mentally retarded children
D)You are probably phenotypically normal, and your children will be at risk of mental retardation only if you produce them with a partner who has the same chromosome aberration.
E)This kind of abnormality is incompatible with life.
Q2) Spending a day on the beach is bad for your skin because sunlight causes:
A)Deamination of bases in the DNA.
B)Formation of pyrimidine dimers.
C)DNA double-stranded breaks.
D)Alkylation reactions that modify the bases.
E)Depurination.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following enzymes are never encoded by viral genes?
A)RNA replicase.
B)Reverse transcriptase.
C)RNA polymerase I.
D)Proteases.
E)Integrase.
Q2) The long terminal repeats of the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) virus are recognized by integrase and help direct the incorporation of viral complementary DNA (cDNA) into the genome.What else are they good for?
A)They encode the matrix and core proteins.
B)They form the primer for reverse transcriptase.
C)They encode reverse transcriptase.
D)They encode the proteins required to process gag-pol.
E)They contain the viral promoter region.
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Chapter 11: DNA Technology
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Q1) PCR and DNA sequencing differ in which of the following requirements?
A)DNA polymerase.
B)An oligonucleotide primer.
C)Deoxynucleoside triphosphates.
D)DNA template.
E)Dideoxynucleoside triphosphates
Q2) RNA interference can be used for experimental and possibly therapeutic purposes.RNA interference is triggered by:
A)Shortening of telomeres in aging cells.
B)Activation of oncogenes in malignant cells.
C)Exposure to viral spike proteins.
D)Double-stranded RNA molecules.
E)DNA-RNA hybrid molecules.
Q3) Which of the following is the most plausible recognition site for a restriction endonuclease?
A)A A G C T T.
B)C G A A G C.
C)T G C T G C.
D)A A G G C C.
E)T A C G T A.
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Chapter 12: Biological Membranes
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Q1) How do most integral membrane proteins interact with the lipid bilayer?
A)By covalent attachment to a glycosylphosphatidylinositol anchor.
B)Through covalently bound fatty acids.
C)By electrostatic interactions with the head groups of membrane lipids.
D)By a little piece of hydrophobic a helix that traverses the lipid bilayer.
E)By hydrogen bonds with the head groups of membrane lipids.
Q2) Of the following compounds, the one that is most likely to diffuse across a lipid bilayer by passive diffusion is:
A)Ethanol.
B)Serum albumin.
C)Glucose.
D)Glycine.
E)Sodium ions.
Q3) The mechanism that absorbs glucose from the intestinal lumen can be characterized as:
A)Electroneutral.
B)Facilitated diffusion.
C)Secondary active transport.
D)Antiport.
E)Passive diffusion.
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Chapter 13: The Cytoskeleton
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Q1) During evaluation of a couple for infertility, it turns out that the male partner has a normal sperm count, but his sperm cells are totally immotile.He also has a history of recurrent bronchitis and sinusitis, and when he was a child, the pediatrician had told his mother that his heart was not on the left but on the right side.Abnormalities in which protein could possibly account for these problems?
A)Vinculin.
B)Dynein.
C)Connexin.
D)Cadherin.
E) -Catenin.
Q2) Cells can exchange inorganic ions and small metabolites with neighboring cells in the tissue.This process requires the protein:
A)Vinculin.
B)Dynein.
C)Connexin.
D)Cadherin.
E) -Catenin.
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15
Chapter 14: The Extracellular Matrix
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Q1) When starting a new job in a home for physically handicapped children, the nurse points out a 7-year-old girl who is only 80 cm tall, is wheelchair-bound, and has multiple limb deformities.The nurse tells you that the girl has "glass bones" and had suffered severe fractures on many occasions.This girl most likely has a mutation in one of the genes for:
A)Type I collagen.
B)Type II collagen.
C)Type III collagen.
D)Type IV collagen.
E)Type VII collagen.
Q2) Patients with Hurler syndrome (complete deficiency of -L-iduronidase) have mental deficiency in addition to physical deformities, corneal clouding, and valvular heart disease.Their mental deficiency is caused by the accumulation of:
A) -L-iduronic acid.
B)Heparan sulfate.
C)Chondroitin sulfate.
D)Hyaluronic acid.
E)Keratan sulfate.
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Chapter 15: Plasma Proteins
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Q1) A patient presents with "blood" in the urine, but you are not sure whether the abnormal substance in the urine is hemoglobin or myoglobin.A blood test for which of the following proteins should help you to arrive at the correct conclusion?
