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Personnel Management is an essential course that explores the foundational concepts and practices related to managing an organization's human resources. It covers recruitment, selection, training, performance appraisal, motivation, and compensation, emphasizing the strategies required to develop a productive workforce. The course also examines employment law, labor relations, and ethical issues in managing personnel, equipping students with both theoretical knowledge and practical skills to effectively handle workforce challenges and contribute to organizational goals.
Recommended Textbook
HR 1st Edition by Angelo S.
DeNisi
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14 Chapters
699 Verified Questions
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Q1) Refer to Scenario 1.1. Mr. See appears to be influenced by which era of management?
A) the Hawthorne era
B) Theory X/Y era
C) human relations era
D) scientific management era
E) production era
Answer: C
Q2) The human resource function in organizations today is viewed as a key activity that can enhance the bottom line.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The widespread use of ____ has affected how HR systems are delivered.
A) line managers
B) staff managers
C) executive teams
D) electronic technology
E) person-job fit principles
Answer: D
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Q1) The Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 was passed to
A) reduce the use of all drugs in the workplace.
B) reduce the use of illegal drugs in the workplace.
C) illuminate the use of all drugs during working hours.
D) enable companies to monitor the use of drugs outside of the workplace.
E) None of these
Answer: B
Q2) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act prohibits discrimination with respect to age of employees or applicants
A) near retirement age.
B) 40 and over.
C) over 18.
D) 65 or over.
E) over 65.
Answer: B
Q3) Title VII created the Equal Opportunity Commission.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Repatriation occurs when a(n)
A) company sends a manager to a second foreign assignment.
B) expatriate manager comes home from a foreign assignment.
C) manager likes a foreign assignment so much that he or she remains in the foreign country.
D) manager is sent on a foreign assignment.
E) manager on a foreign assignment is compensated in the local currency.
Answer: B
Q2) Locating a facility in a relatively underdeveloped area will impact all of the following human resource activities EXCEPT
A) training needs.
B) recruitment activities.
C) selection requirements.
D) development issues.
E) production design.
Answer: E
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Q1) Adrienne believes that it is fine to spend one or more hours each workday talking on the phone with personal friends. Adrienne's employer disagrees. This disagreement involves which part of the psychological contract?
A) The attitude
B) The organizational inducements
C) The personality
D) The individual contributions
E) The motivation
Q2) Describe the relationship among an organization's purpose, mission, and top management team and how this relationship affects its human resource practices.
Q3) Refer to Scenario 4.1. Which corporate-level strategy does LMNO appear to follow?
A) Related diversification
B) Unrelated diversification
C) Retrenchment
D) Differentiation
E) Cost leadership
Q4) Compare and contrast related and unrelated diversification.
Q5) How would an organization conduct an evaluation of its human resource function?
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Q1) The ____ approach to job analysis requires the specification of effective and ineffective performance.
A) skill variety
B) Fleischman
C) PAQ
D) MPDQ
E) critical incidents
Q2) Refer to Scenario 5.1. The definition of the essential functions of the new jobs will be particularly helpful with which other aspect of human resource management?
A) The turnover reduction program
B) Compliance with the ADA
C) Early retirement incentives
D) Increased productivity
E) Motivation of existing employees
Q3) The second step in job analysis involves determining methods for obtaining information.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Summarize legal issues in job analysis.
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Q1) In a progressive disciplinary program, the step before termination is usually suspension.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Job satisfaction is often based on a person's: A) coworkers.
B) pay.
C) supervisors.
D) type work.
E) all of these.
Q3) John often gets into heated arguments with his bosses over his job responsibilities. He is likely to be dissatisfied with his job due to A) the pay.
B) the work itself.
C) relationships with supervisors.
D) relationships with coworkers.
E) a negative personality.
Q4) How does each of the retention strategies mentioned in your text address one of the three causes of job dissatisfaction?
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an important piece of information necessary for performing a utility analysis of a selection system?
A) The cost of the selection system
B) A definition of job success for new hires
C) Estimates of the success rate under different scenarios
D) The construct and content validity of selection measures
E) The cost of a selection error
Q2) Which of the following statements would be MOST appropriate as part of a realistic job preview for the job of restaurant waiter?
A) Exciting opportunity to learn skills that enable you to quickly start your own profitable business.
B) Hazardous exposure to dangerous chemicals and sharp equipment.
C) You will have considerable autonomy and responsibility when performing your duties outside of the organization.
D) You will spend much of your work day on your feet.
E) Chance to network with wealthy individuals and make valuable contacts for professional positions.
Q3) Describe the steps involved in the selection process.
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Q1) What are some similarities among people in the workforce? What are some differences?
Q2) Which of the following is the BEST definition of empathy?
