Pharmacology and Therapeutics for Nursing Practice
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides nursing students with a comprehensive understanding of pharmacology principles and their application in therapeutic nursing care. Emphasis is placed on drug classifications, mechanisms of action, pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, and the safe administration of medications across the lifespan. Students will explore the nurses role in medication management, patient education, assessment of drug efficacy and safety, and prevention of adverse drug reactions. Through case studies and clinical scenarios, learners develop skills to make informed decisions about pharmacological interventions and collaborate effectively within the healthcare team to optimize patient outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition by Lilley
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58 Chapters
791 Verified Questions
791 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Nursing Process and Drug Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medication order reads, "Give ondansetron (Zofran) 4 mg, 30 minutes before beginning chemotherapy to prevent nausea." The nurse notes that the route is missing from the order. What is the nurse's best action?
A) Give the medication intravenously because the patient might vomit.
B) Give the medication orally because the tablets are available in 4-mg doses.
C) Contact the prescriber to clarify the route of the medication ordered.
D) Hold the medication until the prescriber returns to make rounds.
Answer: C
Q2) When giving medications, the nurse will follow the rights of medication administration. The rights include the right documentation, the right reason, the right response, and the patient's right to refuse. Which of these are additional rights?
A) Right drug
B) Right route
C) Right dose
D) Right diagnosis
E) Right time
F) Right patient
Answer: A, B, C, E, F
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Chapter 2: Pharmacologic Principles
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drug dose that delivers 800 mg has a half-life of 5 hours. Identify how much drug will remain in the body after one half-life. _______
Answer: 400 mg
A drug's half-life is the time required for one half of an administered dose of a drug to be eliminated by the body, or the time it takes for the blood level of a drug to be reduced by 50%. Therefore, one half of 800 mg equals 400 mg.
Q2) When monitoring the patient receiving an intravenous infusion to reduce blood pressure, the nurse notes that the patient's blood pressure is extremely low, and the patient is lethargic and difficult to awaken. This would be classified as which type of adverse drug reaction?
A) Adverse effect
B) Allergic reaction
C) Idiosyncratic reaction
D) Pharmacologic reaction
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Lifespan Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a newly admitted 83-year-old patient and determines that the patient is experiencing polypharmacy. Which statement most accurately illustrates polypharmacy?
A) The patient is experiencing multiple illnesses.
B) The patient uses one medication for an illness several times per day.
C) The patient uses over-the-counter drugs for an illness.
D) The patient uses multiple medications simultaneously.
Answer: D
Q2) The nurse is administering drugs to neonates and will consider which factor may contribute the most to drug toxicity?
A) The lungs are immature.
B) The kidneys are small.
C) The liver is not fully developed.
D) Excretion of the drug occurs quickly.
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Cultural, Legal, and Ethical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing facts about pharmacology for a review course. The term legend drug refers to which item?
A) Over-the-counter drugs
B) Prescription drugs
C) Orphan drugs
D) Older drugs
Q2) During a busy night shift, a new nurse administered an unfamiliar medication without checking it in a drug handbook. Later that day, the patient had a severe reaction because he has renal problems, which was a contraindication to that drug. The nurse may be liable for which of these?
A) Medical negligence
B) Nursing negligence
C) Nonmaleficence
D) Autonomy
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6
Chapter 5: Medication Errors: Preventing and Responding
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Sample Questions
Q1) When given a scheduled morning medication, the patient states, "I haven't seen that pill before. Are you sure it's correct?" The nurse checks the medication administration record and verifies that it is listed. Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "It's listed here on the medication sheet, so you should take it."
B) "Go ahead and take it, and then I'll check with your doctor about it."
C) "It wouldn't be listed here if it were not ordered for you!"
D) "Let me check on the order first before you take it."
Q2) During morning medication administration, the nurse discovered an error on the electronic MAR before the medication was given. Which action by the nurse is appropriate for this "near-miss?"
A) Correct the MAR error but say nothing because nothing happened.
B) Notify the pharmacy about the error they almost caused.
C) Report the near-miss using the facility's recommended protocol, and correct the error on the MAR.
D) Report the near-miss to the next shift before the next dose is due.
Q3) Levothyroxine is available in 75-mcg tablet form. Convert this dose to milligram strength. (do not round) _______
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Chapter 6: Patient Education and Drug Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a new prescription for a diuretic has just reviewed with the nurse how to include more potassium in her diet. This reflects learning in which domain?
A) Cognitive
B) Affective
C) Physical
D) Psychomotor
Q2) A 60-year-old patient is on several new medications and expresses worry that she will forget to take her pills. Which action by the nurse would be most helpful in this situation?
A) Teaching effective coping strategies
B) Asking the patient's prescriber to reduce the number of drugs prescribed
C) Assuring the patient that she will not forget once she is accustomed to the routine
D) Assisting the patient with obtaining and learning to use a calendar or pill container
Q3) A patient is to receive prednisone 7.5 mg PO daily. The tablets are available in a 2.5-mg strength. Identify how many tablets will the patient receive. _______
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8
Chapter 7: Over-The-Counter Drugs and Herbal and Dietary Supplements
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has been taking an over-the-counter (OTC) acid-reducing drug because he has had "stomach problems" for several months. He tells the nurse that the medicine helps as long as he takes it, but once he stops it, the symptoms return. Which statement by the nurse is the best advice for this patient?
A) "The over-the-counter drug has helped you, so you should continue to take it."
B) "The over-the-counter dosage may not be strong enough. You should be taking prescription-strength for best effects."
C) "For best results, you need to watch what you eat in addition to taking this drug."
D) "Using this drug may relieve your symptoms, but it does not address the cause. Please make an appointment with your health care provider."
Q2) A patient with a PEG tube is to receive ferrous sulfate, 65 mg per the tube, daily. The medication is available as an elixir, 220 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive per dose? Record your answer using one decimal place.
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9
Chapter 8: Gene Therapy and Pharmacogenomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing principles of genetics. Which of these is a long strand of DNA that is contained within the nuclei of cells?
