Pharmacology and Pathophysiology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of pharmacology and pathophysiology, emphasizing the relationship between disease processes and drug actions. Students will learn the fundamental mechanisms underlying various diseases, the physiological changes that occur, and how pharmacological agents are used to prevent, treat, or manage these conditions. Topics include drug classifications, modes of action, therapeutic uses, side effects, and the principles of safe medication administration. Case studies and clinical scenarios are integrated to enhance understanding of how pharmacological interventions affect pathophysiological states in real-world healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 5th Edition by Copstead
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54 Chapters
1230 Verified Questions
1230 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A disease that is native to a particular region is called A) epidemic.
B) endemic.
C) pandemic.
D) ethnographic.
Answer: B
Q2) When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be ________.
Answer: idiopathic
Many diseases are idiopathic in nature.
Q3) Your patient's red blood cell is slightly elevated today.This might be explained by A) gender difference.
B) situational factors.
C) normal variation.
D) cultural variation.
E) illness.
Answer: A, B, C, E
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Chapter 2: Homeostasis and Adaptive Responses to Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in A) stress reduction.
B) permanent damage and death.
C) movement into the resistance stage.
D) exhaustion of the sympathetic nervous system.
Answer: B
Q2) Aldosterone may increase during stress, leading to
A) decreased urinary output.
B) increased blood potassium.
C) increased sodium retention.
D) increased blood volume.
E) decreased blood pressure.
Answer: A, C, D
Q3) Indicators that an individual is experiencing high stress include all the following except A) tachycardia.
B) diaphoresis.
C) increased peripheral resistance.
D) pupil constriction.
Answer: D
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phospholipids spontaneously form lipid bilayers, because they are
A) polar.
B) charged.
C) insoluble.
D) amphipathic.
Answer: D
Q2) The benefit of glycolysis is that this phase supplies
A) ATP to meet energy needs of the body.
B) pyruvate to the citric acid cycle.
C) energy for oxidative phosphorylation
D) lactate during anaerobic conditions.
Answer: B
Q3) An increase in extracellular potassium ion from 4.0 to 6.0 mEq/L would
A) hyperpolarize the resting membrane potential.
B) make it more difficult to reach threshold and produce an action potential.
C) hypopolarize the resting membrane potential.
D) alter the threshold potential.
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) Metaplasia is
A) the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another.
B) the transformation of a cell type to malignancy.
C) an irreversible cellular adaptation.
D) the disorganization of cells into various sizes, shapes, and arrangements.
Q2) The cellular response indicative of injury due to faulty metabolism is
A) hydropic swelling.
B) lactate production.
C) metaplasia.
D) intracellular accumulations.
Q3) The cellular change that is considered preneoplastic is A) anaplasia.
B) dysplasia.
C) metaplasia.
D) hyperplasia.
Q4) Reperfusion injury to cells
A) results in very little cellular damage.
B) results from calcium deficiency in cells.
C) occurs following nutritional injury.
D) involves formation of free radicals.
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Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important difference between skeletal and cardiac muscle is that A) cardiac muscle is not striated.
B) only skeletal muscle is dependent upon actin-myosin cross-bridging.
C) calcium does not leave the sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac cells.
D) cardiac muscle has calcium channels on the cell surface for calcium entry.
Q2) Characteristics of stem cells include that they
A) may differentiate into any type of cell.
B) reside only in the bone marrow.
C) have greater capacity to proliferate than more differentiated cells.
D) are dependent upon environmental cues for proliferation.
E) can die in the absence of an appropriate environment.
Q3) The differences in structure and function of cells in different body tissues is due to A) gene differences in tissue cells.
B) expression of tissue-specific genes.
C) transcriptional controls.
D) translation of amino acids to proteins.
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fetus is most vulnerable to environmental teratogens during A) birth.
B) conception.
C) the first trimester.
D) the last trimester.
Q2) Huntington disease primarily affects the _____ system.
A) neurologic
B) muscular
C) gastrointestinal
D) endocrine
Q3) The primary factor associated with risk of Down syndrome is A) family history of heritable diseases.
B) exposure to TORCH syndrome organisms.
C) maternal alcohol intake.
D) maternal age.
Q4) Cystic fibrosis is a single gene disorder that primarily affects A) brain and heart.
B) kidney and adrenals.
C) lungs and pancreas.
D) liver and intestine.
