Pharmacology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pharmacology is the scientific study of drugs, including their origins, chemical properties, effects on living organisms, mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, and potential side effects. This course explores how drugs interact with biological systems, emphasizing the relationship between drug concentration and effect, the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of medications, and how these processes influence drug efficacy and safety. Students will gain a foundational understanding of both the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of various drug classes, preparing them to make informed decisions in clinical and research settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology 3rd Edition by George M. Brenner
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pharmacology
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Q1) A patient is administered a drug in the form of a tablet formulated with an osmotic substance that slowly attracts water.Which characteristic is associated with this preparation?
A) used to treat constipation
B) enables almost 100% bioavailability
C) poses more risks than intramuscular administration
D) causes a localized effect on the colon
E) provides sustained drug absorption over many hours
Answer: E
Q2) Which endeavor is most important for determining the dose-response relationship of a drug?
A) isolation of a pure drug compound
B) measurement of the plasma concentration of a drug over time
C) clinical trials to determine drug efficacy
D) study of the structure-activity relationship of a drug
E) development of a sustained-release formulation of a drug
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics
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Q1) Which description best characterizes drug metabolism involving conjugation of a drug with glucuronate?
A) reduces the rate of biliary drug excretion
B) increases the rate of renal drug excretion
C) typically increases the pharmacologic activity of the drug
D) primarily occurs in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E) often induced or inhibited by other drugs
Answer: B
Q2) A drug with a first-order elimination rate constant of 0.23 L/hour is administered by continuous intravenous infusion.About how long will it take to achieve a steady-state plasma drug concentration?
A) 5 hours
B) 10 hours
C) 15 hours
D) 30 hours
E) 50 hours
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Pharmacodynamics
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Q1) A patient exhibits a rapid loss of responsiveness to a drug during the first several hours of drug administration.Which event is most likely responsible for this effect?
A) up-regulation of drug metabolizing enzymes
B) down-regulation of drug metabolizing enzymes
C) internalization of cell membrane receptors
D) formation of receptor antibodies
E) phosphorylation of G protein-coupled receptors
Answer: E
Q2) In what way is the log-concentration effect (dose response)curve of an agonist drug modified in the presence of a competitive receptor antagonist?
A) shifted to the right without a change in slope or maximum effect
B) shifted to the left without a change in slope or maximum effect
C) shifted to the right with a decreased slope and maximum effect
D) shifted to the left with a decreased slope and maximum effect
E) not shifted right or left but shows a decreased maximum effect
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Drug Development and Safety
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Q1) The Food and Drug Administration removed a drug product from the market because it contained a toxic contaminant.Which term is used to describe this type of product in the Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act?
A) misbranded
B) mislabeled
C) adulterated
D) off-label
E) teratogenic
Q2) If a generic version of a drug is approved for marketing on the basis of a study comparing the oral bioavailability of the generic and brand name product, which term is associated with the review of this product by the Food and Drug Administration?
A) Harris-Kefauver amendment
B) accelerated drug approval
C) orphan drug amendment
D) abbreviated new drug application
E) investigational new drug
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6
Chapter 5: Introduction to Autonomic and Neuromuscular Pharmacology
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Q1) A child experiences abdominal spasms after a black widow spider bite.Which activity is affected by the toxin contained in its venom?
A) choline reuptake
B) choline acetylation
C) exocytosis
D) cholinesterase
E) receptor activation
Q2) Which neurotransmitter causes vasodilation when released by the enteric nervous system?
A) norepinephrine
B) nitric oxide
C) endothelin
D) neuropeptide Y
E) substance P
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Chapter 6: Acetylcholine Receptor Agonists
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Q1) Which adverse effect may result from administration of bethanechol?
A) dry mouth
B) urinary retention
C) pupil dilation
D) tachycardia
E) diarrhea
Q2) A patient with open-angle glaucoma receives a drug that activates muscarinic receptors in the eye.Which action is responsible for the therapeutic effect of this drug?
