Pharmaceutical Biochemistry
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pharmaceutical Biochemistry explores the chemical processes and substances critical to understanding drug action within biological systems. This course examines the molecular foundations of disease, the biochemical interactions between drugs and cellular components, and the mechanisms by which drugs exert therapeutic and toxic effects. Emphasis is placed on enzyme function, metabolic pathways, signal transduction, and the analysis of biomolecules relevant to pharmacology. Students will gain foundational knowledge linking biochemistry to drug discovery, development, and clinical application, equipping them with insights essential for pharmaceutical research and practice.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 7th Edition by Mary K. Campbell
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Biochemistry and the Organization of Cells
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Q1) Animal cells do not contain
A) a nucleus
B) mitochondria
C) chloroplasts
D) lysosomes
Answer: C
Q2) Lysosomes,peroxisomes,and glyoxysomes are
A) sites of cell damage
B) important in mitosis
C) specialized organelles
D) a part of the rough endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following statements about eukaryotic nuclei is FALSE?
A) They are separated from the rest of the cell by a single membrane.
B) They contain RNA.
C) They contain chromatin.
D) They play a role in genetics.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Water: The Solvent for Biochemical Reactions
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Q1) If a solution has a pH = 9.6,the [H<sup>+</sup>] is
A) 2.5 × 10<sup>10</sup>
B) 9.6 M
C) 2.5 M
D) 2.5 × 10<sup>-10</sup> M
E) 9.6 × 10<sup>-10</sup> M
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following statements about hydrogen bonds is false?
A) The donor is a hydrogen atom bonded to a less electronegative atom then hydrogen.
B) The more linear the bond, the stronger the attraction.
C) The acceptor must contain a non-bonded pair of electrons.
D) It is a type of non-covalent bond.
Answer: A
Q3) Hydrogen bonds can only form when the hydrogen atom is involved in a polar bond.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Amino Acids and Peptides
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Q1) Which of the following correctly lists the isoelectric pH's of asp,asn,and arg from lowest to highest?
A) D N R
B) D R N
C) R N D
D) R D N
E) N R D
F) N D R
Answer: A
Q2) The absolute configuration of amino acids are denoted by their relationship to the Lor D- forms of
A) glyceraldehyde
B) glucose
C) tartaric acid
D) alanine
Answer: A
Q3) The side chain of Met is a poor hydrogen bond donor.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
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Q1) Domains are
A) independently folded regions of proteins
B) the a-helical portions of proteins
C) the b-pleated regions of proteins
D) all of the above
Q2) The following amino acid causes a kink or bend in the a-helix.
A) Ala
B) Glu
C) Lys
D) Pro
E) Trp
Q3) Which of the following is true?
A) The collagen helix and the a-helix are the only types of helices in proteins.
B) Globular proteins tend to be water soluble
C) Globular and fibrous are examples of secondary structure
D) All of these
Q4) Fibrous proteins
A) are always composed of helical structures.
B) are always composed of b-sheets.
C) can be composed of either helical or b-sheet structures.
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Chapter 5: Protein Purification and Characterization Techniques
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Q1) In affinity chromatography,a protein
A) which binds to the ligand will remain on the column.
B) which binds to the ligand will elute from the column.
C) which is hydrophobic will remain on the column.
D) which is hydrophilic will remain on the column.
Q2) Which substance would you expect to be eluted first from a molecular sieve column with a suitable degree of crosslinking?
A) hemoglobin
B) myoglobin
C) 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate
D) all would elute at the same rate
Q3) Salting out with ammonium sulfate is based upon proteins interacting with other proteins via
A) hydrogen bonds.
B) ionic bonds.
C) hydrophobic interactions.
D) disulfide bonds.
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Chapter 6: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes
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Q1) The substrate-enzyme (E-S) complex
A) always proceeds to form the products rapidly.
B) always breaks down to form free enzyme and substrate.
C) always breaks down to form free enzyme and product.
D) may break down to form free enzyme and substrate, or free enzyme and product.
Q2) Which of the following are related for a given enzyme?
A) V<sub>max</sub>, K<sub>M</sub>, and percentage of a-helix
B) V<sub>max</sub>, k<sub>cat</sub>, and percentage of b-sheet
C) V<sub>max</sub>, k<sub>cat</sub>, and turnover number
D) V<sub>max</sub>, K<sub>M</sub>, and molecular weight
Q3) Which of the following inhibitors binds to the enzyme at a site other than the active site?