A) Gene
B) Allele
C) Genome
D) Chromosome
Q2) The nurse is explaining the Human Genome Project to colleagues. Which of these is the main purpose of the Human Genome Project?
A) The study of genetic diseases.
B) The study of genetic traits in humans.
C) The discovery new genetic diseases.
D) To describe the entire genome of a human being.
Q3) A patient will be receiving ranitidine (Zantac) 150 mg twice a day. A liquid form is ordered because the patient cannot swallow pills or capsules; the concentration of the liquid is 15 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive per dose?
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Chapter 9: Photo Atlas of Drug Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is to receive hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 1.5 mg IV push now. The medication comes in a prefilled syringe, 2 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will administer for this dose. _______
Q2) When administering nasal spray, which instruction by the nurse is appropriate?
A) "You will need to blow your nose before I give this medication."
B) "You will need to blow your nose after I give this medication."
C) "When I give this medication, you will need to hold your breath."
D) "You need to sit up for 5 minutes after you receive the nasal spray."
Q3) The nurse needs to administer insulin subcutaneously to an obese patient. Which is the proper technique for this injection?
A) Using the Z-track method
B) Inserting the needle at a 5- to 15-degree angle until resistance is felt
C) Pinching the skin at the injection site, and then inserting the needle to below the tissue fold at a 90-degree angle
D) Spreading the skin tightly over the injection site, inserting the needle, and then releasing the skin
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11
Chapter 10: Analgesic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving gabapentin (Neurontin), an anticonvulsant, but has no history of seizures. The nurse expects that the patient is receiving this drug for which condition?
A) Inflammation pain
B) Pain associated with peripheral neuropathy
C) Depression associated with chronic pain
D) Prevention of seizures
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient who has been admitted to the emergency department for a possible opioid overdose. Which assessment finding is characteristic of an opioid drug overdose?
A) Dilated pupils
B) Restlessness
C) Respiration rate of 6 breaths/min
D) Heart rate of 55 beats/min
Q3) A patient is to receive methadone (Dolophine) 2.5 mg intramuscularly (IM) now. The medication is available in a concentration of 10 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of methadone will be drawn up for this dose. ______
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Chapter 11: General and Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is being prepared for an oral endoscopy, and the nurse anesthetist reminds him that he will be awake during the procedure but probably will not remember it. What type of anesthetic technique is used in this situation?
A) Local anesthesia
B) Moderate sedation
C) Topical anesthesia
D) Spinal anesthesia
Q2) During a fishing trip, a patient pierced his finger with a large fishhook. He is now in the emergency department to have it removed. The nurse anticipates that which type of anesthesia will be used for this procedure?
A) No anesthesia
B) Topical benzocaine spray on the area
C) Topical prilocaine/lidocaine (EMLA) cream around the site
D) Infiltration of the puncture wound with lidocaine
Q3) A patient is to receive midazolam (Versed) 2 mg IV push over 2 minutes just before an endoscopy procedure. The medication is available in a strength of 1 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of medication will the nurse draw up into the syringe for this dose.
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Chapter 12: Central Nervous System Depressants and Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking flurazepam (Dalmane) three to four nights a week for sleeplessness. She is concerned that she cannot get to sleep without taking the medication. What nonpharmacologic measures should the nurse suggest to promote sleep for this patient?
A) Providing a quiet environment
B) Exercising before bedtime to become tired
C) Consuming heavy meals in the evening to promote sleepiness
D) Drinking hot tea or coffee just before bedtime
Q2) Ramelteon (Rozerem) is prescribed for a patient with insomnia. The nurse checks the patient's medical history, knowing that this medication is contraindicated in which disorder?
A) Coronary artery disease
B) Renal insufficiency
C) Liver disease
D) Anemia
Q3) A patient is about to receive pentobarbital (Nembutal) 100 mg IV as preoperative sedation. The medication is available in a concentration of 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive for this dose?
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Chapter 13: Central Nervous System Stimulants and Related Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a new prescription for phentermine (Ionamin) as part of the treatment for weight loss. Which information will the nurse include when teaching this patient about a stimulant such as phentermine?
A) Take this medication after meals.
B) Take this medication in the morning.
C) This drug is taken along with supervised exercise and suitable diet.
D) Use mouth rinses, sugarless gum, or hard candies to minimize dry mouth.
E) Avoid foods that contain caffeine, such as coffee, tea, and colas.
Q2) A 22-year-old nursing student has been taking NoDoz (caffeine) tablets for the past few weeks to "make it through" the end of the semester and exam week. She is in the university clinic today because she is "exhausted." What human needs statement may be appropriate for her?
A) Altered oxygenation need
B) Altered physical activity
C) Altered need for sleep
D) Altered food intake
Q3) The order reads, "Give atomoxetine (Strattera) 0.5 mg/kg/day once daily in the morning before school." The child weighs 88 pounds. Identify how many milligrams will be administered per dose. _______
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Antiepileptic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is experiencing status epilepticus. The nurse prepares to give which drug of choice for the treatment of this condition?
A) Diazepam (Valium)
B) Midazolam (Versed)
C) Valproic acid (Depakote)
D) Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Q2) The U.S. Food and Drug Administration has issued a warning for users of antiepileptic drugs. Based on this report, the nurse will monitor for which potential problems with this class of drugs?
A) Increased risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors
B) Signs of bone marrow depression
C) Indications of drug addiction and dependency
D) Increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as strokes
Q3) The nurse is reviewing the dosage schedule for several different antiepileptic drugs (AEDs). Which antiepileptic drug allows for once-a-day dosing?
A) Levetiracetam (Keppra)
B) Phenobarbital
C) Valproic acid (Depakote)
D) Gabapentin (Neurontin)
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Antiparkinson Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient taking entacapone (Comtan) for the first time calls the clinic to report a dark discoloration of his urine. After listening to the patient, the nurse realizes that what is happening in this situation?
A) This is a harmless effect of the drug.
B) The patient has taken this drug along with red wine or cheese.
C) The patient is having an allergic reaction to the drug.
D) The ordered dose is too high for this patient.
Q2) The nurse is developing a care plan for a patient who is taking an anticholinergic drug. Which human needs statement would be appropriate for this patient?