A) Understanding that differences exist among people
B) Tolerating behavior of others even though you do not understand it
C) Openly discussing problems that you have with others
D) Understanding the perspectives of others who are different
E) Treating people fairly and equitably
Q3) Refer to Scenario 8.1. Which of the following arguments can Ray NOT use for justifying the contribution of diversity to competitiveness?
A) Diversity leads to higher levels of productivity and lower levels of absenteeism.
B) Diversity creates a better understanding of different market segments and how to market products to them.
C) Diversity is likely to generate new ideas and better ways of doing things.
D) Diversity creates a larger pool of unique information that can be brought to bear on problems.
E) Diversity narrows the perspective of organizations, permitting them to make decisions more quickly.
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Q1) What is a pay survey? What types of information are necessary to conduct a pay survey? How might pay surveys be used by organizations and employees?
Q2) When Piccadilly Cafeterias filed for bankruptcy protection in the fall of 2003, its pension fund did not have enough assets to cover expected future payments. Which law ensures that retirees will receive their pensions as promised?
A) Tax Reform Act of 1986
B) Tax Reform Act of 1997
C) ERISA
D) FMLA
E) Economic Recovery Tax Act
Q3) Refer to Scenario 9.1. Which of the following is a benefit that Ms. Almond may NOT legally drop from Chocolatta's benefits package?
A) Health insurance
B) Employee assistance program
C) Unemployment insurance
D) Life insurance
E) Vacation pay
Q4) Compare employee wellness programs and employee assistance programs.
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Q1) Describe the basics of the most popular rating methods that may be used in the performance appraisal process.
Q2) Contextual performance is comprised of requirements of a job that an employee accomplishes or performs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What pitfalls may limit the effectiveness of career planning?
Q4) Which method of performance appraisal involves grouping employees into frequencies of performance evaluations?
A) Ranking
B) Paired comparison
C) Forced distribution
D) Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS)
E) Critical incident
Q5) A 360-degree evaluation only uses information collected from people working below the person being rated.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Briefly describe the most common deficiencies in performance appraisal.
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Q1) ____ items may be included in the collective bargaining if both parties agree.
A) Mandatory
B) Oblique
C) Permissive
D) Progressive
E) Regressive
Q2) Which of the following is necessary in order for decertification to occur?
A) The union must have served as the collective bargaining agent for the employees for at least one year.
B) No labor contract can currently be in force.
C) A majority of the members of the bargaining unit must vote for decertification.
D) All of these.
E) Both the union must have served as the collective bargaining agent for the employees for at least one year and no labor contract can currently be in force.
Q3) A slowdown occurs when an employer denies employees access to the workplace.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Summarize the positions of labor unions on prison labor and contingent workers.
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Q1) Workers who were employed in factories that made insulation containing asbestos breathed in tiny particles of the material, causing a very serious occupational illness. Asbestos particles in the air constitute
A) defective equipment.
B) a safety hazard.
C) a health hazard.
D) a personal action.
E) poor ventilation.
Q2) Refer to Scenario 12.1. The stressors associated with getting along and coordinating well with other workers involve
A) TQM demands.
B) enrichment demands.
C) physical demands.
D) task demands.
E) interpersonal demands.
Q3) Stress occurs from role ambiguity and role conflict, which are both considered part of interpersonal demands.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is the basis of reinforcement theory?
A) Fundamental differences exist between managers' and employees' needs.
B) Behavior is a function of its consequences.
C) Ability to perform translates into positive performance.
D) Rewards are based on motivation.
E) Employees will shirk if they are not monitored.
Q2) Goal setting theory was first proposed by:
A) Tate
B) Herzberg
C) Maslow
D) Locke
E) Vroom
Q3) Which of the following reinforcement schedules targets behavior on the basis of a varying amount of time that must transpire?
A) Fixed interval
B) Variable interval
C) Fixed ratio
D) Variable ratio
E) Continuous ratio
Q4) How can creativity be used to motivate staff?
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Q1) Which of the following would NOT be a method of improving the performance feedback process?
A) Have the ratee appraise his or her performance in advance of an appraisal interview.
B) Have the manager provide ongoing feedback to the ratee.
C) Have the manager avoid talking about the future in formal feedback sessions.
D) Have the manager focus on developmental aspects of performance.
E) Have the manager balance positive and negative feedback.
Q2) Which training method involves performing a job in a situation closely simulating the actual work environment?
A) Job rotation
B) Vestibule training
C) Apprenticeship training
D) On-the-job training
E) Job simulation
Q3) Describe the most common types of individual incentive pay plans.
Q4) Consider the job of cashier in a supermarket. How could a supermarket manager use the job characteristics approach to improve the design of the cashier position?
Q5) What common team and group incentive rewards may be used by organizations?
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