A) competitive inhibitor
B) noncompetitive inhibitor
C) irreversible inhibitor
D) all of these
E) none of these
Q4) The substrate will only bind to the enzyme when the shapes fit together rigidly.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes, Mechanisms, and
Control
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Q1) In the concerted model the binding of the first substrate molecule will achieve all except
A) facilitation of the binding of other substrate molecules.
B) facilitation of the conversion of other subunits to the active state.
C) facilitation of the binding of inhibitors to the enzyme.
D) All of these are facilitated by the binding of the first substrate molecule.
E) None of these answers is correct.
Q2) Allosteric enzymes must exhibit which of the following?
A) feedback inhibition
B) a phosphorylation site
C) general acid-base catalysis
D) a quaternary structure
Q3) The sequential model for allosteric behavior
A) cannot account for reactions that display negative cooperativity.
B) postulates binding of substrates and inhibitors by the induced-fit model.
C) requires that the conformation of all subunits change simultaneously.
D) is mathematically simpler than the concerted model.
Q4) The term K<sub>0.5</sub> is analogous to the K<sub>M</sub>
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Lipids and Proteins Are Associated in Biological Membranes
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Q1) Which of the following groups is not present in a phosphatidic acid?
A) Choline
B) Fatty acids
C) Glycerol
D) Phosphate
E) All of these are components of phosphatidic acid.
Q2) With what compound are fatty acids reacted to make a fat or oil?
A) cholesterol
B) glycerol
C) sphinganine
D) ceramide
Q3) The myelin sheaths of neurons typically contain large amounts of A) waxes
B) triacylglycerols
C) cholesterol
D) sphingolipids
Q4) Plants need cholesterol in their membranes to counteract the rigidity of the cell wall.
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Nucleic Acids: How Structure Conveys Information
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Q1) Propeller twists occur in B-DNA so that
A) Z-DNA can form
B) base pairing distances are optimized
C) base stacking can better occur
D) none of these
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning the B-form of DNA is false?
A) It twists in a left-handed direction.
B) The distance between base pairs is 3.4Å.
C) The width of a base pair is about 1.1 nm.
D) The diameter, including the phosphate, is about 20 Å.
Q3) What distinguishes nucleotides from nucleosides?
A) Nucleosides lack the phosphate group.
B) Nucleosides lack the sugar group.
C) Nucleosides lack a nitrogenous base.
Q4) Which contains a phosphoanhydride bond?
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) ATP
D) AMP
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Chapter 10: Biosynthesis of Nucleic Acids: Replication
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Q1) In the original Central Dogma of biology,the ordinary flow of genetic information is:
A) DNA RNA Protein
B) RNA DNA Protein
C) Protein RNA DNA
D) DNA Protein RNA.
E) None of these
Q2) Eukaryotic DNA polymerases differ from those of prokaryotes in that
A) they do not require a primer
B) they do not always have exonuclease activity
C) there is no equivalent to the sliding clamp in prokaryotic replication
D) they produce longer Okazaki fragments
Q3) Which of the following repair mechanisms would most likely be used to repair a G in DNA damaged by oxidation?
A) Base Excision:
B) Nucleotide Excision
C) Pol III Proofreading
D) Mismatch Repair
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Chapter 11: Transcription of the Genetic Code: Biosynthesis of Rna
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Q1) DNA binding domains are distinct from transcription-activation domains.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Initiation of transcription in eukaryotes is primarily controlled
A) by two transcription factors
B) by keeping the TATA-binding protein physically separated from other transcription factors
C) by the order of binding of TFIIA and TFIIB
D) in the formation of the preinitiation complex
Q3) Which of the following RNAs is noted for having a "cloverleaf" structure?
A) mRNA
B) rRNA
C) tRNA
D) All of these
Q4) The sequences in eukaryotic DNA known as introns are
A) those included in the final sequence of messenger RNA
B) the intervening sequences not expressed in the final sequence of messenger RNA
C) the binding sites for DNA polymerase
D) the binding sites for RNA polymerase
13
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Chapter 12: Protein Synthesis: Translation of the Genetic Message
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Q1) Which of the following is not required for the elongation phase of protein synthesis?
A) GTP
B) fmet-tRNA<sup>fmet</sup>
C) peptidyl transferase
D) mRNA
Q2) The tRNAs may bind to the standard stop codons
A) in cellular organelles which use a modified genetic code.
B) to accommodate the tRNA for the unusual amino acid selenocysteine.
C) when the anticodon in a tRNA mutates to a sequence which can bind.