A) Altered gastrointestinal elimination (diarrhea)
B) Altered urinary elimination
C) Altered safety needs, risk for infection
D) Altered sleep needs
Q3) The prescriber writes this order, "Give amantadine (Symmetrel) 100 mg per PEG tube twice a day." The medication is available in a liquid form with a concentration 50 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will give with each dose. _______
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Chapter 16: Psychotherapeutic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient is receiving a second-generation antipsychotic drug, such as risperidone (Risperdal), the nurse will monitor for which therapeutic effect?
A) Fewer panic attacks
B) Decreased paranoia and delusions
C) Decreased feeling of hopelessness
D) Improved tardive dyskinesia
Q2) Which statements are true regarding the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
A) Avoid foods and beverages that contain tyramine.
B) Monitor the patient for extrapyramidal symptoms.
C) Therapeutic effects may not be seen for about 4 to 6 weeks after the medication is started.
D) If the patient has been on an MAOI, a 2- to 5-week or longer time span is required before beginning an SSRI medication.
E) These drugs have anticholinergic effects, including constipation, urinary retention, dry mouth, and blurred vision.
F) Cogentin is often also prescribed to reduce the adverse effects that may occur.
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Chapter 17: Substance Use Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in a rehabilitation center is beginning to experience opioid withdrawal symptoms. The nurse expects to administer which drug as part of the treatment?
A) Diazepam (Valium)
B) Methadone
C) Disulfiram (Antabuse)
D) Bupropion (Zyban)
Q2) The nurse is conducting a smoking-cessation program. Which statement regarding drugs used in cigarette-smoking-cessation programs is true?
A) Rapid chewing of the nicotine gum releases an immediate dose of nicotine.
B) Quick relief from withdrawal symptoms is most easily achieved by using a transdermal patch.
C) Compliance with treatment is higher with use of the gum rather than the transdermal patch.
D) The nicotine gum can be used only up to six times per day.
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19
Chapter 18: Adrenergic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 14-year-old patient has been treated for asthma for almost 4 months. Two weeks ago, she was given salmeterol as part of her medication regimen. However, her mother has called the clinic to report that it does not seem to work when her daughter is having an asthma attack. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
A) "It takes time for a therapeutic response to develop."
B) "She is too young for this particular medication; it will be changed."
C) "She needs to take up to two puffs every 4 hours to ensure adequate blood levels."
D) "This medication is indicated for prevention of bronchospasms, not for relief of acute symptoms."
Q2) When an adrenergic drug stimulates beta<sub>1</sub>-adrenergic receptors, the result is an increased force of contraction, which is known as what type of effect?
A) Positive inotropic
B) Antiadrenergic
C) Negative chronotropic
D) Positive dromotropic
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Chapter 19: Adrenergic-Blocking Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a teaching session about self-monitoring while taking a beta blocker at home, the nurse has taught the patient to take his apical pulse daily for 1 minute. If the pulse rate decreases to less than 60 beats/min, the nurse will instruct the patient to do which of these?
A) Notify his prescriber.
B) Reduce the dose of his beta blocker by half.
C) Continue the medication because this is an expected effect.
D) Skip the medication dose that day, and check his pulse again the next day.
Q2) A patient is experiencing Class II heart failure. The nurse expects which beta blocker to be ordered for this patient?
A) Atenolol (Tenormin)
B) Carvedilol (Coreg)
C) Labetalol (Normodyne)
D) Esmolol (Brevibloc)
Q3) A patient has an order for carvedilol (Coreg) 9.375 mg twice a day PO. The tablets are 3.125 mg each. Identify how many tablets will the nurse administer per dose.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Cholinergic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cholinergic drug is prescribed for a patient with a new diagnosis of myasthenia gravis, and the nurse provides instructions to the patient about the medication. What is important to include in the teaching?
A) Give daytime doses close together for maximal therapeutic effect.
B) Take the medication with meals to avoid gastrointestinal distress.
C) Take the medication 30 minutes before eating to improve swallowing and chewing.
D) Take the medication only if difficulty swallowing occurs during a meal.
Q2) A patient is receiving memantine (Namenda) 10 mg PO daily. The patient is unable to swallow pills, so an oral solution that contains 2 mg/mL is ordered. Identify how much will the patient receive per dose. _______
Q3) The nurse notes in a patient's medication history that the patient is taking pilocarpine (Pilocar). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?
A) Anticholinergic poisoning
B) Glaucoma
C) Bladder atony
D) Myasthenia gravis
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Chapter 21: Cholinergic-Blocking Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 72-year-old man has a new prescription for an anticholinergic drug. He is an active man and enjoys outdoor activities, such as golfing and doing his own yard work. What will the nurse emphasize to him during the teaching session about his drug therapy?
A) Drowsiness may interfere with his outdoor activities.
B) Increased salivation may occur during exercise and outside activities.
C) Fluid loss may occur as a result of an increased incidence of diarrhea.
D) He will need to take measures to reduce the occurrence of heat stroke during his activities.
Q2) A patient has received an accidental overdose of intravenous atropine. Which drug will the nurse prepare to administer?
A) Atenolol (Tenormin)
B) Bethanechol (Urecholine)
C) Dicyclomine (Bentyl)
D) Physostigmine (Antilirium)
Q3) A patient is to receive glycopyrrolate (Robinul) 4 mcg/kg IM 30 minutes before a procedure. The patient weighs 110 pounds; the medication is available in a strength of 0.2 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of medication the nurse will draw up into the syringe. _______
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Chapter 22: Antihypertensive Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing for a community education program on hypertension. Which of these parameters determine the regulation of arterial blood pressure?
A) Cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance
B) Heart rate and peripheral resistance
C) Blood volume and renal blood flow
D) Myocardial contractility and arteriolar constriction
Q2) An older adult patient will be taking a vasodilator for hypertension. Which adverse effect is of most concern for the older adult patient taking this class of drug?
A) Dry mouth
B) Restlessness
C) Constipation
D) Hypotension
Q3) When counseling a male patient about the possible adverse effects of antihypertensive drugs, the nurse will discuss which potential problem?