A)Haptoglobin.
B)Ferritin.
C)Transferrin.
D) 1-Antiprotease.
E)Hemoglobin.
Q2) Antithrombin III is a circulating protease inhibitor that becomes active in the presence of:
A)Thromboplastin.
B)Thrombomodulin.
C)Heparin.
D)Vitamin K.
E)Urokinase.
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Chapter 16: Extracellular Messengers
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Q1) Thromboxane is formed in platelets, where it promotes platelet activation.The formation of thromboxane can be suppressed by inhibitors of:
A)21-Hydroxylase.
B)5a-Reductase.
C)Lipoxygenase.
D)Desmolase.
E)Cyclooxygenase.
Q2) Renin plays a role in blood pressure regulation.What exactly does it do?
A)Contracts blood vessels and thereby raises the blood pressure.
B)Degrades angiotensin.
C)Makes angiotensin.
D)Prevents the degradation of bradykinin.
E)Stimulates the bone marrow, thereby increasing the blood volume and raising the blood pressure.
Q3) Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of:
A)Prostacyclin.
B)Leukotrienes.
C)Platelet-activating factor.
D)Bradykinin.
E)Free arachidonic acid from membrane lipids.
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Chapter 17: Intracellular Messengers
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Q1) IP is a second messenger of many hormones.To form this second messenger, which enzyme is needed?
A)Phosphodiesterase.
B)Protein kinase C.
C)Protein kinase B.
D)Phospholipase C.
E)Ras.
Q2) Glucagon can induce gene transcription in the liver.How?
A)It is translocated to the nucleus, where it binds to response elements in the regulatory sequences of the genes.
B)It triggers cAMP formation, and cAMP activates genes by binding to the catabolite activator protein.
C)It releases calcium from the ER, which activates protein kinase C in the nucleus.
D)It causes phosphorylation of nuclear transcription factors by protein kinase A.
E)It induces the formation of the second messenger IP3, which activates transcription by binding to nuclear transcription factors.
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Chapter 18: Cellular Growth Control and Cancer
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Q1) Constitutive activation of the Ras protein is observed in many cancers.Which type of abnormality in the Ras protein is most likely to cause cancer?
A)Mutation of the site that is normally phosphorylated by the MAP kinases.
B)Mutation of the site that is normally phosphorylated by protein kinase A.
C)Inability to hydrolyze bound guanosine triphosphate (GTP).
D)Inability to bind GTP.
E)Inability to activate the protein kinase Raf.
Q2) Breast cancer is diagnosed in a 62-year-old woman.She already survived a soft-tissue sarcoma that had been diagnosed and successfully treated when she was 40 years old and an adrenocortical cancer that had been diagnosed and successfully treated when she was 48 years old.She probably has an inherited cancer susceptibility that affects:
A)p53.
B)BRCA1.
C)BRCA2.
D)Neurofibromin.
E)The retinoblastoma protein pRb.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Digestive Enzymes
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Q1) Trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, proelastase, procarboxypeptidases, and prophospholipases are all produced as inactive zymogens.Each of these zymogens can be activated by the enzyme ________, and this normally occurs in ________.
A)Enteropeptidase; the duodenal epithelium.
B)Enteropeptidase; the intestinal lumen.
C)Pepsin; the stomach.
D)Chymotrypsin; the pancreas.
E)Trypsin; the intestinal lumen.
Q2) The bacterial fermentation of undigested carbohydrates in the colon forms not only gas but also a good deal of:
A)Lactose.
B)Fatty acids.
C)Small organic acids.
D)Urea.
E)Ketone bodies.
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Metabolic Pathways
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Q1) Which type of regulation is most likely for the regulated enzymes of energy-generating oxidative pathways?
A)Stimulation by adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
B)Stimulation by adenosine diphosphate (ADP).
C)Stimulation by the reduced form of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH).
D)Feedback inhibition by carbon dioxide.
E)Inhibition by the substrate of the pathway.
Q2) Which is the most likely regulated step in metabolic pathways?
A)The first reaction in the pathway, regardless of whether it is reversible or irreversible.
B)The first irreversible reaction of the pathway.
C)The first endergonic reaction in the pathway.
D)The last reaction of the pathway.
E)The reaction whose enzyme is present in the highest activity in the cell.
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Chapter 21: Glycolysis, Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle, and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) The liver converts a molecule of citric acid, obtained from lemon juice, into succinyl-coenzyme A (CoA).Succinyl-CoA is subsequently used for heme biosynthesis.Approximately, how many ATP (and GTP) molecules can be derived from the conversion of one molecule of citrate to succinyl-CoA? A)3.