D) All of these
Q3) Which of the following is not a function of termination factors in E.coli?
A) Cause the ribosomal subunits to dissociate.
B) Bind to the stop codons on the mRNA.
C) Carry GTP to provide energy for certain steps in the termination process.
D) Release the new peptide from the ribosome.
E) The termination factors do all of these.
Q4) Under certain conditions,tRNAs can bind to the standard stop codons.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Nucleic Acid Biotechnology Techniques
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Q1) A highly useful method for determining the presence of hydrolyzed fragments of DNA separated by electrophoresis is
A) autoradiography.
B) x-ray crystallography.
C) analytical ultracentrifugation.
D) all of the above
Q2) Microarrays allow the analysis of thousands of samples of DNA or protein to be performed simultaneously.
A)True
B)False
Q3) SyBr green and SyBr gold were developed because A) ethidium bromide is not sensitive enough for modern research
B) they allow faster electrophoretic separations of DNA
C) they fluoresce with RNA as well as DNA, while ethidium bromide does not
D) ethidium bromide is carcinogenic
Q4) Ethidium bromide slips between the bases of DNA giving it fluorescent properties that differ from those observed when it is free in solution.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Viruses, Cancer, and Immunology
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Q1) What is the function of protein spikes on a virus?
A) They protect the genome.
B) They are involved with incorporation of the genome into that of host (lysogeny).
C) They transcribe the RNA genome into a DNA copy.
D) They help the virus attach to the host.
Q2) The large-T protein of SV40 is an example of a(n)
A) epitope.
B) spike protein.
C) oncogene.
D) receptor.
Q3) Which of the following does not arise from a defect in the immune system?
A) Allergies.
B) Sugar intolerance.
C) Autoimmune diseases.
D) Immunodeficiency.
E) All of these can be caused by defects in the immune system.
Q4) Antibodies have two binding sites to react with antigens.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Importance of Energy Changes and
Electron Transfer in Metabolism
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Q1) By definition,a spontaneous reaction is one in which
A) energy is released.
B) energy is absorbed.
C) the energy change is zero.
D) the reaction happens quickly
E) energy is released and the reaction happens quickly
Q2) In order to drive the synthesis of ATP,the hydrolysis of an organic phosphate
A) must have a higher free energy change.
B) must have a lower free energy change.
C) must have a free energy change equal to that of ATP.
Q3) In biological redox reactions,hydrogen ions are usually transferred along with electrons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Metabolism takes place in stages
A) because enzymes cannot catalyze the process efficiently
B) and allows for efficient production and use of energy
C) because large free energy changes cannot occur in living organisms
D) to use highly unreactive compounds
17
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Chapter 16: Carbohydrates
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Q1) Cartilage and mucous are both slippery because:
A) Short polymers comprise these compounds.
B) The charge repulsion between the many acid groups in these polymers.
C) The sticky nature of sugars.
D) Both charge repulsion of acidic groups and the sticky nature of sugars.
E) All of these
Q2) Glycogen is
A) polysaccharide storage polymer found in plants
B) a linear polysaccharide
C) a highly branched polysaccharide found in animals
D) a synthetic sugar substitute
Q3) Sugars which differ in chirality only around one carbon are most specifically called
A) anomers.
B) diastereoisomers.
C) enantiomers.
D) epimers.
E) none of these
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Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) During anaerobic metabolism in red blood cells,the carbons of glucose end up in A) CO<sub>2</sub>.
B) ethanol.
C) lactic acid.
D) both CO<sub>2</sub> and ethanol.
E) all of the above.
Q2) The binding of glucose to hexokinase
A) is an example of lock-and-key binding of a substrate to the active site of an enzyme.
B) is an example of induced-fit binding of a substrate to the active site of an enzyme.
C) differs from the binding of substrates to other kinases.
D) is not well characterized.
Q3) The fate of pyruvate produced during glycolysis depends primarily on the availability of
A) NAD<sup>+</sup> to keep the pathway going.
B) molecular oxygen.
C) ADP for conversion to ATP.
D) coenzyme A for further metabolism of pyruvate.
E) phosphoric acid for the synthesis of ATP.
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Chapter 18: Storage Mechanisms and Control in Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Q1) The vitamin thiamine is important in transferring all of these types of groups,except:
A) 2-carbon sugar fragments
B) 3-carbon sugar fragments
C) 4-carbon sugar fragments
D) Sugar fragments which contain a carbonyl group (C=O).
E) Thiamine can transfer all of these types of groups.