A) Impotence
B) Bradycardia
C) Increased libido
D) Weight gain
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24
Chapter 23: Antianginal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking a beta blocker for 4 weeks as part of his antianginal therapy. He also has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hyperthyroidism. When discussing possible adverse effects, the nurse will include which information?
A) "Watch for unusual weight loss."
B) "Monitor your pulse for increased heart rate."
C) "Use the hot tub and sauna at the gym as long as time is limited to 15 minutes."
D) "Monitor your blood glucose levels for possible hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia."
Q2) A calcium channel blocker (CCB) is prescribed for a patient, and the nurse provides instructions to the patient about the medication. Which instruction is correct?
A) Chew the tablet for faster release of the medication.
B) To increase the effect of the drug, take it with grapefruit juice.
C) If the adverse effects of chest pain, fainting, or dyspnea occur, discontinue the medication immediately.
D) A high-fiber diet with plenty of fluids will help prevent the constipation that may occur.
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Chapter 24: Heart Failure Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) In assessing a patient before administration of a cardiac glycoside, the nurse knows that which lab result can increase the toxicity of the drug?
A) Potassium level 2.8 mEq/L
B) Potassium level 4.9 mEq/L
C) Sodium level 140 mEq/L
D) Calcium level 10 mg/dL
Q2) A patient has a digoxin level of 1.1 ng/mL. Which interpretation by the nurse is correct?
A) It is below the therapeutic level.
B) It is within the therapeutic range.
C) It is above the therapeutic level.
D) It is at a toxic level.
Q3) Which drug classes are considered first-line treatment for heart failure?
A) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
B) Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)
C) Digoxin (cardiac glycoside)
D) Beta blockers
E) Nesiritide (Natrecor), the B-type natriuretic peptide
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Chapter 25: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is in the intensive care unit because of an acute myocardial infarction. He is experiencing severe ventricular dysrhythmias. The nurse will prepare to give which drug of choice for this dysrhythmia?
A) Diltiazem (Cardizem)
B) Verapamil (Calan)
C) Amiodarone (Cordarone)
D) Adenosine (Adenocard)
Q2) A patient is taking procainamide (Pronestyl) for a cardiac dysrhythmia. The nurse will monitor the patient for which possible adverse effect?
A) Bradycardia
B) Shortened QT interval
C) Dyspnea
D) Diarrhea
Q3) The nurse will monitor the patient who has been taking dronedarone (Multaq) for which adverse effect?
A) Decreased white blood cell count
B) Liver toxicity
C) Dehydration
D) Peripheral edema
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Coagulation Modifier Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving heparin therapy as part of the treatment for a pulmonary embolism. The nurse monitors the results of which laboratory test to check the drug's effectiveness?
A) Bleeding times
B) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C) Prothrombin time/international normalized ratio (PT/INR)
D) Vitamin K levels
Q2) The nurse notes in the patient's medication orders that the patient will be starting anticoagulant therapy. What is the primary goal of anticoagulant therapy?
A) Stabilizing an existing thrombus
B) Dissolving an existing thrombus
C) Preventing thrombus formation
D) Dilating the vessel around a clot
Q3) When administering heparin subcutaneously, the nurse will follow which procedure?
A) Aspirating the syringe before injecting the medication
B) Massaging the site after injection
C) Use the same area for each injection.
D) Using a 1/2- to 5/8-inch 25- to 27-gauge needle
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Chapter 27: Antilipemic Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48008
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has recently started therapy on a statin drug asks the nurse how long it will take until he sees an effect on his serum cholesterol. Which statement would be the nurse's best response?
A) "Blood levels return to normal within a week of beginning therapy."
B) "It takes 6 to 8 weeks to see a change in cholesterol levels."
C) "It takes at least 6 months to see a change in cholesterol levels."
D) "You will need to take this medication for almost a year to see significant results."
Q2) When teaching a patient who is beginning antilipemic therapy about possible drug-food interactions, the nurse will discuss which food?
A) Bran muffins
B) Grapefruit juice
C) Licorice
D) Dairy products
Q3) The medication order reads, "Give simvastatin (Zocor) 30 mg daily at bedtime, PO." The medication is available in 20-mg tablets. Identify how many tablets the nurse will administer to the patient. _______
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Chapter 28: Diuretic Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48009
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in the neurologic intensive care unit is being treated for cerebral edema. Which class of diuretic is used to reduce intracranial pressure?
A) Loop diuretics
B) Osmotic diuretics
C) Thiazide diuretics
D) Vasodilators
Q2) When reviewing the mechanisms of action of diuretics, the nurse knows that which statement is true about loop diuretics?
A) They work by inhibiting aldosterone.
B) They are very potent, having a diuretic effect that lasts at least 6 hours.
C) They have a rapid onset of action and cause rapid diuresis.
D) They are not effective when the creatinine clearance decreases below 25 mL/min.
Q3) The nurse will monitor a patient for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia if the patient is taking which of these diuretics?
A) Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)
B) Furosemide (Lasix)
C) Acetazolamide (Diamox)
D) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
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Chapter 29: Fluids and Electrolytes
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15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48010
Sample Questions
Q1) The order reads, "Give 1500 mL of normal saline over 12 hours. The tubing drop factor is 15 gtt/mL." The nurse will set the gravity drip infusion at how many drops per minute (gtt/min). _______
Q2) The nurse is preparing to transfuse a patient with a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Which intravenous solution is correct for use with the PRBC transfusion?
A) 5% dextrose in water (D5W)
B) 0.9% sodium chloride (NS)
C) 5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride (D5NS)
D) 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's solution (D5LR)
Q3) A patient is receiving an infusion of fresh frozen plasma. Based on this order, the nurse interprets that this patient has which condition?
A) Hypovolemic shock
B) Anemia
C) Coagulation disorder
D) Previous transfusion reaction
Q4) An intravenous piggyback (IVPB) antibiotic needs to infuse over 90 minutes. The IVPB bag contains 150 mL. Calculate the setting for the infusion pump. _______
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Chapter 30: Pituitary Drugs
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An 8-year-old child has been diagnosed with true pituitary dwarfism and is being treated with somatropin. In follow-up visits, the nurse will monitor for which expected outcome?