A) contraction of ciliary muscle
B) relaxation of ciliary muscle
C) contraction of iris sphincter muscle
D) relaxation of iris sphincter muscle
E) stimulation of lacrimal gland secretion
Q3) Which mechanism is responsible for the therapeutic effect of sildenafil?
A) inhibition of acetylcholine degradation
B) activation of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
C) inhibition of cyclic GMP degradation
D) stimulation of nitric oxide synthesis
E) stimulation of potassium efflux
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Chapter 7: Acetylcholine Receptor Antagonists
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Q1) Cisatracurium is preferred in patients with renal or hepatic impairment because of which property?
A) a short duration of action
B) undergoes spontaneous chemical degradation
C) metabolized by plasma cholinesterase
D) rapidly inactivated by sugammadex
E) effects easily reversed by edrophonium
Q2) For which purpose is glycopyrrolate administered during surgery?
A) reversing the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents
B) increasing blood pressure
C) decreasing respiratory secretions
D) causing bronchodilation
E) potentiating general anesthetics
Q3) Succinylcholine is avoided in persons with skeletal muscle injuries because of the drug's tendency to cause which effect?
A) hyperkalemia
B) hypocalcemia
C) hypernatremia
D) metabolic acidosis
E) prolonged apnea
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Chapter 8: Adrenoceptor Agonists
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Q1) Phenylephrine is contained in many nasal decongestant products.Which action contributes to its therapeutic effect?
A) activation of adenylyl cyclase
B) inhibition of phosphodiesterase
C) activation of phospholipase C
D) activation of nitric oxide synthase
E) inhibition of adenosine deaminase
Q2) A patient with heart failure is given an intravenous dobutamine infusion to reduce impedance to left ventricular ejection.Which receptors mediate this effect of dobutamine?
A) dopamine D receptors
B) -adrenoceptors
C) -adrenoceptors
D) -adrenoceptors
E) -adrenoceptors
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Chapter 9: Adrenoceptor Antagonists
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Q1) A man is placed on doxazosin for hypertension.Which adverse effect is most likely to result from taking this drug?
A) postural hypotension
B) rebound hypertension
C) hypokalemia
D) urinary retention
E) bradycardia
Q2) Which pharmacologic effect is produced by topical ocular administration of timolol?
A) miosis
B) mydriasis
C) contraction of the ciliary muscles
D) decreased aqueous humor secretion
E) conjunctival vasoconstriction
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Chapter 10: Antihypertensive Drugs
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Q1) Which antihypertensive drug is most likely to reduce vascular injury by inhibiting activation of growth factors that cause smooth muscle proliferation and hypertrophy?
A) clonidine
B) terazosin
C) atenolol
D) candesartan
E) nifedipine
Q2) Nitroprusside administration may lead to the accumulation of which toxic compound in the body?
A) formaldehyde
B) bromine
C) cyanide
D) nitrobenzene
E) superoxide
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Chapter 11: Antianginal Drugs
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Q1) A patient is given a drug that decreases anginal episodes without reducing heart rate or blood pressure.Which mechanism is responsible for the beneficial effects of this drug?
A) increased utilization of glucose by the heart
B) improved cardiac diastolic function
C) inhibition of fatty acid oxidation in the heart
D) increased sodium influx into myocytes
E) increased calcium influx into myocytes
Q2) Which drug reduces heart rate and increases coronary blood flow?
A) isosorbide mononitrate
B) atenolol
C) verapamil
D) ranolazine
E) felodipine
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Chapter 12: Drugs for Heart Failure
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Q1) A patient with decompensated heart failure is given an intravenous infusion of a peptide drug.Which effect is produced by this treatment?
A) decreased synthesis of angiotensin II
B) blockade of angiotensin II receptors
C) increased levels of cyclic AMP
D) increased levels of cyclic GMP
E) increased influx of calcium
Q2) Several weeks after beginning treatment for severe heart failure, a man develops hyperkalemia requiring hospitalization.Which agent is most likely responsible for this adverse effect?