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Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cancer grading is based on
A) tumor size.
B) local invasion.
C) cell differentiation.
D) metastasis.
Q2) After bronchoscopy and histologic examination of a suspected tumor, your patient is diagnosed with primary bronchial carcinoma.Thus, the tumor
A) is benign.
B) is malignant.
C) is secondary to cancer elsewhere in the body.
D) has spread.
Q3) Tumor markers
A) are found only in the blood.
B) are produced by normal cells.
C) help determine cancer origin.
D) help identify progression of cancer.
E) include prostatic-specific antigen.
Q4) In general, a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is ____ (more/less)likely to be aggressive.
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Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drug resistance of microbes occurs secondary to A) patient allergy to a drug.
B) mutation of the microbe.
C) enhance pathogenicity of the microbe.
D) using high doses of drugs.
Q2) The term used to describe fungal infections is A) sepsis.
B) mycoses.
C) amebiasis.
D) Chlamydia.
Q3) Immune function is likely to be most effective in a A) newborn.
B) 7-month-old infant.
C) 30-year-old.
D) 70-year-old.
Q4) An infectious disease that is common in a community is termed A) endemic.
B) epidemic.
C) pandemic.
D) partdemic.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leukocytosis with a "shift to the left" refers to
A) elevated segmented neutrophils.
B) elevated immature neutrophils.
C) decreased monocytes.
D) decreased immature neutrophils.
Q2) Characteristics of complement include
A) stimulating chemotaxis.
B) lysing target cells.
C) having multiple plasma proteins.
D) being synthesized in the bone marrow.
E) enhancing phagocytosis.
Q3) The mononuclear phagocyte system consists of
A) monocytes and tissue macrophages.
B) dendritic cells.
C) bone marrow stem cells.
D) antibody-secreting plasma cells.
E) basophils.
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11
Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autoimmune diseases result from
A) overactive immune function.
B) increase in self-tolerance.
C) failure of the immune system to differentiate self and nonself molecules.
D) communicable infections.
Q2) Anaphylaxis may occur in certain hypersensitivity reactions, including type A) I.
B) II.
C) III.
D) IV.
Q3) RhoGAM (an Rh antibody)would be appropriate in an Rh-_____ woman with an _____ Rh-_____ antibody titer carrying an Rh-_____ fetus.
A) negative; positive; positive
B) positive; negative; negative
C) negative; negative; positive
D) negative; negative; negative
Q4) Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type ____ hypersensitivity reactions.
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Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which viruses have been implicated as cancer-causing agents?
A) Epstein-Barr
B) Human T-cell leukemia
C) Human immunodeficiency
D) Herpes
E) Shingles
Q2) A 58-year-old woman is seen in the clinic for reports of severe back pain.Her chest X-ray demonstrates generalized bone demineralization and compression fracture.Blood studies demonstrate elevated calcium levels.The most likely diagnosis is
A) leukemia.
B) myeloma.
C) Hodgkin disease.
D) back trauma.
Q3) Which form of leukemia demonstrates the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome?
A) ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)
B) CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia)
C) AML (acute myeloid leukemia)
D) CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)
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Page 13
Chapter 12: HIV Disease and AIDS
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23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drugs are used for the management of HIV?
A) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) DNA polymerase inhibitors
C) Protease inhibitors
D) Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
E) CD4 analogs
Q2) Cleaning dirty needles prior to use helps prevent the spread of HIV.When using bleach, the user must rinse out all the blood first and then fill the needle and syringe with full-strength bleach three times for ____ to ____ seconds.
Q3) The clinical latency period after HIV infection is a time when no
A) viral replication occurs.
B) decline in CD4 lymphocytes occurs.
C) virus is detectable in the blood.
D) significant symptoms of immunodeficiency occur.
Q4) In which type of cells is the CD4 found?
A) T cells
B) Microglial cells
C) Retinal cells
D) Cervical cells
E) Pacemaker cells
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of A) iron.
B) intrinsic factor.
C) folate.
D) erythropoietin.
Q2) A newborn patient is diagnosed with hemolytic disease.The nurse may expect to find what signs and symptoms?
A) Petechial hemorrhages
B) Hepatomegaly
C) Splenomegaly
D) Kernicterus
E) Erythema
Q3) Red blood cells obtain nearly all their energy from metabolism of A) glucose.
B) fats.
C) proteins.