A) Increased growth
B) Decreased urinary output
C) Increased muscle strength
D) Increased height when the child reaches puberty
Q2) A patient is about to receive a dose of octreotide (Sandostatin). The nurse will assess for which contraindications or cautions?
A) Carcinoid crisis
B) Diarrhea
C) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
D) Gallbladder disease
E) Chronic renal failure
F) Esophageal varices
Q3) A patient is to receive vasopressin (Pitressin) 5 units subQ twice a day. The medication is available in a vial that contains 20 units/mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will draw up for this dose. (record answer using two decimal places) _______
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Chapter 31: Thyroid and Antithyroid Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The order reads, "Give levothyroxine (Synthroid), 200 mg, PO once every morning." Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Give the medication as ordered.
B) Change the dose to 200 mcg because that is what the prescriber meant.
C) Hold the drug until the prescriber returns to see the patient.
D) Question the order because the dose is higher than 200 mcg.
Q2) During a teaching session for a patient on antithyroid drugs, the nurse will discuss which dietary instructions?
A) Using iodized salt when cooking
B) Avoiding foods containing iodine
C) Restricting fluid intake to 2500 mL/day
D) Increasing intake of sodium- and potassium-containing foods
Q3) The nurse is giving morning medications. The Medication Administration Record has an order for levothyroxine, 25 mcg PO. The drug-dispensing cabinet contains levothyroxine tablets in milligram strengths instead of micrograms. Calculate the milligram equivalent dose of 25 mcg. _______
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Chapter 32: Antidiabetic Drugs
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After starting treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus 6 months earlier, a patient is in the office for a follow-up examination. The nurse will monitor which laboratory test to evaluate the patient's adherence to the antidiabetic therapy over the past few months?
A) Hemoglobin levels
B) Hemoglobin A1C level
C) Fingerstick fasting blood glucose level
D) Serum insulin levels
Q2) A 75-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes has recently been placed on glipizide (Glucotrol). She asks the nurse when the best time would be to take this medication. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Take this medication in the morning, 30 minutes before breakfast."
B) "Take this medication in the evening with a snack."
C) "This medication needs to be taken after the midday meal."
D) "It does not matter what time of day you take this medication."
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Chapter 33: Adrenal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been admitted for an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and will be receiving methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 30 mg intravenously every 6 hours. The medication is available in 40 mg/mL vials. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse draw up for this dose. _______
Q2) A patient will be starting therapy with a corticosteroid. The nurse reviews the prescriber's orders and notes that an interaction may occur if the corticosteroid is taken with which of these drug classes?
A) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
B) Antibiotics
C) Opioid analgesics
D) Antidepressants
Q3) The nurse is reviewing therapy with glucocorticoid drugs. Which conditions are indications for glucocorticoid drugs?
A) Glaucoma
B) Cerebral edema
C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D) Organ transplantation
E) Varicella
F) Septicemia
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Womens Health Drugs
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman is preparing for a 10 hour trans-Atlantic flight. She has been taking the SERM raloxifene (Evista) for 6 months. The nurse will provide which instructions to this patient?
A) She needs to stop taking the drug at least 72 hours before the trip.
B) She must remember to take this drug with a full glass of water each morning.
C) She will not take the drug while traveling on the plane.
D) No change in how the drug is taken will be needed.
Q2) A patient is being treated for secondary amenorrhea. The nurse expects which drug to be used to treat this problem?
A) Methylergonovine (Methergine)
B) Estradiol transdermal (Estraderm)
C) Raloxifene (Evista)
D) Medroxyprogesterone (Provera)
Q3) The nurse is providing teaching for a patient who is to receive progestin therapy. Which statement is correct to include in the teaching session?
A) "If you miss a dose, double-up on the next dose."
B) "There's no need to be concerned about breast lumps or bumps that occur."
C) "Be sure to report any weight gain of 5 pounds or more per week."
D) "Take the medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption."
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Mens Health Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the administration of finasteride (Proscar), the nurse must remember which important precaution?
A) It must be taken on an empty stomach.
B) It must not be handled by pregnant women.
C) It is given by deep intramuscular injection to avoid tissue irritation.
D) The patient needs to be warned that alopecia is a common adverse effect.
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the medication list of a patient who will be starting androgen therapy. Which drug classes, if taken with androgens, may have an interaction with them?
A) Oral anticoagulants
B) Nitrates
C) Beta blockers
D) Proton pump inhibitors
Q3) A patient will be receiving testosterone cypionate (Depo-Testosterone) 400 mg intramuscularly every 4 weeks. The medication is available in a 200-mg/mL strength. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse draw up for each injection. _______
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse will instruct patients about a possible systemic effect that may occur if excessive amounts of topically applied adrenergic nasal decongestants are used. Which systemic effect may occur?
A) Heartburn
B) Bradycardia
C) Drowsiness
D) Palpitations
Q2) A patient tells the nurse that she wants to start taking the herbal product goldenseal to improve her health. The nurse will assess for which potential cautions or contraindications to goldenseal?
A) Taking a proton-pump inhibitor
B) Nasal congestion
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Taking an antihypertensive drug
E) Sinus infections
F) Pregnancy
Q3) A patient will be receiving diphenhydramine (Benadryl) via a PEG tube, 25 mg, every 8 hours for an allergic rash. The medication is available as a 12.5 mg/5 mL syrup. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse administer with each dose. _______
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will be receiving oral theophylline (Theo-Dur), 600 mg/day, in three divided doses. Identify how many milligrams the patient will receive per dose. _______
Q2) A patient is taking intravenous aminophylline for a severe exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The nurse will assess for which therapeutic response?
A) Increased sputum production
B) Increased heart rate
C) Increased respiratory rate
D) Increased ease of breathing
Q3) When educating a patient recently placed on inhaled corticosteroids, the nurse will discuss which potential adverse effects?