Q2) Glycogen phosphorylase
A) exists in two forms, phosphorylase a and phosphorylase b
B) responds differently to allosteric effectors in its phosphorylated and dephosphorylated forms
C) both of these
D) neither of these
Q3) Branching and debranching enzymes use the exact same mechanism to add and remove the branches of the glycogen polymer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Properly used,glycogen loading by athletes is a safe process.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: The Citric Acid Cycle
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Q1) The enzymes involved in the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex are
A) physically separated from each other
B) crosslinked to each other by lipoic acid linkers
C) covalently bonded to coenzyme A
D) associated with each other in a cubical array
Q2) The reaction in which malate is oxidized to oxaloacetate is not thermodynamically favored.It takes place because
A) it is coupled to ATP hydrolysis.
B) it involves substrate-level phosphorylation.
C) the product is continuously used up in the next reaction of the cycle, which is thermodynamically favored.
D) it is coupled to a strong reduction.
Q3) In which cellular location do the majority of the reactions of the citric acid cycle take place?
A) the cytosol.
B) the mitochondrial matrix.
C) the endoplasmic reticulum.
D) lysosomes.
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Chapter 20: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Oxidative phosphorylation is coupled to electron transport in
A) Complexes I, II, and III
B) Complexes I, II, and IV
C) Complexes I, III, and IV
D) all four respiratory complexes
Q2) Brown adipose tissue is partially responsible for generating heat in the young human body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A cytochrome that can move freely in the mitochondrial membrane is
A) cytochrome a
B) cytochrome b
C) cytochrome c
D) cytochrome c<sub>1</sub>
Q4) Another name for Complex III in the mitochondria is
A) Cytochrome C oxidase.
B) NADH-CoQ reductase.
C) succinate-CoQ reductase.
D) Cytochrome A oxidase.
E) Cytochrome bc<sub>1</sub> complex.
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Chapter 21: Lipid Metabolism
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Q1) The components of lipoproteins such as LDL and HDL which makes them water soluble are
A) proteins.
B) phospholipids.
C) unesterified cholesterol.
D) proteins and phospholipids.
E) All of these
Q2) Phospholipases break down fats by
A) adding a phosphate group to them.
B) reducing the double bonds to single bonds.
C) hydrolyzing them.
D) removing acetyl-CoA units.
Q3) Which of the following is not an advantage of fatty acids as a form of energy storage?
A) Fatty acids contain more highly reduced carbons than carbohydrates.
B) Their hydrophobic nature allows close packing in adipose tissue.
C) Storage of fats in muscle tissue makes it readily available for use during activity.
D) Fats contain more energy per gram than sugars.
E) They do not require water for storage.
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Chapter 22: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following is the mobile electron carrier from Photosystem II to the cytochrome b<sub>6</sub>f complex?
A) plastoquinone
B) pheophytin
C) plastocyanin
D) ferredoxin
Q2) The Calvin Cycle for CO<sub>2</sub> fixation uses most of the same reactions as the pentose phosphate pathway.
A)True
B)False
Q3) After the CO<sub>2</sub> fixation step in photosynthesis the production of sugars takes place
A) as a reversal of glycolysis.
B) as a reversal of the citric acid cycle.
C) in the same manner as gluconeogenesis.
D) as a reversal of the pentose phosphate pathway.
Q4) During Z-scheme photosynthesis,ferredoxin oxidizes NADPH.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: The Metabolism of Nitrogen
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Q1) Carbamoyl phosphate is made in both the mitochondria and the cytosol,because it is used in the synthesis of several different molecules which are made in either of the compartments.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A molecule synthesized in the mitochondrial matrix and transported to the cytosol for subsequent reaction is
A) arginine
B) argininosuccinate
C) citrulline
D) ornithine
Q3) The serine family of amino acids includes synthesis of all the following amino acids,except:
A) Serine.
B) Glycine.
C) Cysteine.
D) Methionine.
E) The serine family includes synthesis of all four of these amino acids.
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Chapter 24: Integration of Metabolism: Cellular Signaling
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Q1) Trophic hormones act on A) specific endocrine glands.
B) liver cells.
C) muscles cells.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Growth hormone imbalance does not lead to A) acromegaly
B) dwarfism
C) giantism
D) Cushing's syndrome
Q3) Many hormones come in pairs,which have opposing metabolic activity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Chronic high carbohydrate diets can result in over-release of insulin,which actually causes hypoglycemia.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Low levels of iodide in the diet can lead to an enlarged thyroid.
A)True
B)False
26
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