D) acetyl coenzyme A.
Q4) Vaccination for pneumococcal pneumonia should be performed before ____ years of age in patients with sickle cell anemia.
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Chapter 14: Alterations in Hemostasis and Blood Coagulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The final step in clot formation is
A) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
B) platelet degranulation and adhesion.
C) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
D) clot retraction.
Q2) Treatment for hemophilia A includes A) heparin administration.
B) factor IX replacement.
C) factor VIII replacement.
D) platelet transfusion.
Q3) A normal bleeding time in association with normal platelet count, and increased prothrombin time (PT)and INR, is indicative of A) vitamin K deficiency.
B) hemophilia B.
C) hemophilia A.
D) idiopathic thrombocytopenia.
Q4) The ________ is responsible for the synthesis of coagulation factors, with the exception of part of factor VIII.
Q5) Hemophilia B is also known as ________ disease.
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pain characteristics of chronic venous insufficiency include
A) aching and cramping in the affected area.
B) relief with elevation to the area.
C) relief with ambulation if pain is in the legs.
D) burning and prickling in the affected area.
E) relief with massage to the area.
Q2) The goal of heparin for the management of a deep vein thrombosis is to A) relieve edema.
B) prevent clot dislodgement.
C) dissolve the thrombus.
D) prevent further clot formation.
Q3) Blood flow throughout the periphery is regulated by A) cardiac output.
B) the autonomic nervous system.
C) velocity.
D) hemodynamics.
Q4) A(n)________ is a stationary blood clot formed within a vessel or a chamber of the heart.
Q5) Venules are composed of ________ tissue.
Q6) The relationship between blood flow and resistance is a(n)________ one.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) An erroneously low blood pressure measurement may be caused by
A) positioning the arm above the heart level.
B) using a cuff that is too small.
C) positioning the arm at heart level.
D) measuring blood pressure after exercise.
Q2) Critically ill patients may have parenterally administered vasoactive drugs that are adjusted according to their _____ pressure.
A) systolic
B) mean arterial
C) diastolic
D) pulse
Q3) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)inhibitors block the A) release of rennin.
B) conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
C) conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
D) effect of aldosterone on the kidney.
Q4) The ingestion of certain drugs, foods, or chemicals can lead to ____________.
Q5) The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension is ____________.
Q6) ________ damage is a function of both the stage of hypertension and its duration.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which physiologic change increases cardiac work but does not enhance cardiac output?
A) Increased preload
B) Increased heart rate
C) Increased contractility
D) Increased afterload
Q2) Which is true about blood flow from the atria?
A) Occurs primarily during systole, because perfusion pressure is high
B) Is controlled primarily by the autonomic nervous system
C) Is increased with elevated right atrial pressure
D) Occurs primarily during ventricular diastole
Q3) Creatine phosphate is
A) a waste product of cellular metabolism.
B) synthesized when ATP levels are high.
C) enzymatically degraded to form creatine kinase.
D) an indicator of myocardial cell damage.
Q4) The R wave is responsible for ________ depolarization.
Q5) A requirement for rhythmicity is that the cell membrane has channels that automatically open during phase ________.
Q6) A standard ECG has ________ leads.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A loud pansystolic murmur that radiates to the axilla is most likely a result of A) aortic regurgitation.
B) aortic stenosis.
C) mitral regurgitation.
D) mitral stenosis.
Q2) Aortic regurgitation is associated with A) diastolic murmur.
B) elevated left ventricular/aortic systolic pressure gradient.
C) elevated systemic diastolic blood pressure.
D) shortened ventricular ejection phase.
Q3) An elderly patient's blood pressure is measured at 160/98.How would the patient's left ventricular function be affected by this level of blood pressure?
A) This is an expected blood pressure in the elderly and has little effect on left ventricular function.
B) Left ventricular workload is increased with high afterload.
C) High blood pressure enhances left ventricular perfusion during systole.
D) High-pressure workload leads to left ventricular atrophy.
Q4) A reduction in _________ production after birth contributes to the heart's closure and constriction in patent ductus arteriosus.
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Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common
Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with heart failure who reports intermittent shortness of breath during the night is experiencing
A) orthopnea.
B) paroxysmal atrial tachycardia.
C) sleep apnea.
D) paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
Q2) Which dysrhythmia is thought to be associated with reentrant mechanisms?