A) eplerenone
B) digoxin
C) furosemide
D) dobutamine
E) milrinone
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Chapter 13: Diuretics
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Q1) Which diuretic acts to increase the renal excretion of weakly acidic drugs?
A) spironolactone
B) amiloride
C) acetazolamide
D) furosemide
E) mannitol
Q2) A man with renal stones is found to have hypercalciuria.The drug most likely used to treat this condition blocks which step in nephron function?
A) conversion of bicarbonate to carbon dioxide
B) sodium chloride reabsorption from the distal tubule
C) expression of sodium channel protein in the collecting duct
D) sodium chloride reabsorption from the loop of Henle
E) sodium-potassium exchange in the collecting duct
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Chapter 14: Antiarrhythmic Drugs
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Q1) Esmolol can be rapidly titrated to obtain the desired effect in persons with atrial tachycardia because of which drug property?
A) spontaneous decomposition
B) eliminated by the lungs
C) rapid renal excretion
D) inactivated by plasma esterase
E) sequestered by reticuloendothelial cells
Q2) Because of the risk of serious toxicity, a yearly chest radiogram is required in persons taking which drug?
A) ibutilide
B) sotalol
C) quinidine
D) procainamide
E) amiodarone
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Chapter 15: Drugs for Hyperlipidemia
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Q1) In addition to their beneficial effect on serum LDL-cholesterol levels, atorvastatin and related drugs may reduce coronary heart disease by which mechanism?
A) reducing cholesterol absorption
B) improving vascular endothelial function
C) stimulating lipoprotein lipase
D) increasing lipolysis
E) decreasing appetite
Q2) At what level of serum LDL-cholesterol do persons with symptomatic coronary artery disease benefit from drug therapy to lower these levels?
A) >175 mg/dL
B) >150 mg/dL
C) >100 mg/dL
D) >70 mg/dL
E) They benefit regardless of level.
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Chapter
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Q1) A patient receives a cyclic peptide derived from rattlesnake venom.Which step leading to platelet aggregation is inhibited by this agent?
A) glycoprotein IIb/IIIa expression
B) ADP binding
C) fibrinogen binding
D) cyclic AMP formation
E) 5-hydroxytryptamine synthesis
Q2) Which coagulation factor is inactivated following administration of lepirudin?
A) tissue thromboplastin
B) fibrinogen
C) prothrombin
D) active factor X
E) thrombin
Q3) Which anticoagulant consists of a synthetic antithrombin III-binding pentasaccharide?
A) fondaparinux
B) bivalirudin
C) warfarin
D) heparin
E) enoxaparin
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Chapter 17: Hematopoietic Drugs
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Q1) Using larger doses of recombinant erythropoietin (e.g., epoetin)to achieve hemoglobin levels >12 g/dL is associated with an increased risk of which type of disease?
A) cardiovascular disease
B) renal disease
C) hepatic disease
D) hematologic disease
E) pulmonary disease
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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Q1) Which attribute is most correctly associated with substances known as neuromodulators?
A) produced in the brain but exert effects on other organs
B) affect the activity of only one or a few neurons
C) inhibit the synthesis or degradation of neurotransmitters
D) influence the activity of a large number of neurons
E) modulate the activity of non-neuronal cells in the central nervous system
Q2) Which term is used to describe the effect of a drug that reduces the activity of an inhibitory neuronal system?
A) co-antagonist
B) disinhibition
C) up-regulation
D) delirium
E) metabotropic
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Chapter 19: Sedative-Hypnotic and Anxiolytic Drugs
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Q1) For which reason is lorazepam is one of the safer benzodiazepines for elderly patients?
A) It is excreted unchanged in the urine.
B) It does not cause anterograde amnesia.
C) It is not associated with drug dependence.
D) It is metabolized by glucuronide formation.
E) It has special utility in treating panic disorder.
Q2) Because of its ability to induce -aminolevulinate synthase, phenobarbital should not be taken in persons with which disorder?