A) Fatigue and depression
B) Anxiety and palpitations
C) Headache and rapid heart rate
D) Oral candidiasis and dry mouth
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Chapter 38: Antibiotics Part 1
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18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48019
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is monitoring a patient who has been on antibiotic therapy for 2 weeks. Today the patient tells the nurse that he has had watery diarrhea since the day before and is having abdominal cramps. His oral temperature is 101° F (38.3° C). Based on these findings, which conclusion will the nurse draw?
A) The patient's original infection has not responded to the antibiotic therapy.
B) The patient is showing typical adverse effects of antibiotic therapy.
C) The patient needs to be tested for Clostridium difficile infection.
D) The patient will need to take a different antibiotic.
Q2) A patient will be receiving penicillin G potassium, 12 million units daily in divided doses every 4 hours IVPB. Identify how many units the patient will receive for each dose each day. _______
Q3) The nurse is providing teaching to a patient taking an oral tetracycline antibiotic. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Avoid direct sunlight and tanning beds while on this medication."
B) "Milk and cheese products result in increased levels of tetracycline."
C) "Antacids taken with the medication help to reduce gastrointestinal distress."
D) "Take the medication until you are feeling better."
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Chapter 39: Antibiotics Part 2
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE). The nurse expects to see orders for which drug?
A) Dapsone (Cubicin), a miscellaneous antibiotic
B) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro), a quinolone
C) Linezolid (Zyvox), an oxazolidinone
D) Colistimethate sodium (Coly-Mycin), a polypeptide antibiotic
Q2) The nurse is administering a vancomycin (Vancocin) infusion. Which measure is appropriate for the nurse to implement in order to reduce complications that may occur with this drug's administration?
A) Monitoring blood pressure for hypertension during the infusion
B) Discontinuing the drug immediately if red man syndrome occurs
C) Restricting fluids during vancomycin therapy
D) Infusing the drug over at least 1 hour
Q3) Which problem may occur in a patient who has started aminoglycoside therapy?
A) Constipation
B) Renal damage
C) Gynecomastia
D) Leukocytosis
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Chapter 40: Antiviral Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking a combination of antiviral drugs as treatment for early stages of a viral infection. While discussing the drug therapy, the patient asks the nurse if the drugs will kill the virus. When answering, the nurse keeps in mind which fact about antiviral drugs?
A) They are given for palliative reasons only.
B) They will be effective as long as the patient is not exposed to the virus again.
C) They can be given in large enough doses to eradicate the virus without harming the body's healthy cells.
D) They may also kill healthy cells while killing viruses.
Q2) An infant has been hospitalized with a severe lung infection caused by the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and will be receiving medication via the inhalation route. The nurse expects which drug to be used?
A) Acyclovir (Zovirax)
B) Ganciclovir (Cytovene)
C) Amantadine (Symmetrel)
D) Ribavirin (Virazole)
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42
Chapter 41: Antitubercular Drugs
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11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has started drug therapy for tuberculosis wants to know how long he will be on the medications. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Drug therapy will last until the symptoms have stopped."
B) "Drug therapy will continue until the tuberculosis develops resistance."
C) "You should expect to take these drugs for as long as 24 months."
D) "You will be on this drug therapy for the rest of your life."
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a patient who is taking isoniazid (INH). Which drug or drug class has a significant drug interaction with isoniazid?
A) Pyridoxine (vitamin B<sub>6</sub>)
B) Penicillins
C) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
D) Benzodiazepines
Q3) The nurse will assess the patient for which potential contraindication to antitubercular therapy?
A) Glaucoma
B) Anemia
C) Heart failure
D) Hepatic impairment
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is administering one of the lipid formulations of amphotericin B. When giving this drug, which concept is important to remember?
A) The lipid formulations may be given in oral form.
B) The doses are much lower than the doses of the older drugs.
C) The lipid formulations are associated with fewer adverse effects than the older drugs.
D) There is no difference in cost between the newer and older forms.
Q2) The nurse is administering an amphotericin B infusion. Which actions by the nurse are appropriate?
A) Administering the medication by rapid IV infusion
B) Discontinuing the drug immediately if the patient develops tingling and numbness in the extremities
C) If adverse effects occur, reducing the IV rate gradually until they subside
D) Using an infusion pump for IV therapy
E) Monitoring the IV site for signs of phlebitis and infiltration
F) Administering premedication for fever and nausea
G) Knowing that the intravenous solution for amphotericin B will be cloudy
H) Knowing that muscle twitching may indicate hypokalemia
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Page 44
Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with late-stage HIV infection also has Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. The nurse anticipates treatment with which medication for this pneumonia?
A) Ivermectin (Stromectol)
B) Atovaquone (Mepron)
C) Praziquantel (Biltricide)
D) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
Q2) A patient has an infestation with flukes (trematodes). The nurse anticipates the use of which drug to treat this infestation?
A) Praziquantel (Biltricide)
B) Pyrantel (Pin-X)
C) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
D) Ivermectin (Stromectol)
Q3) A patient is experiencing the exoerythrocytic phase of malaria. The nurse expects which drug to be used for this patient?
A) Quinine
B) Chloroquine (Aralen)
C) Mefloquine (Lariam)
D) Primaquine
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Chapter 44: Anti-Inflammatory and Antigout Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 6-year-old child who has chickenpox also has a fever of 102.9° F (39.4° C). The child's mother asks the nurse if she should use aspirin to reduce the fever. What is the best response by the nurse?
A) "It's best to wait to see if the fever gets worse."
B) "You can use the aspirin, but watch for worsening symptoms."
C) "Acetaminophen (Tylenol) should be used to reduce his fever, not aspirin."
D) "You can use aspirin, but be sure to follow the instructions on the bottle."
Q2) There is a new order for Naproxen (Naprosyn) 250 mg PO twice daily. The drug is available as an oral suspension that contains 125 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will administer for 1 dose of this medication. _______
Q3) A patient who has a history of coronary artery disease has been instructed to take one 81-mg aspirin tablet a day. The patient asks about the purpose of this aspirin. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Aspirin is given reduce anxiety."
B) "It helps to reduce inflammation."
C) "Aspirin is given to relieve pain."
D) "It will help to prevent clot formation."