A) Second-degree AV block
B) Sinus bradycardia
C) Junctional escape
D) Preexcitation syndrome tachycardia (Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome)
Q3) A patient has heart failure with a normal ejection fraction.Which findings are most likely found in this patient?
A) High cardiac output
B) Pulmonary congestion
C) Edema
D) Ejection fraction greater than 50%
E) Ejection fraction less than 45%
Q4) Chronic elevation of myocardial wall tension results in ________.
Q5) First-degree block is identified by a prolonged ________.
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Sample Questions
Q1) The progressive stage of hypovolemic shock is characterized by A) tachycardia.
B) hypertension.
C) lactic acidosis.
D) cardiac failure.
Q2) In contrast to all other types of shock, the hyperdynamic phase of septic shock is associated with
A) high afterload.
B) low cardiac output.
C) high cardiac output.
D) reduced contractility.
Q3) Massive release of histamine with consequent vasodilation and hypotension occurs with what type of shock?
A) Cardiogenic
B) Hypovolemic
C) Anaphylactic
D) Neurogenic
Q4) Lactated Ringer solution and normal saline are commonly used ________ solutions that contain electrolytes.
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Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) The peripheral chemoreceptors
A) are located in the medulla oblongata.
B) lead to hypoventilation when stimulated.
C) respond to the arterial oxygen level.
D) are unresponsive to pH and CO levels.
Q2) Chronic pulmonary hypertension can eventually cause which complication?
A) Pulmonary emboli
B) Respiratory acidosis
C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D) Right heart failure
Q3) The pulmonary structure that has the least pulmonary blood flow is A) lung apex.
B) middle lung.
C) lower lung.
D) zone 4.
Q4) Primary pulmonary hypertension is
A) more common in men.
B) readily treatable.
C) caused by genetic mutation.
D) rapidly progressive.
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Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which pulmonary function test result is consistent with a diagnosis of asthma?
A) Reduced forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)
B) Decreased functional residual capacity
C) Increased FEV1
D) Reduced total lung volume
Q2) Cystic fibrosis is associated with A) asthma.
B) chronic bronchitis.
C) bronchiectasis.
D) emphysema.
Q3) After evaluation, a child's asthma is characterized as "extrinsic." This means that the asthma is
A) of unknown pathogenesis.
B) associated with specific allergic triggers.
C) associated with respiratory infections.
D) induced by psychological factors (stress).
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Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common characteristics of sarcoidosis include
A) presence of CD4<sup>+</sup> T cells.
B) a non-productive cough.
C) leukocytosis.
D) granulomas in multiple body systems.
E) fatigue, weight loss, and fever.
Q2) A patient exhibiting respiratory distress as well as a tracheal shift should be evaluated for
A) pneumonia.
B) pneumothorax.
C) pulmonary edema.
D) pulmonary embolus.
Q3) Which disorder is caused by inhalation of organic substances?
A) Diffuse interstitial lung disease
B) Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
C) Sarcoidosis
D) Acute respiratory distress syndrome
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25
Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a parent asks how they will know if their 2-month-old baby, who is throwing up and has frequent diarrhea, is dehydrated, the nurse's best response is
A) "Clinical dehydration is the combination of extracellular fluid volume deficit and hypernatremia, so those are the diagnostic criteria."
B) "If he doesn't wet his diaper all afternoon and his neck veins look flat when he is lying down, then he is probably dehydrated."
C) "If he sleeps more than usual and acts tired when he is awake, then he is probably dehydrated."
D) "If the soft spot on the top of his head feels sunken in and his mouth is dry between his cheek and his gums, then he is probably dehydrated."
Q2) Excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH)secretion can cause _____ concentration.
A) increased serum sodium
B) decreased serum sodium
C) increased serum potassium
D) decreased serum potassium
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Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Respiratory acidosis may be caused by A) hyperventilation.
B) massive blood transfusion.
C) tissue hypoxia.
D) hypoventilation.
Q2) A patient has been hospitalized several times in 6 months with severe ECV depletion and hypokalemia resulting from chronic laxative abuse.Which blood gas results should be relayed to the physician?
A) pH in high part of normal range, PaO normal, PaO normal, bicarbonate normal
B) pH in high part of normal range, PaO normal, PaO high, bicarbonate high
C) pH in low part of normal range, PaO normal, PaO low, bicarbonate low
D) pH in low part of normal range, PaO normal, PaO normal, bicarbonate normal
Q3) The body compensates for metabolic alkalosis by A) hypoventilation.