A) porphyria
B) homocystinuria
C) pernicious anemia
D) hemophilia
E) hepatitis
Q3) Which attribute is correctly associated with ramelteon?
A) produces considerable daytime sedation
B) may cause rebound insomnia when discontinued
C) has a high abuse potential
D) binds melatonin receptors
E) is a Schedule IV controlled substance
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Chapter 20: Antiepileptic Drugs
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Q1) A woman with epilepsy is instructed to take larger doses of vitamin D than are usually recommended.Which drug is most likely being taken by this patient?
A) valproate
B) phenytoin
C) phenobarbital
D) gabapentin
E) topiramate
Q2) A child whose seizures have been controlled with valproate experiences breakthrough seizures and lamotrigine is being added to the regimen.Which adverse effect is more common in children receiving both drugs?
A) aplastic anemia
B) hepatitis
C) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
D) megaloblastic anemia
E) gingival hyperplasia
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Chapter 21: Local and General Anesthetics
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Q1) Which advantage is associated with etomidate compared to other parenteral anesthetics?
A) produces muscle relaxation
B) causes a high degree of analgesia
C) less likely to cause hypotension
D) has a longer duration of action
E) causes dissociative anesthesia
Q2) The use of prilocaine is limited to topical and infiltration anesthesia because the drug's metabolite may cause which adverse effect?
A) cardiac arrhythmias
B) hepatitis
C) renal impairment
D) myopathy
E) methemoglobinemia
Q3) Which attribute best describes sevoflurane?
A) causes little cardiovascular and respiratory depression
B) more irritating to the respiratory tract than other drugs
C) slower rate of induction than other inhalational agents
D) more potent than other halogenated inhalational anesthetics
E) increases systemic vascular resistance more than other drugs
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Chapter 22: Psychotherapeutic Drugs
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Q1) The efficacy of atomoxetine in persons with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder is due to which mechanism?
A) inhibition of norepinephrine reuptake
B) stimulation of norepinephrine synthesis
C) blockade of adrenoceptors
D) activation of adrenoceptors
E) increased release of norepinephrine
Q2) A woman is placed on an antidepressant that increases neuronal release of norepinephrine.Which mechanism is responsible for this effect?
A) activation of -adrenoceptors
B) blockade of -adrenoceptors
C) activation of serotonin 5-HT receptors
D) blockade of serotonin 5-HT receptors
E) blockade of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
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24
Chapter 23: Opioid Analgesics and Antagonists
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Q1) Which adverse effect may result from administration of buprenorphine to a man who is illicitly taking oxycodone?
A) hypertensive crisis
B) cardiac arrest
C) opioid withdrawal reaction
D) malignant hyperthermia
E) apnea due to depression of respiratory centers
Q2) A woman experiences hallucinations and paranoid ideations after receiving an opioid analgesic in the emergency department.This adverse effect most likely results from activation of which receptors?
A) mu and delta
B) delta and kappa
C) mu and kappa
D) kappa and sigma
E) mu and sigma
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Chapter 24: Drugs for Neurodegenerative Diseases
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Q1) Severe hypomobility ("freezing")reactions in advanced Parkinson's disease may respond rapidly after injection of which drug?
A) apomorphine
B) dopamine
C) ropinirole
D) benztropine
E) tizanidine
Q2) Which agent is useful in persons with multiple sclerosis because it serves as a decoy for myelin-damaging T cells?
A) mitoxantrone
B) natalizumab
C) interferon beta-1b
D) glatiramer
E) prednisone
Q3) Which action is responsible for the therapeutic effects of entacapone?
A) inhibition of monoamine oxidase-type B
B) stimulation of levodopa decarboxylation
C) decreased formation of 3-O-methyldopa
D) increased uptake of dopamine into the brain
E) increased release of dopamine from neurons
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Chapter 25: Drugs of Abuse
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Q1) Which statement most accurately describes prescription drug abuse?