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 1: Cancer Overview and
Cell Cycle-Specific Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is evaluating the laboratory results of a patient who has received chemotherapy. The loss of which blood cell leads to lack of energy, fatigue, intolerance of activity and hypoxemia?
A) White blood cells
B) Red blood cells
C) Platelets
D) Albumin
Q2) A patient is receiving high doses of methotrexate and is experiencing severe bone marrow suppression. The nurse expects which intervention to be ordered with this drug to reduce this problem?
A) A transfusion of whole blood
B) Leucovorin rescue
C) Therapy with filgrastim (Neupogen)
D) Administration of allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Q3) A patient is to receive a daily dose of fludarabine (Fludara), 25 mg/m²/day for 5 consecutive days. Each dose is diluted in a 125-mL bag of normal saline and is to infuse over 30 minutes. The nurse will set the infusion pump to what rate in milliliters per hour?
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Chapter 46: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 2: Cell
Cyclenonspecific Drugs and Miscellaneous Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Just before the second course of chemotherapy, the laboratory calls to report that the patient's neutrophil count is 450 cells/mm³. The nurse expects that the oncologist will follow which course of treatment?
A) Chemotherapy will continue as scheduled.
B) Chemotherapy will resume with a lowered dosage.
C) Chemotherapy will resume after a transfusion of neutrophils.
D) Chemotherapy will be withheld until the neutrophil count returns toward normal levels.
Q2) A patient will be receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone), 12 mg/m²/day every 3 weeks, as part of treatment for prostate cancer. Each dose is mixed into a 50-mL bag of D W and needs to infuse over 15 minutes. The infusion pump delivers the dose at milliliters per hour. Identify the nurse will set the pump to infuse at what rate. _______
Q3) A patient is receiving doxorubicin (Adriamycin) as part of treatment for ovarian cancer. Which of these is a possible adverse effect of doxorubicin?
A) Cardiotoxicity
B) Pulmonary toxicity
C) Neurotoxicity
D) Hyperuricemia
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Chapter 47: Biologic Responsemodifying and Antirheumatic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aldesleukin [IL-2] (Proleukin) is prescribed for a patient. The nurse reviews the patient's medication list and would note a potential drug interaction if which drug class is also ordered?
A) Anticoagulants
B) Antiepileptic drugs
C) Oral hypoglycemic drugs
D) Antihypertensive drugs
Q2) During a patient's therapy with interleukins, the nurse monitors the patient for capillary leak syndrome. Which assessment finding, if present, would indicate this problem?
A) Bradycardia
B) A dry cough
C) Bruising on the skin
D) A sudden, 15-pound weight gain
Q3) A patient is to receive filgrastim (Neupogen) 5 mcg/kg/day. The patient weighs 198 pounds. Identify how many micrograms of medication this patient will receive each day.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Immunosuppressant Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer an injection of monoclonal antibodies. Which additional drug will the nurse administer to minimize adverse reactions to the monoclonal antibodies?
A) A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug
B) A benzodiazepine
C) An opioid pain reliever
D) A corticosteroid
Q2) A patient with multiple sclerosis will be starting therapy with an immunosuppressant drug. The nurse expects that which drug will be used?
A) Azathioprine (Imuran)
B) Glatiramer acetate (Copaxone)
C) Daclizumab (Zenapax)
D) Sirolimus (Rapamune)
Q3) When monitoring a patient who is on immunosuppressant therapy with azathioprine (Imuran), the nurse will monitor which laboratory results?
A) Serum potassium levels
B) White blood cell (leukocyte) count
C) Red blood cell count
D) Serum albumin levels
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Immunizing Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is in the urgent care center after experiencing a black widow spider bite. The nurse prepares to give which product to treat this injury?
A) Live vaccine
B) Antivenins or antisera
C) Tetanus immune globulin
D) Active immunizing drug
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the health history of a new patient who may need immunizations. Active immunizations are usually contraindicated in which patients?
A) Patients with a febrile illness
B) Children younger than 1 year of age
C) Elderly patients
D) Patients who are immunosuppressed
E) Those receiving cancer chemotherapy
Q3) A health care worker will be receiving hepatitis B immunoglobulin (BayHep B), 0.06 mL/kg IM now and repeated in 30 days as part of hepatitis B prophylaxis after a needle stick accident. The patient weighs 264 pounds. Identify how many milliliters the patient will receive for each dose. (record answer using one decimal place) _______
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Chapter 50: Acid-Controlling Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will be receiving pantoprazole (Protonix), 20 mg IV daily every morning. The medication, once reconstituted, has a strength of 40 mg/10 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will draw up for this dose. _______
Q2) A patient is taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). The nurse will include which statement in the teaching plan about this medication?
A) "Take this medication once a day after breakfast."
B) "You will be on this medication for only 2 weeks for treatment of the reflux disease."
C) "The medication may be dissolved in a liquid for better absorption."
D) "The entire capsule must be taken whole, not crushed, chewed, or opened."
Q3) The nurse is reviewing the medication orders for a patient who will be taking an H<sub>2</sub> antagonist. Which drug may have an interaction if taken along with the H<sub>2</sub> antagonist?
A) Ibuprofen
B) Ranitidine
C) Tetracycline
D) Ketoconazole
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Chapter 51: Bowel Disorder Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been treated with alosetron (Lotronex) for severe irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) for 2 weeks. She calls the clinic and tells the nurse that she has been experiencing constipation for 3 days. The nurse will take which action?
A) Advise the patient to increase intake of fluids and fiber.
B) Advise the patient to hold the drug for 2 days.
C) Instruct the patient to stop taking the drug and to come to the clinic right away to be evaluated.
D) Instruct the patient to continue the alosetron and to take milk of magnesia for the constipation.
Q2) A patient who has been on antibiotic therapy for 2 weeks has developed persistent diarrhea. The nurse expects which medication class to be ordered to treat this diarrhea?
A) Lubricants
B) Adsorbents
C) Anticholinergics
D) Probiotics
Q3) A 10-year-old child will be receiving docusate sodium (Colace), 120 mg/day PO, divided into 3 doses. Identify how many milligrams will the child receive per dose.