B) decreasing arterial carbon dioxide.
C) increasing bicarbonate ion excretion.
D) hyperventilation.
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Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Q1) Serious renal impairment generally does not occur until ____ of the total nephrons have been damaged
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 80%
Q2) Excess potassium is excreted from the body by the renal system primarily via
A) glomerular filtration based on blood level of potassium.
B) reabsorption based on blood level of potassium.
C) secretion based on aldosterone level.
D) an unknown mechanism.
Q3) The primary function of the vasa recta is to
A) secrete renin.
B) reabsorb NaCl.
C) reabsorb interstitial fluid.
D) secrete urea.
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Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Q1) The most common direct cause of acute pyelonephritis is A) urine obstruction.
B) systemic bacteremia.
C) urethral catheterization.
D) infection by E. coli.
Q2) The pathophysiologic basis of acute glomerulonephritis is A) renal ischemia.
B) bacterial invasion of the glomerulus.
C) an anaphylactic reaction.
D) an immune complex reaction.
Q3) Glomerular disorders include A) pyelonephritis.
B) obstructive uropathy.
C) interstitial cystitis.
D) nephrotic syndrome.
Q4) Signs consistent with a diagnosis of glomerulonephritis include A) anuria.
B) proteinuria.
C) red blood cell casts in the urine.
D) foul-smelling urine.
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Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Q1) One of the most common causes of acute tubular necrosis (ATN)is
A) ischemic conditions.
B) cytotoxic agents.
C) immune reaction.
D) prolonged postrenal kidney injury.
Q2) The most likely cause of anemia in a patient with end-stage renal disease is
A) insufficient erythropoietin.
B) blood loss secondary to hematuria.
C) vitamin B deficiency secondary to deficient intrinsic factor.
D) iron deficiency.
Q3) When a patient misses two dialysis sessions numerous electrolyte imbalances resulted.The patient will likely demonstrate
A) lethargy due to metabolic acidosis and increased BUN.
B) skeletal muscle weakness and possible cardiac dysrhythmias due to hyperkalemia.
C) positive Chvostek and Trousseau signs due to hypomagnesemia.
D) weight gain of several pounds since her last dialysis session due to hypernatremia.
E) deep rapid breathing due to compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis.
Q4) The best intervention for acute kidney injury (AKI)is ________.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Q1) The most frequent initial symptom of bladder cancer is A) bladder infection.
B) hematuria.
C) sudden incontinence.
D) dysuria.
Q2) Vesicoureteral reflux is associated with A) increased serum creatinine.
B) recurrent cystitis.
C) polycystic renal disease.
D) proteinuria.
Q3) The microorganism that causes the vast majority of urinary tract infections is A) Klebsiella.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) herpes simplex virus.
D) Candida albicans.
Q4) Which group is at the highest risk for urinary tract infection?
A) Infants and children
B) Sexually active women
C) Adult males
D) Patients taking diuretics
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Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23395
Sample Questions
Q1) The primary function of the epididymis is to A) house developing sperm.
B) produce seminal fluid.
C) produce sperm.
D) secrete male hormones.
Q2) Production of LH occurs in response to serum levels of A) estrogen.
B) prostate-specific antigen.
C) cortisol.
D) testosterone.
Q3) An important function of the scrotum is to
A) regulate the temperature of the testes.
B) provide support to the prostate gland.
C) regulate blood supply to the penis.
D) supply antibacterial secretions.
Q4) The thick covering of the ovum is called the ________.
Q5) The _________ nervous system mediates the process of ejaculation.
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Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Erection requires the release of nitrous oxide into the ________ during sexual stimulation.
Q2) The prognosis of penile carcinoma depends upon the ________ of the disease.
Q3) Phimosis is a disorder of the penis characterized by
A) sustained, painful erection.
B) inability to retract the foreskin.
C) inability to achieve erection.
D) malpositioning of the urinary meatus.
Q4) Sudden, severe testicular pain is indicative of A) prostatitis.
B) testicular cancer.
C) testicular torsion.
D) epididymitis.
Q5) A patient presenting with a urethral stricture may experience A) decreased urinary stream.
B) urethral discharge.
C) infection.
D) urine retention.
E) inability to retract the glans of the penis.