B)6.
C)7.
D)9.
E)12.
Q2) Streptococcus pneumoniae is the primary cause of community-acquired pneumonia.In blood plasma, the transcription of the phosphofructokinase-1 gene in S.pneumoniae is reduced to 20% of baseline.If glycolysis is similar in S.pneumoniae and Homo sapiens, what is most likely to result from reduced transcription of the phosphofructokinase-1 gene in the bacteria?
A)Glucose utilization increases.
B)Glucose production from lactate is reduced.
C)The rate of lactate formation increases.
D)The amount of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate increases.
E)The amount of fructose-6-phosphate increases.
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Chapter 22: Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Q1) Glucokinase is used by liver and pancreatic b cells to adjust glucose metabolism to changing levels of blood glucose.This is possible because there is an important difference between glucokinase and the other isoforms of hexokinase:
A)Glucokinase uses ATP as a substrate, but hexokinase does not.
B)Glucokinase has a higher Km value for glucose than does hexokinase.
C)Glucokinase has a maximal reaction rate (Vmax) that changes with the blood glucose concentration.
D)Glucokinase uses both glucose and fructose as substrates, whereas the other forms of hexokinase can use only glucose.
E)Glucokinase is located on the cell surface, whereas the other forms of hexokinase are cytoplasmic.
Q2) Which liver enzyme is activated by insulin to stimulate glycogen deposition by glycogen synthase?
A)Phosphofructokinase-2.
B)Protein phosphatase-1.
C)Protein kinase A.
D)Protein kinase C.
E)Calmodulin-dependent protein kinase.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Metabolism of Fatty Acids and Triglycerides
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Q1) In adipocytes, protein kinase A activates lipolysis by phosphorylating two proteins.These proteins are:
A)Lecithin-cholesterol acyl transferase (LCAT) and leptin.
B)Gs proteins and protein kinase C.
C)Signal transducer and activator of transcription (STAT) proteins and phospholipase A2.
D)Hormone-sensitive adipose tissue lipase and perilipin.
E)Protein kinase C and triglyceride transfer protein.
Q2) A student who lives on only soft drinks and chocolate bars will have very little -oxidation of fatty acids in his liver.Why?
A)Phosphofructokinase-1 is inhibited by high glucose-6-phosphate levels.
B)Acetyl-CoA carboxylase is inhibited by high citrate levels.
C)Carnitine-acyl transferase-1 is inhibited by high malonyl-CoA levels.
D)Hepatic lipase is inhibited by high glucagon levels.
E)Pyruvate dehydrogenase activity is inhibited by high citrate levels.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Metabolism of Membrane Lipids
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Q1) A 5-year-old girl presents with hepatosplenomegaly, abnormal bleeding, defects in long bone development, and neurological dysfunction.A liver biopsy reveals an accumulation of glucocerebroside.These symptoms indicate the child is suffering from:
A)Fabry disease.
B)Niemann-Pick disease.
C)Krabbe disease.
D)Gaucher disease.
E)Hurler syndrome.
Q2) A pregnant woman mentions that 2 years ago, her first child died 2 weeks after birth because the newborn's "lungs were immature" at birth.Because you are planning a cesarean section, you want to determine first whether there is a risk of respiratory problems for her current baby.Which of the following results from an analysis of the mother's amniotic fluid would indicate a high risk?
A)A low ratio of free cholesterol/cholesterol esters.
B)An elevated glucose level.
C)A low lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio.
D)An elevated level of phosphatidylglycerol.
E)A reduced level of platelet-activating factor.
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Chapter 25: Lipid Transport
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Q1) Excess cholesterol needs to be transported to the liver because it cannot be metabolized in most extrahepatic tissues.This "reverse" transport of cholesterol requires a lipoprotein that is not required for other routes of cholesterol transport.This lipoprotein is:
A)Intermediate-density lipoprotein (IDL).
B)Low-density lipoprotein (LDL).
C)High-density lipoprotein (HDL).
D)Very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL).
E)Lipoprotein(a).
Q2) A 33-year-old man is found to have tendon xanthomas.When questioned about his lifestyle, he says that he exercises regularly, eats balanced meals, and is not in any physical distress.A blood analysis reveals a plasma total cholesterol level of 350 mg/dL and a triglyceride level of 70 mg/dL.He is treated with cholestyramine and a statin and sent for further analysis.His hyperlipidemia is best classified as:
A)Type I.