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Chapter 52: Antiemetic and Antinausea Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is on a chemotherapy regimen in an outpatient clinic and is receiving a chemotherapy drug that is known to be highly emetogenic. The nurse will implement which interventions regarding the pharmacologic management of nausea and vomiting?
A) Giving antinausea drugs at the beginning of the chemotherapy infusion
B) Administering antinausea drugs 30 to 60 minutes before chemotherapy is started
C) For best therapeutic effects, medicating for nausea once the symptoms begin
D) Observing carefully for the adverse effects of restlessness and anxiety
E) Instructing the patient that the antinausea drugs may cause extreme drowsiness
F) Instructing the patient to rise slowly from a sitting or lying position because of possible orthostatic hypotension
Q2) A patient is receiving a tube feeding through a gastrostomy. The nurse expects that which type of drug will be used to promote gastric emptying for this patient?
A) Prokinetic drugs, such as metoclopramide (Reglan)
B) Serotonin blockers, such as ondansetron (Zofran)
C) Anticholinergic drugs, such as scopolamine (Transderm-Scop)
D) Neuroleptic drugs, such as chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
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Chapter 53: Vitamins and Minerals
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14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48034
Sample Questions
Q1) A newly admitted patient has orders for a zinc supplement. The nurse reviews the patient's medical history and concludes that the zinc is ordered for which reason?
A) To treat pellagra
B) To aid in wound healing
C) To treat osteomalacia
D) As an antidote for anticoagulant overdose
Q2) The nurse is reviewing conditions caused by nutrient deficiencies. Conditions such as infantile rickets, tetany, and osteomalacia are caused by a deficiency in which vitamin or mineral?
A) Vitamin D
B) Vitamin C
C) Zinc
D) Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B<sub>12</sub>)
Q3) A patient will be receiving monthly injections of cyanocobalamin (Nascobal). The dose is 100 mcg/month IM. The medication is available in a strength of 1000 mcg/mL.
Identify how many milliliters the nurse will draw up into the syringe. (record answer using one decimal place) _______
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Chapter 54: Anemia Drugs
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18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48035
Sample Questions
Q1) During therapy with the hematopoietic drug epoetin alfa (Epogen), the nurse instructs the patient about adverse effects that may occur, such as:
A) anxiety.
B) drowsiness.
C) hypertension.
D) constipation.
Q2) The nurse is administering intravenous iron dextran for the first time to a patient with anemia. After giving a test dose, how long will the nurse wait before administering the remaining portion of the dose?
A) 30 minutes
B) 1 hour
C) 6 hours
D) 24 hours
Q3) A patient will be receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) 8000 units IV three times a week. The medication is available in a vial that contains 10,000 units/mL. How many milliliters will the nurse draw up for this dose? _______
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Chapter 55: Nutritional Supplements
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Sample Questions
Q1) The total parenteral nutrition (TPN) order reads, "Infuse TPN #2 over 24 hours." Bag #2 of TPN contains 1800 mL. At what rate will the nurse set the infusion pump? _______
Q2) A patient has been receiving total parenteral nutrition. Upon assessment, the nurse notes these assessment findings: blood pressure 150/92 mm Hg (elevated from previous readings); pulse rate 110 beats/min and weak; pitting edema on both ankles; and new-onset confusion. The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing which condition?
A) Infection
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Fluid overload
Q3) A patient is receiving a nutritional supplement via an enteral feeding tube. The nurse will monitor for which common adverse effect?
A) Diarrhea
B) Constipation
C) Fluid overload
D) Heartburn
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Chapter 56: Dermatologic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient has been taking isotretinoin (Amnesteem) for 3 months. During a follow-up appointment, which statement by the patient would be of highest concern to the nurse?
A) "I am using two forms of contraception while on this drug."
B) "I have been feeling rather down and lonely lately."
C) "I wish I didn't have to be on this medication."
D) "It's scary to know that this drug can cause birth defects."
Q2) A patient has a prescription for topically applied 5% fluorouracil (Efudex) cream as part of treatment for basal cell carcinoma on her cheek. Which instructions will the nurse provide to the patient?
A) "You must use gloves to apply this medication."
B) "You can use clean fingertips to apply the cream, but be sure to wash your hands afterward."
C) "You will need to stay out of the sun during therapy with this medication."
D) "Apply this medication to the affected site once a day in the evening."
E) "Apply this medication to the affected site twice daily."
F) "You may have swelling, scaling, burning, and tenderness in the affected area."
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Chapter 57: Ophthalmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a patient and notes an order for ophthalmic dexamethasone (Decadron) solution. The nurse knows that indications for ophthalmic dexamethasone include which conditions?
A) Uveitis
B) Allergic conditions
C) Removal of foreign bodies
D) Ocular infections
E) Glaucoma
F) Conjunctival inflammation
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the use of ophthalmic preparations. Indications for the directand indirect-acting miotics include which condition?
A) Cataracts
B) Removal of foreign bodies
C) Open-angle glaucoma
D) Ocular infections
Q3) A patient will be receiving mannitol (Osmitrol), 1.5 g/kg IV 1 hour before ocular surgery. The patient weighs 110 pounds. How many grams of mannitol will this patient receive for this dose? _______
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Chapter 58: Otic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What teaching by the nurse is important for the safety of the patient who had just received eardrops?
A) Remain supine or sitting for a few minutes after receiving the drops.
B) Be sure to use a heating pad on the affected side.
C) Keep in mind that nausea may occur after eardrops are instilled.
D) Use a cotton-tipped swab to keep the ear canal clean.
Q2) When reviewing a patient's medical record, the nurse notes an order for carbamide peroxide eardrops. Based on this information, the nurse interprets that these eardrops are being used for which purpose?
A) To reduce inflammation
B) To reduce production of cerumen
C) To loosen the cerumen for easier removal
D) To inhibit growth of microorganisms in the external canal
Q3) The nurse is preparing to give an earwax emulsifier to a patient and will assess the patient for which contraindication before administering the drops?
A) Allergy to penicillin
B) Drainage from the ear canal
C) Partial deafness in the affected ear
D) Excessive earwax in the outer ear canal
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