Q6) The majority of penile cancer cases are classified as _______. Page 33
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Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of the placenta during pregnancy is to A) protect the developing fetus.
B) provide nutrients to the mother.
C) provide nutrients to the fetus and remove wastes.
D) remove excess estrogen during pregnancy.
Q2) Before the onset of menstruation, water retention and breast swelling is thought to be due to high levels of ________ stimulating the secretory cells of the breast.
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) hCG
D) oxytocin
Q3) The hormone released from the posterior pituitary gland during the milk ejection reflex is
A) gonadotropin.
B) prolactin.
C) vasopressin.
D) oxytocin.
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35
Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infection by ________ accounts for nearly half of all reported cases of vulvovaginitis.
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Candida albicans
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Pseudomonas
Q2) A change occurring in a pregnant woman that is indicative of a potential disorder is
A) increased metabolic rate.
B) 30% to 40% increase in cardiac output.
C) increased oxygen consumption.
D) increased urinary protein.
Q3) Cervical cancer can be detected in the early, curable stage by the ________ test.
A) Papanicolaou.
B) human papillomavirus.
C) gonorrhoeae.
D) vaginal pH.
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Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 23-year-old male presents with urethritis, dysuria, and purulent urethral discharge.The suspected diagnosis would be
A) gonorrhea.
B) urinary tract infection.
C) Chlamydia.
D) syphilis.
Q2) Which infection can be a risk factor for cervical cancer?
A) Human papillomavirus
B) Molluscum contagiosum
C) Granuloma inguinale
D) Chancroid
Q3) The initial incubation period of syphilis lasts for A) 2 to 3 days.
B) 10 to 90 days.
C) 3 to 6 weeks.
D) 40 years.
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Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chief cells secrete
A) pepsinogen.
B) hydrogen chloride.
C) intrinsic factor.
D) gastrin.
Q2) The sympathetic nerve endings in the GI tract secrete
A) acetylcholine.
B) histamine.
C) gastrin.
D) norepinephrine.
Q3) Which is associated with contraction of the gallbladder?
A) Cholecystokinin
B) Morphine
C) Norepinephrine
D) Gastrin
Q4) How much fluid is secreted from the intestinal glands daily?
A) 1/2 liter
B) 1 liter
C) 2 liters
D) 4 liters
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Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) An early indicator of colon cancer is
A) rectal pain.
B) bloody diarrhea.
C) a change in bowel habits.
D) jaundice.
Q2) Esophageal varices represent a complication of ________ hypertension.
A) primary
B) pregnancy-induced
C) portal
D) secondary
Q3) What finding should prompt further diagnostic testing in a child presenting with diarrhea?
A) Periumbilical discomfort
B) Greenish, watery diarrhea
C) Frequent, large-volume diarrhea
D) Blood and mucus in the stools
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Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Untreated acute cholecystitis may lead to ________ of the gallbladder wall.
A) gangrene
B) infection
C) distention
D) inflammation
Q2) The finding of hypotension, rigid abdomen, and absent bowel sounds in a patient with pancreatitis
A) is an expected finding and requires no specific intervention.
B) indicates peritonitis with substantial risk for sepsis and shock.
C) requires immediate surgical intervention.
D) is an unusual finding in pancreatitis and indicates misdiagnosis.
Q3) Narcotic administration should be administered carefully in patients with acute pancreatitis related to potential for A) respiratory depression.
B) narcotic dependency.
C) sphincter of Oddi dysfunction.
D) allergic reaction.
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Page 40
Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A viral hepatitis screen with positive hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)should be interpreted as ________ hepatitis B.
A) recovered from B) immunity to C) chronic active
D) acute
Q2) What form of viral hepatitis is likely to be transmitted sexually?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis E
Q3) Hepatic encephalopathy is associated with A) hyperbilirubinemia.
B) hyperuricemia.
C) toxic effects of alcohol on brain cells.
D) increased blood ammonia levels.
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In primary thyroid hormone deficiency, the TSH levels are A) high.
B) low.
C) undetectable.
D) constantly fluctuating.
Q2) A primary endocrine disorder occurs when
A) the pituitary gland oversecretes hormones.
B) the pituitary gland undersecretes hormones.
C) exogenous hormones suppress endogenous production.
D) the target gland is unresponsive to pituitary regulation.
Q3) Hormones that are released from the anterior pituitary gland include A) luteinizing hormone.