A) a growing problem associated with significant morbidity and mortality
B) incidence has decreased over the past two decades
C) rarely leads to emergency department visits or accidental overdose
D) the leading cause of accidental death in the United States
E) primarily due to overprescribing by physicians and nurse practitioners
Q2) The neuronal effects of -tetrahydrocannabinol are believed to result from activation of receptors that are coupled with which cellular effect?
A) sodium channel activation
B) calcium channel activation
C) inhibition of adenylyl cyclase
D) inhibition of guanylyl cyclase
E) synthesis of inositol triphosphate
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Chapter 26: Autacoid Drugs
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Q1) Azelastine relieves nasal itching and discharge in persons with allergic rhinitis by antagonism of which receptors?
A) histamine H
B) histamine H
C) serotonin 5-HT
D) serotonin 5-HT
E) serotonin 5-HT
Q2) Which autacoid is associated with the production of inflammation, edema,Pruritus,and cough?
A) serotonin
B) prostaglandin E1
C) endothelin
D) leukotriene B4
E) histamine
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Chapter 27: Drugs for Respiratory Tract Disorders
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Q1) By which mechanism does tiotropium improve respiratory function in patients with emphysema?
A) increasing levels of cyclic AMP in smooth muscle
B) inhibiting vagally mediated bronchoconstriction
C) improving diaphragmatic function and ventilation
D) stimulation of brainstem respiratory centers
E) improving mucociliary clearance
Q2) Dextromethorphan is the most widely used antitussive drug because of which attribute?
A) does not bind to opioid receptors
B) full agonist at opioid receptors
C) partial agonist at opioid receptors
D) antagonist at opioid receptors
E) little effect on the central nervous system
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Chapter 28: Drugs for Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Q1) By which mechanism does lubiprostone relieve some cases of severe idiopathic constipation?
A) blockade of serotonin 5-HT receptors
B) activation of serotonin 5-HT receptors
C) inhibition of fluid reabsorption in the colon
D) stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system
E) activation of chloride channels
Q2) Which event is involved in the inhibition of gastric acid secretion by pantoprazole?
A) blockade of histamine H receptors
B) competitive inhibition of H , K -ATPase
C) formation of an active drug metabolite
D) metabolism by cytochrome P450 2C19
E) stimulation of prostaglandin synthesis
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Chapter 29: Drugs for Headache Disorders
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Q1) Which agent might be used for termination of migraine headache in a woman with coronary artery disease?
A) sumatriptan
B) tramadol
C) valproate
D) dihydroergotamine
E) propranolol
Q2) A patient with frequent migraine headaches desires a drug treatment that has a rapid onset of action but does not require parenteral administration.Which drug best meets these criteria?
A) naratriptan
B) ergotamine
C) dihydroergotamine
D) rizatriptan
E) zolmitriptan
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31
Chapter 30: Drugs for Pain, Inflammation, and Arthritic Disorders
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Q1) Administration of allopurinol produces which effect on serum and urinary levels of uric acid in a patient with gout?
A) increased serum and urinary levels
B) increased serum and decreased urinary levels
C) decreased serum levels and no change in urinary levels
D) decreased serum and urinary levels
E) decreased serum and increased urinary levels
Q2) Abatacept exerts its antirheumatic effects by binding to which molecular target?
A) interleukin-1 type I receptor
B) tumor necrosis factor-
C) cell surface proteins of T lymphocytes
D) immunoglobulin G rheumatoid factor
E) interleukin-2 transcription factors
Q3) Leflunomide prevents leukocyte proliferation by inhibiting which step in this process?
A) formation of active folate
B) pyrimidine biosynthesis
C) purine biosynthesis
D) ribonucleotide reductase
E) DNA polymerase
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Hypothalamic and Pituitary Drugs
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Q1) Desmopressin is often preferred for treating diabetes insipidus for which reason?
A) convenient once daily oral administration
B) relieves nocturnal enuresis in most patients
C) causes more vasoconstriction than vasopressin
D) It is a potent inhibitor of adenylyl cyclase.
E) selectively activates vasopressin V receptors
Q2) Which agent is most likely to cause an up-regulation of gonadotropin-releasing hormone receptors during long-term administration of the drug?