B)Type V.
C)Type III.
D)Type IV.
E)Type IIa.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Amino Acid Metabolism
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Q1) Quantitatively, the major metabolic fate of glycine in the body is:
A)Conversion to serine by addition of a one-carbon unit from tetrahydrofolate.
B)Transamination and oxidation to oxalic acid.
C)Cleavage to carbon dioxide, ammonia, and a one-carbon group on tetrahydrofolate.
D)Use for heme biosynthesis by d-aminolevulinate synthetase.
E)Use for the synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides.
Q2) Coconut protein is biologically inferior because it is lacking many essential amino acids.In your efforts to make transgenic coconuts with protein of high biological value, you should definitely ensure that your coconut protein has an adequate amount of:
A)Glutamine.
B)Arginine.
C)Phenylalanine.
D)Tyrosine.
E)Serine.
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Chapter 27: Heme Metabolism
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Q1) A newborn is found to have persistent jaundice that does not resolve spontaneously even 4 weeks after birth.Repeated blood tests show an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, with bilirubin levels of 8 to 15 mg/dL on different occasions.Finally, treatment with phenobarbital succeeds in bringing the bilirubin level to less than 4 mg/dL.This disorder is most likely:
A)Dubin-Johnson syndrome.
B)Gilbert syndrome.
C)Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II.
D)Rotor syndrome.
E)Megaloblastic anemia.
Q2) Very small quantities of urobilinogen are normally found in the urine.In the clinical laboratory, urinary urobilinogen is useful for differentiating between types of jaundice.Specifically, you have to expect the following levels in patients with acute hepatitis (but without cholestasis), severe hemolysis, and cholestasis (biliary obstruction):
A)Hemolysis: reduced; hepatitis: reduced; cholestasis: elevated.
B)Hemolysis: absent; hepatitis: elevated; cholestasis: absent.
C)Hemolysis: elevated; hepatitis: elevated; cholestasis: elevated.
D)Hemolysis: elevated; hepatitis: elevated; cholestasis: absent.
E)Hemolysis: elevated; hepatitis: reduced; cholestasis: reduced.
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Chapter 28: The Metabolism of Purines and Pyrimidines
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8 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 1-year-old boy has a history of recurrent bacterial and fungal infections.Further testing shows increased concentrations of deoxyadenosine triphosphate (dATP) in white blood cells.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A)Adenosine deaminase deficiency.
B)Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.
C)Orotic aciduria.
D)Purine-nucleoside phosphorylase deficiency.
E)Xanthine oxidase deficiency.
Q2) For cancer patients, folic acid deficiency can be a good thing because the cancer cells need folate coenzymes for rapid DNA replication.Which of the following cancer chemotherapeutic agents induces a deficiency of folate coenzymes?
A)Methotrexate.
B)Actinomycin D.
C)Asparaginase.
D)Azaserine.
E)Colchicine.
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Chapter 29: Vitamins and Minerals
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vitamin deficiencies are rarely seen in newborns.However, one vitamin that should be given shortly after birth to prevent any risk of deficiency is:
A)Vitamin A.
B)Niacin.
C)Riboflavin.
D)Vitamin K.
E)Biotin.
Q2) On your arrival in a refugee camp in a nation undergoing civil war, you notice that many people in the camp have severe skin lesions on parts of the body that are exposed to the sun.The residents of the camp have to subsist on maize and cassava, everything else having been confiscated by the military.The vitamin deficiency that is the most likely cause of these skin lesions is:
A)Thiamin.
B)Niacin.
C)Biotin.
D)Folic acid.
E)Vitamin E.
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Chapter 30: Integration of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) When you wake up in the morning, 12 hours after supper, the main source of blood glucose is:
A)Dietary glucose from the intestine.
B)Muscle glycogen.
C)Gluconeogenesis from amino acids.
D)Liver glycogen.
E)Gluconeogenesis from glycerol.
Q2) Infectious illnesses can precipitate ketoacidosis in patients with insulin-dependent diabetes.The reason for this is:
A)Excessive formation of ketone bodies by cells of the immune system.
B)Reduced food intake by the ill patient.
C)Stimulation of lipolysis in adipose tissue by cortisol and epinephrine.
D)Impaired function of the insulin-secreting cells during fever.
E)Excessive glycogen synthesis in response to cytokines.
Q3) Mrs.Keller weighs 50 kg and is 1.5 m tall.This means she is considered:
A)Obese.
B)Overweight.
C)Normal.
D)Underweight.
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