B) vasopressin.
C) prolactin.
D) oxytocin.
E) follicle-stimulating hormone.
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Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are major classifications of deficiencies in growth hormone secretion?
A) Increased IGF-1
B) Decreased GH secretion
C) Defective GH action
D) Decreased IGG secretion
E) Defective IGF-1 generation
Q2) Propylthiouracil may be used to treat hyperthyroidism, because it
A) destroys thyroid gland cells.
B) inhibits the release of TSH.
C) suppresses production of autoantibodies.
D) inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis.
Q3) It is true that growth hormone excess in adults
A) results in the condition of acromegaly.
B) leads to abnormally tall stature.
C) is associated with hypoglycemia.
D) is usually asymptomatic.
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43
Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are complications of diabetes mellitus that are microvascular?
A) Cardiovascular disease
B) Retinopathy
C) Nephropathy
D) Neuropathy
E) Stroke
Q2) The breakdown of stored glycogen in the liver and muscles is called
A) glycolysis.
B) glycogenesis.
C) glycogenolysis.
D) gluconeogenesis.
Q3) Which insulin types are most commonly used in the rapid-acting category?
A) NPH
B) Aspart
C) Glargine
D) Lispro
E) Regular
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Page 44
Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Starvation is associated with A) loss of visceral protein.
B) low serum albumin levels.
C) loss of somatic fat and protein.
D) generalized edema.
Q2) An immobile patient should be treated with an extra ________ grams of protein daily.
A) 2 to 4
B) 4 to 6
C) 7 to 9
D) 10 to 15
Q3) The metabolic response to fever is
A) anabolic.
B) catabolic.
C) both anabolic and catabolic.
D) related to gluconeogenesis.
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45
Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neurotransmitter binding to neuronal receptors occurs primarily at the dendrite and A) cell body.
B) nucleus.
C) axon hillock.
D) axon terminal.
Q2) Pupil constriction is controlled by cranial nerve
A) II.
B) III.
C) VIII.
D) IX.
Q3) It is true that a N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA)receptor
A) is activated by glutamate.
B) is a ligand-gated calcium ion channels.
C) opens only when the membrane has been previously depolarized.
D) blockade is associated with enhanced short-term memory.
E) is blocked by a sodium ion.
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Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important preventative measure for hemorrhagic stroke is A) anticoagulation.
B) blood pressure control.
C) thrombolytics.
D) management of dysrhythmias.
Q2) ________ occurs when a brainstem impaired patient exhibits a persistent rhythmic or jerky movement in one or both eyes.
A) Nystagmus
B) Dysconjugate movement
C) Ocular palsy
D) Doll's eye
Q3) Rupture of a cerebral aneurysm should be suspected if the patient reports A) ringing in the ears.
B) transient episodes of numbness.
C) transient episodes of vertigo.
D) sudden, severe headache.
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Orthostatic hypotension may be a manifestation of A) Alzheimer disease.
B) multiple sclerosis.
C) Parkinson disease.
D) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
Q2) Upper extremity weakness in association with degeneration of CNS neurons is characteristic of
A) multiple sclerosis.
B) Guillain-Barré syndrome.
C) myasthenia gravis.
D) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
Q3) Parkinson disease is associated with A) demyelination of CNS neurons.
B) a pyramidal nerve tract lesion.
C) insufficient production of acetylcholine in the basal ganglia.
D) a deficiency of dopamine in the substantia nigra.
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Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A vestibular disorder that is manifested by the sensation of motion without actual motion is referred to as
A) equilibrium.
B) nystagmus.
C) vertigo.
D) effusion.
Q2) A condition of ocular misalignment that causes a cross-eyed appearance is referred to as
A) strabismus.
B) amblyopia.
C) cataract.
D) retinopathy.
Q3) It is true that a conductive hearing loss
A) cannot be corrected.
B) is due to damage to hair cells in the inner ear.
C) usually results from chronic exposure to loud noise.
D) is due to dysfunction of outer and middle ear structures.
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Modulation of pain signals is thought to be mediated by the release of A) histamine.
B) endorphins.
C) cholecystokinin.
D) glutamine.
Q2) The gate control theory of pain transmission predicts that activity in touch receptors will
A) enhance perception of pain.
B) decrease pain signal transmission in the spinal cord.
C) activate opioid receptors in the CNS.