A) abarelix
B) gonadorelin
C) leuprolide
D) chorionic gonadotropin
E) nafarelin
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33
Chapter 32: Thyroid Drugs
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Q1) Which agent is preferred for controlling symptoms of hyperthyroidism prior to administration of radioactive iodine (¹³¹I)?
A) methimazole
B) propylthiouracil
C) propranolol
D) potassium iodide
E) lithium carbonate
Q2) Which drug causes the most rapid decline in circulating thyroid hormones in persons with thyrotoxicosis?
A) methimazole
B) propylthiouracil
C) propranolol
D) potassium iodide
E) radioactive iodine (¹³¹I)
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34
Chapter 33: Adrenal Steroids and Related Drugs
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Q1) Which drug action prevents precocious sexual development in boys being treated for congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
A) suppression of corticotropin secretion
B) activation of adrenal steroid receptors
C) stimulation of adrenal 11- -hydroxylase
D) stimulation of adrenal 21-hydroxylase
E) inhibition androgen pathway enzymes
Q2) A patient is treated with a drug that increases expression of genes encoding sodium channels and the sodium-potassium ATPase.Which effect will result from this action?
A) increased free water clearance
B) increased sodium excretion
C) increased potassium excretion
D) increased calcium excretion
E) increased aldosterone secretion
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35
Chapter 34: Drugs Affecting Fertility and Reproduction
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Q1) An increased incidence of which adverse effect is associated with transdermal administration of ethinyl estradiol and norelgestromin?
A) venous thromboembolism
B) ectopic pregnancy
C) hypoglycemia
D) irregular menses
E) hirsutism
Q2) The use of low-dose estrogen and progestin oral contraceptives has been associated with a reduced incidence of which cancers?
A) ovarian and breast
B) breast and uterine
C) ovarian and uterine
D) breast, ovarian, and uterine
E) cervical and breast
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Chapter 35: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is placed on a drug that has the same effects as glucagon-like peptide-1.Which adverse effect has been associated with this drug?
A) hyperglycemia
B) hypoglycemia
C) weight gain
D) pancreatitis
E) heart failure
Q2) After skipping a meal, a diabetic woman experiences a hypoglycemic reaction.Which drug is most likely responsible for this effect?
A) metformin
B) sitagliptin
C) pioglitazone
D) acarbose
E) glipizide
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Chapter 36: Drugs Affecting Calcium and Bone
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who are taking both calcium and alendronate to prevent osteoporosis should be advised to take these drugs in which way?
A) separately on alternate days
B) separately at least 2 hours apart
C) separately with different meals
D) together at the same time each day
E) together at bedtime
Q2) A man is treated with a drug that increases the sensitivity of calcium-sensing receptors in the parathyroid gland.Which effects will result from this treatment?
A) decreased PTH secretion and increased serum calcium levels
B) increased PTH secretion and decreased serum calcium levels
C) decreased PTH secretion and decreased serum calcium levels
D) increased PTH secretion and increased serum calcium levels
E) increased PTH secretion and decreased calcium excretion
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Chapter 37: Principles of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy
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Q1) Oseltamivir is used for prophylaxis of which infection during an outbreak of the disease?
A) influenza
B) tuberculosis
C) malaria
D) meningococcal meningitis
E) whooping cough
Q2) Which class of antibiotics is most often used for prophylaxis of surgical infections?
A) penicillins
B) aminoglycosides
C) tetracyclines
D) cephalosporins
E) fluoroquinolones
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Chapter 38: Inhibitors of Bacterial Cell Wall Synthesis
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Q1) After receiving a rapid intravenous infusion of an antibiotic, a man develops hypotension and an erythematous rash.Which drug is most likely responsible for this adverse effect?
A) ceftriaxone
B) ertapenem
C) aztreonam
D) piperacillin
E) vancomycin
Q2) Which attribute is associated with a third-generation cephalosporin that is excreted primarily in the bile?