D) increase secretion of substance P in the spinal cord.
Q3) Pain that waxes and wanes and is exacerbated by physical exertion is likely related to
A) neuralgia.
B) intermittent claudication.
C) fibromyalgia syndrome.
D) neuropathy.
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about the incidence of mental illness?
A) There are minimal differences in how cultures view mental health.
B) Women have twice the risk of experiencing anxiety disorders than men.
C) Men are more likely to suffer from depression and anxiety than women are.
D) Mood disorders are not likely to occur after the age of 65.
Q2) It is true that the "negative" symptoms of schizophrenia
A) are more easily managed than the positive symptoms.
B) are thought to be mediated by D1 receptors in the brain.
C) include rambling speech and delusional thoughts.
D) are due to a deficiency of brain dopamine.
Q3) Drugs that inhibit reuptake of norepinephrine or serotonin may be helpful in the management of A) schizophrenia.
B) panic attacks.
C) depression.
D) delusional disorder.
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Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) As many as ____ of children in the United States aged 3 to 17 years are affected by some type of neurodevelopmental disorder.
A) 5%
B) 12%
C) 25%
D) 30%
Q2) The most common childhood psychiatric disorder is
A) bipolar disorder.
B) attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder.
C) autism spectrum disorder.
D) psychosis.
Q3) An anxiety disorder that is precipitated by a traumatic event is known as A) generalized anxiety disorder.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder.
C) panic disorder.
D) phobia.
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Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Menisci facilitate the rotation of the A) neck.
B) elbow.
C) knee.
D) spine.
Q2) When oxygen for muscle activity from the respiratory vascular systems is insufficient for muscle activity, the body breaks down glucose, which results in A) hypoglycemia.
B) lactic acid buildup in muscle.
C) a large energy source.
D) exhaustion.
Q3) It is true that articular cartilage
A) is comprised of mostly protein.
B) dries out with aging.
C) spreads weight load.
D) needs synovial fluid lubrication.
E) has limited regeneration ability.
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Page 53
Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of scoliosis include
A) involvement of lateral curvature of the spine.
B) increase during periods of rapid growth.
C) more common in boys.
D) identifiable by uneven shoulders or scapular prominence.
E) possibility of leading to respiratory complications.
Q2) Inflammation of the sacs that overlie bony prominences is called
A) epicondylitis.
B) arthritis.
C) tendinitis.
D) bursitis.
Q3) Most muscle strains are due to A) a tear in an adjoining tendon.
B) abnormal muscle contraction.
C) muscle asymmetry.
D) bleeding into the muscle.
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Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)is treated with low-dose oral steroids to reduce joint inflammation during intermittent flare-ups.Steroids are used because they
A) can be rapidly discontinued when no longer needed.
B) specifically suppress autoantibody production.
C) have minimal side effects.
D) effectively suppress a variety of immune responses.
Q2) Polymyositis leads to
A) muscle weakness and stiffness.
B) difficulty lifting the head from a pillow.
C) severe muscle pain.
D) difficulty with overhead functional activity.
E) cardiac involvement.
Q3) To avoid the progression of cutaneous lesions, a patient diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)should
A) avoid sun exposure.
B) avoid excessive use of moisturizers.
C) refrain from washing the affected areas.
D) apply warm, wet compresses daily.
Page 55
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Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cancer considered to be the most malignant is A) hyperkeratosis.
B) basal cell carcinoma.
C) squamous cell carcinoma.
D) melanoma.
Q2) What is the most deadly form of skin cancer?
A) Basal
B) Squamous
C) Melanoma
D) Actinic keratosis
Q3) Itchy linear burrows on the hands and wrists are associated with A) tick bites.
B) Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
C) scabies.
D) contact dermatitis.
Q4) Impetigo is usually caused by a A) virus.
B) fungus.
C) protozoan.
D) bacteria.
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Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Sample Questions
Q1) Burn shock is the direct result of A) hypovolemia.
B) cardiac depression.
C) infection.
D) increased capillary permeability.
Q2) Electrical injury may cause extensive damage to low-resistance tissues, particularly A) bone and muscle.
B) nerves and blood vessels.
C) epidermis.
D) dermis and subcutaneous tissue.
Q3) The majority of electrical burns in children are caused by A) playing with electrical outlets.
B) playing with defective electrical cords.
C) biting on extension cords.
D) putting fingers in electrical sockets.
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57