A) well absorbed from the gut
B) long plasma half-life
C) used to treat Pseudomonas infections
D) may cause platelet dysfunction and bleeding
E) prolongs the QT interval of the electrocardiogram
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Chapter 39: Inhibitors of Bacterial Protein Synthesis
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Q1) Persons receiving intravenous clindamycin should be monitored for the occurrence of which adverse effect?
A) torsades de pointes
B) hearing impairment
C) liver toxicity
D) thrombocytopenia
E) pseudomembranous colitis
Q2) A woman develops an allergic reaction after being treated for a superficial ocular infection.Which agent is most likely responsible for this adverse effect?
A) polymyxin
B) azithromycin
C) neomycin
D) bacitracin
E) chloramphenicol
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Chapter 40: Quinolones, Antifolate Drugs, and Other
Antimicrobial Agents
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Q1) Ciprofloxacin should be taken 2 hours before or after taking nutritional supplements containing which ingredient?
A) folic acid
B) vitamin C
C) potassium
D) iron
E) vitamin D
Q2) Which antimicrobial agent prevents the formation of supercoils in circular bacterial DNA?
A) daptomycin
B) nitrofurantoin
C) polymyxin
D) trimethoprim
E) moxifloxacin
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Chapter 41: Antimycobacterial Drugs
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Q1) The efficacy of clofazimine is partly due to its ability to alter the activity of which type of cells?
A) erythrocytes
B) platelets
C) leukocytes
D) epithelial cells
E) fibroblasts
Q2) Rifabutin is usually combined with which other drugs in the treatment of Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare infections?
A) isoniazid and ethambutol
B) ethambutol and clarithromycin
C) clarithromycin and dapsone
D) clofazimine and pyrazinamide
E) thalidomide and clofazimine
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43
Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs
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Q1) A woman experiences hypopigmented and hyperpigmented macules on her upper body.Which agent is applied topically treat this condition?
A) flucytosine
B) ciclopirox
C) fluconazole
D) caspofungin
E) posaconazole
Q2) A patient receiving drug therapy for invasive candidiasis experiences abnormally colored vision and photophobia.Which other adverse reaction is associated with this drug?
A) hepatitis
B) electrolyte abnormalities
C) peripheral neuropathy
D) renal toxicity
E) QT prolongation
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Chapter 43: Antiviral Drugs
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Q1) A man receives a drug that binds to chemokine co-receptor 5.Which step in viral replication is prevented by this drug?
A) binding of viral glycoprotein120 to host CD4 cells
B) transfer of viral nucleic acid into host cells
C) formation of a DNA copy of viral RNA
D) integration of viral DNA into host cell genome
E) expression of viral proteins
Q2) A woman is placed on a drug that binds HIV reverse transcriptase and is being monitored for drug-induced neuropsychiatric reactions.This drug should not be taken by persons with which condition?
A) cardiac arrhythmia
B) hypercholesterolemia
C) pancreatitis
D) pregnancy
E) diabetic neuropathy
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45
Chapter 44: Antiparasitic Drugs
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Q1) Which drug may cause an acute disulfiram-like reaction if taken concurrently with alcohol?
A) metronidazole
B) primaquine
C) ivermectin
D) albendazole
E) pentamidine
Q2) Which antiprotozoal agent inhibits enzymes involved in glycolipid metabolism in sensitive organisms?
A) nitazoxanide
B) paromomycin
C) miltefosine
D) tinidazole
E) mefloquine
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Chapter 45: Antineoplastic and Immunomodulating Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug reduces the supply of 5,10-methylene-tetrahydrofolate and thereby prevents formation of deoxythymidine monophosphate?
A) mercaptopurine
B) cytarabine
C) fluorouracil
D) hydroxyurea
E) methotrexate
Q2) Which drug increases expression of pro-apoptosis factors and reduces expression of cyclins in chronic myeloid leukemia cells?
A) gemtuzumab ozogamicin
B) imatinib
C) prednisone
D) alemtuzumab
E) fludarabine
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